PSI Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of private mortgage insurance (PMI) on a conventional loan?
- It covers the property for fire and natural disaster damage
- It protects the lender against borrower default when LTV exceeds 80% (Correct answer)
- It guarantees the loan is repaid if the borrower dies
- It protects the borrower in case of job loss
Correct answer: It protects the lender against borrower default when LTV exceeds 80%
PMI protects the lender—not the borrower—against financial loss if the borrower defaults when the loan-to-value ratio is above 80%.
Question 2: A non-resident licensee in a state must agree to:
- Appoint the state real estate commission as their agent for service of process (Correct answer)
- Pass the full licensing exam again each renewal period
- Maintain a physical office within the state
- Hire a resident broker to co-sign all contracts
Correct answer: Appoint the state real estate commission as their agent for service of process
Non-resident licensees typically must designate the state licensing commission as their agent for service of legal process as a condition of licensure.
Question 3: Which type of life insurance policy builds cash value and keeps the premium level for the life of the insured?
- Universal life
- Variable term
- Term life
- Whole life (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Whole life
Whole life insurance provides permanent coverage with a fixed premium and a guaranteed cash value accumulation component.
Question 4: Which lien is voluntary and specific?
- IRS tax lien
- Special assessment
- Mechanic’s lien
- Mortgage lien (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Mortgage lien
A mortgage lien is considered voluntary because the property owner willingly pledges their property as collateral for a loan. It is also a specific lien because it attaches only to the particular piece of real estate identified in the mortgage agreement, not to all of the owner's assets. This makes it distinct from involuntary or general liens.
Question 5: Which nonforfeiture option uses a lapsed whole life policy's cash value to buy a reduced paid-up policy of the same type?
- Automatic premium loan
- Reduced paid-up (Correct answer)
- Cash surrender
- Extended term
Correct answer: Reduced paid-up
The reduced paid-up nonforfeiture option uses accumulated cash value to purchase a fully paid-up policy with a lower face amount than the original.
Question 6: What is the primary purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
- To provide detailed hazard and safe handling information for chemicals (Correct answer)
- To list the price of hazardous chemicals
- To record workplace injuries related to chemical exposure
- To document employee training on chemical use
Correct answer: To provide detailed hazard and safe handling information for chemicals
An SDS provides comprehensive information about a chemical substance including hazards, safe handling, storage, disposal, and emergency response procedures.
Question 7: An insured's home is destroyed by fire. The insurer pays the cost to rebuild it with new materials of like kind and quality. This is called:
- Market value
- Replacement cost (Correct answer)
- Agreed value
- Actual cash value
Correct answer: Replacement cost
Replacement cost coverage pays to repair or replace damaged property without deducting for depreciation.
Question 8: What is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula?
- SPI = Earned Value / Planned Value (Correct answer)
- SPI = Budget at Completion / Earned Value
- SPI = Planned Value / Actual Cost
- SPI = Actual Cost / Earned Value
Correct answer: SPI = Earned Value / Planned Value
SPI = EV / PV; a value greater than 1.0 means the project is ahead of schedule, while less than 1.0 means behind schedule.
Question 9: Which must a policy pass to avoid being a MEC?
- accelerated benefits test
- five-pay test
- policy loan test
- seven-pay test (Correct answer)
Correct answer: seven-pay test
To avoid being classified as a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC), a life insurance policy must pass the seven-pay test. This test ensures that the cumulative premiums paid into the policy within the first seven years do not exceed the net level premium required to pay up the policy in seven years. Failing this test results in the policy losing some favorable tax treatments, such as tax-free withdrawals and loans.
Question 10: What is the primary purpose of reinsurance?
- To allow insureds to purchase coverage from multiple insurers simultaneously
- To allow insurers to transfer portions of risk to other insurers (Correct answer)
- To regulate premium rates charged to policyholders
- To provide coverage after the primary policy limit is exhausted
Correct answer: To allow insurers to transfer portions of risk to other insurers
Reinsurance allows a primary insurer (ceding company) to transfer a portion of its risk to another insurer (reinsurer) to manage large exposures.
Question 11: Which insurance concept requires that an insured have a financial interest in the insured property at the time of loss?
- Contribution
- Subrogation
- Insurable interest (Correct answer)
- Indemnity
Correct answer: Insurable interest
Insurable interest requires the insured to face actual financial loss if the insured property is damaged or destroyed.
Question 12: Which type of insurance policy pays a death benefit only if the insured dies within a specified period?
- Variable life
- Whole life
- Universal life
- Term life (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Term life
Term life insurance provides coverage for a set period and pays a death benefit only if the insured dies during that term.
Question 13: The Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) are developed and interpreted by:
- The Federal Reserve Board
- The U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development
- The National Association of Realtors
- The Appraisal Standards Board of The Appraisal Foundation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The Appraisal Standards Board of The Appraisal Foundation
USPAP is promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board (ASB) of The Appraisal Foundation, a congressionally authorized organization that sets appraisal standards and qualifications.
Question 14: Which life insurance rider allows the policyowner to purchase additional coverage at specified future dates without proving insurability?
