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Pharmacology Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Pharmacology facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here β€” free, no sign-up.

100 questions
120 min time limit
70.00% to pass
  1. A patient with pheochromocytoma requires surgical removal. Which alpha-blocker is used preoperatively to prevent hypertensive crisis? β†’ Phenoxybenzamine
  2. Why is intravenous administration considered the gold standard for 100% bioavailability? β†’ IV drugs are delivered directly into systemic circulation with no absorption barrier
  3. Which drug used for Parkinson's disease works by inhibiting MAO-B and thereby preserving dopamine in the striatum? β†’ Selegiline
  4. A patient on guanethidine for severe hypertension is also prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. The expected interaction is: β†’ Reduced antihypertensive effect because TCAs block neuronal uptake of guanethidine
  5. Vecuronium reverses neuromuscular blockade is achieved with neostigmine. What must be co-administered to prevent bradycardia? β†’ Atropine or glycopyrrolate
  6. Dopamine at low doses (1–3 mcg/kg/min) causes renal vasodilation primarily via: β†’ Dopamine D1 receptor stimulation
  7. Which of the following is an example of Phase II drug metabolism? β†’ Glucuronide conjugation
  8. When two drugs are combined and the effect equals the sum of their individual effects, this is called: β†’ Additive effect
  9. Which autonomic drug is used to treat neurogenic orthostatic hypotension by activating peripheral alpha-1 receptors? β†’ Midodrine
  10. Which antibiotic class is contraindicated in children under 8 years of age due to risk of permanent tooth discoloration? β†’ Tetracyclines
  11. Which term describes the irreversible loss of drug from the body