- Accidental death benefit rider
- Guaranteed insurability rider (Correct answer)
- Waiver of premium rider
- Return of premium rider
Correct answer: Guaranteed insurability rider
The guaranteed insurability (or guaranteed purchase option) rider lets the insured buy more coverage at specific ages or life events without a new medical exam.
Question 15: When an insured intentionally causes a loss, an insurer can deny the claim based on which policy provision?
- The mortgagee clause
- The pro-rata cancellation clause
- The coinsurance clause
- The concealment and fraud exclusion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The concealment and fraud exclusion
Insurance policies exclude coverage for intentional acts or fraud, so a claim arising from a deliberate loss by the insured can be denied under the concealment and fraud exclusion.
Question 16: What is the function of the 'other insurance' clause in a property or liability policy?
- It requires the insured to notify all other insurers of a claim
- It prevents an insured from buying coverage from multiple insurers
- It eliminates coverage for losses caused by government-owned property
- It determines how the insurer will share payment when multiple policies cover the same loss (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It determines how the insurer will share payment when multiple policies cover the same loss
The other insurance clause (pro rata, contribution by equal shares, or excess) governs how payment is apportioned when two or more policies cover the same loss.
Question 17: An insurer that uses reinsurance is attempting to accomplish which primary goal?
- Reduce premiums for individual policyholders
- Comply with state requirements to cover uninsurable risks
- Avoid paying agent commissions on large policies
- Transfer a portion of its risk to another insurer to limit potential losses (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Transfer a portion of its risk to another insurer to limit potential losses
Reinsurance is a risk management tool that allows a primary (ceding) insurer to transfer part of its exposure to a reinsurer, protecting the primary insurer's financial stability against large or catastrophic losses.
Question 18: Which settlement option in a life insurance policy pays the death benefit in equal installments over a fixed period regardless of how long the beneficiary lives?
- Interest only option
- Fixed period option (Correct answer)
- Life income option
- Fixed amount option
Correct answer: Fixed period option
The fixed period (installments for a fixed period) option pays out the proceeds plus interest in equal payments over a specified number of years, stopping when the period ends.
Question 19: A worker suffers a serious job-related injury resulting in an in-patient hospitalization. According to federal OSHA requirements, how soon must the employer report this event to OSHA?
- Within 24 hours. (Correct answer)
- By the next business day.
- Within 8 hours.
- Within 72 hours.
Correct answer: Within 24 hours.
Federal OSHA regulations explicitly state that employers must report any work-related in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye within 24 hours of the incident. A work-related fatality has a shorter reporting window of 8 hours.
Question 20: Under the UCC, what is the 'perfect tender rule' for the sale of goods?
- Minor defects in goods can never be grounds for rejection
- The buyer must accept goods that substantially conform to the contract
- The buyer must notify the seller of defects within 30 days
- The seller must tender goods that exactly conform to the contract or the buyer may reject (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The seller must tender goods that exactly conform to the contract or the buyer may reject
The UCC's perfect tender rule gives the buyer the right to reject goods if they fail to conform to the contract in any respect, though the seller may have a right to cure.
Question 21: In a balloon mortgage, what happens at the end of the loan term if the borrower has not refinanced?
- The lender extends the term automatically for another period
- The interest rate converts to a fixed rate for the remaining balance
- The entire remaining principal balance becomes due immediately (Correct answer)
- The monthly payments increase to fully amortize the remaining balance
Correct answer: The entire remaining principal balance becomes due immediately
A balloon mortgage requires a large lump-sum payment of the remaining principal at the end of the term, regardless of how little has been paid down.
Question 22: The Workers' Compensation law requires employers to provide benefits for employees injured:
- After a 30-day waiting period
- In the course and scope of employment (Correct answer)
- Only in serious accidents requiring hospitalization
- Only when the employer is at fault
Correct answer: In the course and scope of employment
Workers' compensation is a no-fault system covering injuries arising out of and in the course of employment, regardless of employer negligence.
Question 23: In risk management, 'risk avoidance' means:
- Purchasing insurance to fund potential losses
- Reducing the frequency of losses through safety measures
- Retaining financial responsibility for small losses
- Eliminating an activity or exposure that creates risk (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Eliminating an activity or exposure that creates risk
Risk avoidance involves completely eliminating the source of risk — for example, choosing not to engage in a particular activity.
Question 24: An applicant for a contractor's license is denied because they failed to disclose a prior felony conviction on their application. The denial is based on the applicant's failure to meet the licensing board's requirement for:
- Technical competence.
- Financial stability.
- Sufficient work experience.
- Good moral character. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Good moral character.
Most licensing laws require applicants to possess good moral character. Failing to disclose a criminal conviction is often viewed as a reflection of an applicant's character and truthfulness, which can be grounds for denial of a license, separate from the nature of the conviction itself.
Question 25: A borrower takes out a home equity line of credit (HELOC). Which statement BEST describes a HELOC?
- An unsecured personal line of credit tied to home value
- A government-backed second mortgage program
- A fixed lump-sum loan secured by home equity
- A revolving credit line secured by the borrower's home equity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A revolving credit line secured by the borrower's home equity
A HELOC is a revolving line of credit secured by the equity in a home, allowing borrowers to draw and repay funds as needed.
Question 26: In a deed of trust, who holds legal title to the property until the loan is repaid?
- The escrow company
- The borrower (trustor)
- The trustee (Correct answer)
- The lender (beneficiary)
Correct answer: The trustee
In a deed of trust, the trustee holds legal title on behalf of the lender until the borrower satisfies the debt.
Question 27: A business owner's policy (BOP) is designed primarily for which type of insured?
- Personal auto policyholders
- Small to mid-sized commercial businesses (Correct answer)
- High-net-worth homeowners
- Large industrial manufacturers
Correct answer: Small to mid-sized commercial businesses
A BOP bundles property and liability coverages at a discounted rate specifically for small to mid-sized businesses.
Question 28: Under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), what is the 'battle of the forms' rule regarding additional terms in acceptances between merchants?
- Additional terms require a written amendment
- The offeror's terms always control
- Additional terms become part of the contract unless they materially alter it or the offer expressly limits acceptance (Correct answer)
- Additional terms automatically void the acceptance
Correct answer: Additional terms become part of the contract unless they materially alter it or the offer expressly limits acceptance
UCC §2-207 provides that between merchants, additional terms in an acceptance become part of the contract unless they materially alter the deal, the offer limits acceptance to its terms, or the offeror objects within a reasonable time.
Question 29: A borrower has a gross monthly income of $5,000 and total monthly debt obligations of $1,900 including a proposed PITI of $1,200. What is the back-end debt-to-income ratio?
- 40%
- 24%
- 42%
- 38% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 38%
The back-end DTI divides total monthly debts ($1,900) by gross monthly income ($5,000) = 38%.
Question 30: What happens to a candidate's personal belongings (keys, wallet, phone) during a PSI exam?
- They are held by the proctor at the front desk
- They are placed in a sealed bag visible in the exam room
- They are secured in a provided locker at the testing center (Correct answer)
- They must be left in the candidate's vehicle
Correct answer: They are secured in a provided locker at the testing center
PSI testing centers provide secure lockers where candidates must store all personal belongings before entering the exam room.
Question 31: RESPA requires that buyers receive a Loan Estimate within how many business days of submitting a loan application?
- 5 business days
- 7 business days
- 3 business days (Correct answer)
- 1 business day
Correct answer: 3 business days
Under RESPA and TILA (TRID rules), lenders must provide the Loan Estimate within 3 business days of receiving a completed loan application.
Question 32: Which study resource type is generally most aligned with actual PSI exam content?
- Unofficial YouTube channels and forums
- General test prep books not specific to the exam
- Official state board-approved prep materials and PSI candidate bulletins (Correct answer)
- Social media flashcard groups
Correct answer: Official state board-approved prep materials and PSI candidate bulletins
State board-approved materials and the official PSI candidate bulletin are written to match the actual exam blueprint, making them the most relevant resources.
Question 33: A candidate passed their PSI exam. What is typically required before they can legally practice their licensed profession?
- Waiting 90 days for automatic licensing
- Submitting a license application and receiving state board approval (Correct answer)
- Paying PSI an additional licensing fee
- Printing the score report and beginning work immediately
Correct answer: Submitting a license application and receiving state board approval
Passing the PSI exam is one step; candidates must still apply to the state licensing board and receive official approval before practicing legally.
Question 34: A licensed contractor is disciplined by the state licensing board for abandoning a project without legal excuse. This action is reported and becomes part of the contractor's record. This is an example of the board's authority to:
- Enforce regulations and discipline licensees. (Correct answer)
- Set examination standards.
- Issue new licenses.
- Approve pre-licensing education.
Correct answer: Enforce regulations and discipline licensees.
Licensing boards are responsible not only for issuing licenses but also for enforcing the laws and regulations that govern the profession. This includes investigating complaints against licensees and taking disciplinary action, such as fines, suspension, or revocation of the license, when violations are found.
Question 35: An employer-sponsored retirement plan that defines the benefit the employee will receive at retirement is a:
- SIMPLE IRA
- Defined contribution plan
- 401(k) plan
- Defined benefit plan (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Defined benefit plan
A defined benefit plan promises a specific monthly benefit at retirement, usually based on salary history and years of service.
Question 36: A 'retroactive date' on a claims-made policy means that:
- Coverage applies to claims reported after the policy expires
- Claims from prior policy years are automatically covered
- The policy automatically renews without a gap in coverage
- No coverage applies to incidents that occurred before that date (Correct answer)
Correct answer: No coverage applies to incidents that occurred before that date
A retroactive date sets the earliest point in time from which a covered incident may have occurred; losses before this date are excluded.
Question 37: What is the term for an easement that benefits one parcel of land and burdens another?
- Easement in gross
- Profit
- Easement appurtenant (Correct answer)
- License
Correct answer: Easement appurtenant
An easement appurtenant attaches to and benefits a dominant estate, while burdening a servient estate, and transfers with the land.
Question 38: A life insurance policy provision that allows the policyowner to reinstate a lapsed policy within a specified period by paying back premiums with interest requires evidence of:
- Insurability (Correct answer)
- Financial hardship
- No additional evidence is needed
- Prior claims history
Correct answer: Insurability
Reinstatement provisions require the policyowner to provide evidence of insurability in addition to paying all overdue premiums plus interest.
Question 39: What is remote proctoring offered by PSI?
- An in-person exam with a tutor
- The ability to take exams from home or office with a live proctor monitoring via webcam (Correct answer)
- A self-study program
- An automated grading system
Correct answer: The ability to take exams from home or office with a live proctor monitoring via webcam
Remote proctoring allows candidates to take exams from any location with a computer and webcam, while a live proctor monitors the session to maintain exam integrity.
Question 40: Which of the following is the most reliable source of official PSI exam content outlines?
- Wikipedia
- Social media study groups
- Third-party study apps
- PSI candidate handbook or bulletin (Correct answer)
Correct answer: PSI candidate handbook or bulletin
The official PSI candidate handbook contains the exact content outline, weight of each domain, and exam policies you need to study.
Question 41: A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $150,000. At the current time, the earned value (EV) is $75,000, the planned value (PV) is $80,000, and the actual cost (AC) is $90,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI) for this project?
- 1.07
- 0.83 (Correct answer)
- 0.94
- 1.20
Correct answer: 0.83
The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is calculated using the formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC). In this scenario, EV = $75,000 and AC = $90,000. Therefore, CPI = $75,000 / $90,000 = 0.83. A CPI less than 1 indicates that the project is over budget.
Question 42: A real estate license applicant omits a prior misdemeanor conviction on their application. If discovered later, this could result in:
- Denial, suspension, or revocation for making a false statement on the application (Correct answer)
- Automatic approval because misdemeanors are not disqualifying
- A small administrative fine with no other consequences
- A mandatory three-year waiting period before reapplication
Correct answer: Denial, suspension, or revocation for making a false statement on the application
Providing false or incomplete information on a license application is a serious violation that can result in denial or revocation.
Question 43: Which scheduling technique uses probabilistic time estimates including optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely durations?
- Critical Path Method (CPM)
- Gantt Chart
- Resource Leveling
- Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
PERT uses three-point estimates (optimistic, pessimistic, most likely) to account for uncertainty in activity durations.
Question 44: A mechanic's lien may be filed by a:
- taxing authority
- contractor (Correct answer)
- buyer’s real estate agent
- seller’s real estate agent.
Correct answer: contractor
A mechanic's lien is a specific, involuntary lien placed on real property by individuals or companies who have provided labor or materials for improvements to that property but have not been paid. Contractors, subcontractors, and material suppliers are common parties who can file such a lien to secure payment for their work.
Question 45: How are PSI exam results typically delivered for licensure exams?
- Only by postal mail weeks later
- Via email after 30 days
- Immediately on-screen with a printed pass/fail report (Correct answer)
- Announced verbally by the proctor
Correct answer: Immediately on-screen with a printed pass/fail report
Most PSI licensure exams provide an immediate on-screen score report at the end of the exam, often including a pass or fail determination.
Question 46: The 'twisting' of insurance refers to which prohibited practice?
- Inducing a policyholder to lapse or surrender a policy by misrepresenting facts to buy a new one (Correct answer)
- Sharing commissions with unlicensed persons
- Charging different premiums to insureds in the same risk class
- Issuing a policy without the required state filing
Correct answer: Inducing a policyholder to lapse or surrender a policy by misrepresenting facts to buy a new one
Twisting is an unfair trade practice where an agent uses misrepresentation or incomplete comparisons to persuade a policyholder to replace an existing policy with a new one that may not be in their best interest.
Question 47: Which of the following BEST describes a 'bridge loan' in real estate?
- A long-term loan used to finance commercial construction projects
- A short-term loan used to bridge the gap between buying a new home and selling the existing one (Correct answer)
- A loan that bridges the difference between appraised value and purchase price
- A government-subsidized loan for first-time homebuyers
Correct answer: A short-term loan used to bridge the gap between buying a new home and selling the existing one
A bridge loan is short-term financing that allows a borrower to purchase a new property before their current property is sold.
Question 48: Which provision in a disability income policy requires the insured to be under a physician's care to receive benefits?
- Elimination period
- Physician care clause (Correct answer)
- Residual benefit
- Own-occupation definition
Correct answer: Physician care clause
The physician care clause stipulates that the insured must be under regular care of a licensed physician to qualify for disability benefits.
Question 49: What is float (or slack) in project scheduling?
- The overlap between two concurrent tasks
- Extra budget reserved for unexpected costs
- The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date (Correct answer)
- The buffer added to each task estimate
Correct answer: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date
Float is the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the project's overall completion date.
Question 50: What is a biweekly mortgage's main benefit?
- they accept those with poor credit
- easier for budgeting
- quicker loan repayment (Correct answer)
- they provide more affordable rates of interest
Correct answer: quicker loan repayment
The main benefit of a biweekly mortgage is quicker loan repayment. By making half of the monthly payment every two weeks, borrowers effectively make 26 half-payments, which equates to 13 full monthly payments per year. This extra annual payment significantly reduces the principal balance faster, shortening the loan term and saving a substantial amount in interest over the life of the loan.
Question 51: What is the purpose of a 'deductible' in an insurance policy?
- The portion of a loss the policyholder must pay before insurance kicks in (Correct answer)
- A premium discount for bundling policies
- The maximum amount the insurer will pay per claim
- The insurer's profit margin on each policy
Correct answer: The portion of a loss the policyholder must pay before insurance kicks in
A deductible is the out-of-pocket amount the insured must pay before the insurance company begins covering the remaining loss.
Question 52: Under OSHA's scaffolding standard, what is the minimum width of a scaffold platform?
- 12 inches
- 24 inches
- 20 inches (Correct answer)
- 18 inches
Correct answer: 20 inches
OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 requires scaffold platforms to be at least 18 inches wide, though 20 inches is the minimum for most supported scaffolds used by employees.
Question 53: Which loan type is typically used by investors to fund a quick property purchase before obtaining permanent financing?
- Blanket mortgage
- Bridge loan (Correct answer)
- Graduated payment mortgage
- Reverse mortgage
Correct answer: Bridge loan
A bridge loan is a short-term loan that 'bridges' the gap between a property purchase and securing long-term financing.
Question 54: In an appraisal report, reconciliation refers to the process of:
- Verifying that all comparable sales used are within the same ZIP code
- Confirming the property's legal description matches the deed
- Recalculating adjustments to ensure mathematical accuracy
- Weighing the reliability of each approach to value and arriving at a final value opinion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Weighing the reliability of each approach to value and arriving at a final value opinion
Reconciliation is the appraiser's judgment process of analyzing the results from all applicable approaches and weighting them based on their reliability to arrive at a single final value opinion.
Question 55: In a real estate transaction, 'earnest money' is best described as:
- The commission paid to the buyer's agent at closing
- A penalty fee charged if the seller backs out
- A good-faith deposit made by the buyer to demonstrate intent to purchase (Correct answer)
- The lender's origination fee added to the loan balance
Correct answer: A good-faith deposit made by the buyer to demonstrate intent to purchase
Earnest money is a deposit provided by the buyer when submitting an offer to show serious intent to purchase; it is typically applied toward the purchase price at closing.
Question 56: What is a 'novation' in contract law?
- Converting an oral contract to a written one
- Extending the performance deadline
- Adding a new term to an existing contract
- Substituting a new party or obligation, releasing the original party from liability (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Substituting a new party or obligation, releasing the original party from liability
A novation substitutes a new party or obligation for an existing one, with the consent of all parties, and extinguishes the original party's liability.
Question 57: The principle of highest and best use requires that use to be:
- Legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and maximally productive (Correct answer)
- Currently used, zoned for residential, income-producing, and owner-occupied
- Permitted under current zoning, profitable, and environmentally sustainable
- Approved by the municipality, historically consistent, and commercially viable
Correct answer: Legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and maximally productive
Highest and best use is the use that is legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and maximally productive — all four criteria must be met.
Question 58: Which type of property ownership gives two or more people equal, undivided interest with the right of survivorship?
- Tenancy by the entirety
- Community property
- Tenancy in common
- Joint tenancy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Joint tenancy
Joint tenancy includes the right of survivorship, meaning a deceased owner's share automatically passes to the surviving co-owners.
Question 59: An insurance 'binder' serves as:
- A summary of all exclusions in the policy
- Proof of final policy issuance
- Temporary evidence of coverage until a formal policy is issued (Correct answer)
- A mandatory disclosure form for high-risk applicants
Correct answer: Temporary evidence of coverage until a formal policy is issued
An insurance binder is a temporary written agreement that provides proof of coverage until the full insurance policy can be formally issued and delivered.
Question 60: A borrower's existing loan is replaced with a new loan at a lower interest rate. This process is called:
- Assumption
- Subordination
- Novation
- Refinancing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Refinancing
Refinancing replaces an existing mortgage with a new loan, often to secure a lower interest rate or different loan terms.
Question 61: What form of payment does PSI typically accept for exam registration?
- Personal check mailed to PSI
- Cash only at the testing center
- Credit or debit card online (Correct answer)
- Cryptocurrency transfers
Correct answer: Credit or debit card online
PSI primarily accepts credit and debit card payments through their online registration portal.
Question 62: Among these, which is a general lien?
- Bail bond lien
- Real estate taxes
- Judgment (Correct answer)
- Mechanic’s lien
Correct answer: Judgment
A general lien attaches to all of a debtor's property, both real and personal, within the jurisdiction. A judgment lien, which arises from a court order, is a classic example of a general lien because it can be enforced against any non-exempt property owned by the debtor to satisfy the judgment. Other options listed are typically specific liens.
Question 63: Which statement about the PSI candidate handbook is correct?
- It outlines policies, ID requirements, and testing procedures (Correct answer)
- It contains exam content and answer keys
- It is updated only every five years
- It is only available by mailing PSI directly
Correct answer: It outlines policies, ID requirements, and testing procedures
The PSI candidate handbook describes testing rules, acceptable identification, scheduling procedures, and what to expect on exam day.
Question 64: Under real estate license law, 'commingling' refers to:
- Advertising one price publicly while negotiating a different price privately
- Mixing client funds with the broker's personal or business operating funds (Correct answer)
- Representing both buyer and seller in the same transaction
- Failing to disclose a dual agency relationship
Correct answer: Mixing client funds with the broker's personal or business operating funds
Commingling is the illegal mixing of clients' funds (such as earnest money) with the broker's own funds.
Question 65: A homeowner borrows $50,000 using their home's equity as collateral to fund a renovation. This is best described as a:
- Purchase money mortgage
- Bridge loan
- Construction loan
- Home equity loan (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Home equity loan
A home equity loan allows homeowners to borrow against the equity built up in their property.
Question 66: Assemblage in real estate refers to the process of:
- Combining two or more adjacent parcels under single ownership to create greater utility (Correct answer)
- Dividing a large parcel into smaller lots for individual sale
- Estimating the contributory value of individual improvements to a property
- Calculating site value by the land residual technique
Correct answer: Combining two or more adjacent parcels under single ownership to create greater utility
Assemblage is the combining of two or more adjacent parcels into one larger holding, often resulting in plottage value — the incremental increase in value created by the combination.
Question 67: A coffee shop posts a sign offering a free coffee to the 100th customer of the day. This is an example of what type of contract?
- A unilateral contract (Correct answer)
- An executed contract
- A bilateral contract
- An implied contract
Correct answer: A unilateral contract
A unilateral contract is formed when one party makes a promise in exchange for a specific act by another party. The contract is accepted by the performance of the act. In this scenario, the coffee shop (the offeror) promises a reward, and the contract is only accepted when a customer performs the act of being the 100th person to make a purchase.
Question 68: What is the primary remedy for breach of contract?
- Punitive damages to punish the breaching party
- Compensatory damages to put the non-breaching party in the position they would have been in had the contract been performed (Correct answer)
- Specific performance in all cases
- Rescission in all cases
Correct answer: Compensatory damages to put the non-breaching party in the position they would have been in had the contract been performed
The primary remedy for breach of contract is compensatory damages, designed to give the non-breaching party the benefit of the bargain they expected.
Question 69: Which organization of the government was established to promote low-income housing?
- $1,000
- $2,750 (Correct answer)
- $275
- $1,375
Correct answer: $2,750
The provided question text 'Which organization of the government was established to promote low-income housing?' does not align with the numerical answer options, making it impossible to explain why '$2,750' is correct in this context. Typically, a question leading to a specific dollar amount like this would involve a calculation related to fees, taxes, or maximum limits within a real estate transaction, which is missing here.
Question 70: An encumbrance that makes property security for the repayment of a debt is called a:
- Lien (Correct answer)
- Restriction
- Encroachment
- Easement
Correct answer: Lien
A lien is a financial encumbrance that gives a creditor the right to have a debt satisfied from the property if the debt is not paid.
Question 71: Under COBRA, how long may a qualified beneficiary typically continue group health coverage after losing coverage due to a voluntary termination of employment?
- 29 months
- 12 months
- 36 months
- 18 months (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 18 months
COBRA allows qualified beneficiaries who lose group health coverage due to voluntary or involuntary termination of employment (other than gross misconduct) to continue coverage for up to 18 months.
Question 72: Which defense time restriction makes the policy incontestable?
- 5 years
- 2 years (Correct answer)
- 12 months
- 18 months
Correct answer: 2 years
The incontestability clause in life insurance policies states that after a policy has been in force for a specific period, usually two years, the insurer cannot dispute the validity of the policy due to misstatements or concealment in the application. This provision protects the beneficiary from claims being denied years later based on minor inaccuracies. After this two-year period, the policy becomes incontestable.
Question 73: Which type of mortgage uses one loan to finance multiple properties simultaneously?
- Open-end mortgage
- Wraparound mortgage
- Blanket mortgage (Correct answer)
- Package mortgage
Correct answer: Blanket mortgage
A blanket mortgage covers two or more parcels of real estate under a single loan, often used by developers.
Question 74: A lender quotes an interest rate of 6.5% but the annual percentage rate (APR) is 6.9%. What accounts for this difference?
- The APR represents the lender's profit margin on the loan
- The APR is always lower than the stated interest rate
- The APR reflects only the principal balance owed
- The APR includes the interest rate plus fees and costs associated with the loan (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The APR includes the interest rate plus fees and costs associated with the loan
APR expresses the true annual cost of borrowing by incorporating the interest rate plus loan fees (origination fees, discount points, etc.) into a single percentage.
Question 75: Inverse condemnation lawsuits can be filed by _____.
- the zoning board
- the city
- the police
- a homeowner (Correct answer)
Correct answer: a homeowner
Inverse condemnation occurs when a government entity takes private property for public use without formally initiating eminent domain proceedings, but its actions effectively deprive the owner of the property's use and value. In such cases, the homeowner (the property owner) has the right to file a lawsuit against the government to seek just compensation for the taking.
Question 76: Under what circumstances may a professional license typically be placed on 'inactive' status?
- Voluntarily by a licensee who is not currently practicing but wishes to maintain the license. (Correct answer)
- Automatically after 5 years of continuous practice.
- When the licensee fails the renewal examination.
- When the licensee is under investigation for misconduct.
Correct answer: Voluntarily by a licensee who is not currently practicing but wishes to maintain the license.
Inactive status is an option for licensees who are not actively working in their profession but want to keep their license without having to meet all the active requirements, such as continuing education. It allows for easier reactivation in the future compared to letting a license lapse or expire completely.
Question 77: Depreciation, defined as a decrease in value from any cause, is usually classified into three categories. The loss of a property's value due to normal wear and tear is called ______.
- economic obsolesce
- external obsolescence
- physical deterioration (Correct answer)
- functional obsolesce
Correct answer: physical deterioration
Physical deterioration is the loss of value that comes from the wear and tear that buildings go through as they age. Floods, earthquakes, fire, UV rays, wind, etc. can cause physical damage.
Question 78: Which practice best helps candidates simulate actual PSI exam conditions during preparation?
- Studying in short 5-minute bursts throughout the day
- Watching video lectures at 2x speed repeatedly
- Reading the textbook aloud
- Completing timed practice tests without interruptions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Completing timed practice tests without interruptions
Timed, uninterrupted practice tests replicate the pressure and pacing of the real exam, improving performance under test conditions.
Question 79: An insured deliberately misrepresents a material fact on an insurance application. This is known as:
- Estoppel
- Fraud (Correct answer)
- Concealment
- Warranty
Correct answer: Fraud
Fraud is an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact made with the intent to deceive the insurer.
Question 80: Under the doctrine of 'reasonable expectations,' courts will interpret policy language in favor of:
- Industry standard policy interpretations
- The insured's reasonable understanding of coverage (Correct answer)
- The state insurance department's guidelines
- The insurer's stated intent
Correct answer: The insured's reasonable understanding of coverage
The reasonable expectations doctrine holds that coverage should align with what an average insured would reasonably expect the policy to provide.
Question 81: A potential insured wants to buy a policy that would offer the HIGHEST level of protection for a brief period of time during which the insured will have few financial resources. Which of the following types of insurance should the agent suggest the potential insured to purchase?
- Limited-Pay Life
- Whole Life
- Variable Life
- Term Life (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Term Life
Term life insurance offers the highest level of protection for the lowest premium over a specific period. It is ideal for individuals with limited financial resources who need maximum coverage for a temporary need, such as covering a mortgage or providing for dependents during their working years.
Question 82: A corporation's shareholders are generally not personally liable for corporate debts. Under what circumstances might a court 'pierce the corporate veil' and hold shareholders liable?
- When shareholders comingle personal and corporate funds and use the corporation as an alter ego (Correct answer)
- Whenever the corporation fails to earn a profit
- When the corporation has fewer than five employees
- When a shareholder owns more than 50% of the stock
Correct answer: When shareholders comingle personal and corporate funds and use the corporation as an alter ego
Courts pierce the corporate veil when shareholders ignore corporate formalities, commingle funds, or use the corporation as a personal alter ego to perpetrate fraud or injustice.
Question 83: How many employees can share a single lock on a group lockout procedure?
- The crew supervisor applies one lock for the entire crew
- Up to 5 employees can share one lock
- Each authorized employee must apply their own personal lock (Correct answer)
- One lock per department is sufficient
Correct answer: Each authorized employee must apply their own personal lock
In group lockout procedures, each authorized employee working on the equipment must apply their own personal lock to the group lockout hasp to ensure individual protection.
Question 84: An insurance agent who represents multiple insurers and legally represents the policyholder rather than any single insurer is a:
- Captive agent
- Independent agent
- Managing general agent
- Insurance broker (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Insurance broker
A broker represents the buyer/policyholder and can place coverage with multiple insurers, unlike an agent who represents the insurer.
Question 85: What term describes the process by which the government acquires private property for public use with just compensation?
- Eminent domain (Correct answer)
- Escheat
- Adverse possession
- Police power
Correct answer: Eminent domain
Eminent domain is the government's constitutional power to take private property for public use, provided just compensation is paid to the owner.
Question 86: Under license law, a broker must keep transaction records for a minimum period, typically:
- Three to five years (Correct answer)
- One year
- Six months
- Ten years
Correct answer: Three to five years
Most states require brokers to retain transaction records, including contracts and trust account records, for three to five years.
Question 87: A limited payment life insurance policy has all of the same characteristics as a straight life insurance policy, with the exception of:
- Premium-paying period is longer. (Correct answer)
- Cash value accrues more quickly.
- Premiums are higher.
- Policy is paid up before the age of 100.
Correct answer: Premium-paying period is longer.
A limited payment life insurance policy has a *shorter* premium-paying period compared to a straight (or continuous premium) whole life policy, where premiums are paid until age 100 or death. Due to this condensed payment schedule, individual premium payments are higher, and the cash value typically accrues more quickly.
Question 88: An insurer's legal right to recover from a negligent third party the amount paid to an insured claimant is called:
- Indemnity
- Subrogation (Correct answer)
- Contribution
- Assignment
Correct answer: Subrogation
Subrogation allows the insurer to 'step into the shoes' of the insured and sue the responsible party to recover claim payments made.
Question 89: Why should candidates prioritize high-weighted domains when creating a PSI study plan?
- High-weighted domains are guaranteed to have easier questions
- Lower-weighted domains are always easier and need no study
- PSI only tests candidates on the highest-weighted domain
- Higher-weighted domains contribute more points to the total score, maximizing study efficiency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Higher-weighted domains contribute more points to the total score, maximizing study efficiency
Focusing first on domains with greater weight ensures that study time yields the highest possible score impact per hour invested.
Question 90: Which listing agreement gives the broker the exclusive right to a commission regardless of who sells the property?
- Open listing
- Exclusive right-to-sell listing (Correct answer)
- Exclusive agency listing
- Net listing
Correct answer: Exclusive right-to-sell listing
An exclusive right-to-sell listing entitles the broker to a commission if the property sells during the listing period, no matter who procures the buyer.
Question 91: Which FHA mortgage insurance premium is collected at loan closing?
- Monthly MIP
- Upfront MIP (UFMIP) (Correct answer)
- Hazard insurance premium
- Annual MIP
Correct answer: Upfront MIP (UFMIP)
FHA loans require an Upfront Mortgage Insurance Premium (UFMIP), currently 1.75% of the base loan amount, paid at closing.
Question 92: A long-term care policy that allows unused benefits to be carried forward to extend the benefit period is using which feature?
- Inflation protection
- Pooled benefits (Correct answer)
- Restoration of benefits
- Shared care rider
Correct answer: Pooled benefits
Pooled benefits allow the total benefit pool to be drawn upon flexibly, so unused daily benefits effectively extend the total coverage period.
Question 93: What happens if you arrive more than 15 minutes late to a PSI exam?
- You receive extra time at the end
- You reschedule at no charge
- You may be denied entry and forfeit your fee (Correct answer)
- You are allowed to start but flagged
Correct answer: You may be denied entry and forfeit your fee
PSI policy states that candidates arriving more than 15 minutes late may be turned away and forfeit their examination fee.
Question 94: What is the most important reason to read all answer choices before selecting one on a PSI exam?
- Reading all choices wastes valuable time
- A later choice may be more complete or accurate than the first plausible option (Correct answer)
- PSI always places the correct answer last
- Only the first two choices are usually relevant
Correct answer: A later choice may be more complete or accurate than the first plausible option
Exam writers often include partially correct 'distractors'; reading all options ensures you identify the best answer rather than the first acceptable one.
Question 95: If an older structure cannot be equipped with air conditioning, it is an example of:
- economic obsolescence
- physical deterioration
- functional obsolescence (Correct answer)
- external deterioration
Correct answer: functional obsolescence
Functional obsolescence refers to a loss in value due to outdated design, features, or inadequate utility within the property itself, making it less desirable or efficient compared to newer properties. An older structure unable to accommodate modern amenities like air conditioning is a classic example, as it negatively impacts the property's functionality and market appeal.
Question 96: What fiduciary duty requires an agent to place the client's interests above all others, including the agent's own?
- Disclosure
- Loyalty (Correct answer)
- Reasonable care
- Confidentiality
Correct answer: Loyalty
The duty of loyalty requires the agent to act solely in the best interest of the principal and to avoid any conflicts of interest.
Question 97: Which of the following is considered a primary form of ID accepted by PSI at check-in?
- Student ID from a university
- Employer-issued badge
- Library card
- Government-issued photo ID such as a driver's license (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Government-issued photo ID such as a driver's license
PSI requires at least one government-issued photo ID such as a driver's license, passport, or military ID for candidate verification.
Question 98: A mortgage's discount points are calculated as a percentage of:
- the closing cost
- the selling price
- the down payment
- the amount borrowed (Correct answer)
Correct answer: the amount borrowed
Mortgage discount points are calculated as a percentage of the amount borrowed. To reduce the interest rate by one eighth of a percent or one quarter of a percent, you can pay one point, or one percent of the loan amount. Depending on how many points a borrower pays, the lender will offer different rates and payment plans.
Question 99: An employee performing cord-and-plug equipment servicing is exempt from LOTO requirements if which condition is met?
- A supervisor is present during the service
- The work is completed in under 10 minutes
- The plug is under the exclusive control of the employee performing the work (Correct answer)
- The equipment is less than 120 volts
Correct answer: The plug is under the exclusive control of the employee performing the work
OSHA exempts cord-and-plug equipment from LOTO if the plug is unplugged and kept under the exclusive personal control of the employee doing the service work.
Question 100: What is the difference between a project constraint and a project assumption?
- They are functionally identical in project planning
- Assumptions require approval; constraints do not
- Constraints are known limiting factors; assumptions are considered true without proof (Correct answer)
- Constraints are external; assumptions are internal to the team
Correct answer: Constraints are known limiting factors; assumptions are considered true without proof
Constraints are known restrictions (budget, time, resources), while assumptions are factors believed to be true but not yet confirmed.
PSI Licensing Exam
The PSI Licensing Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds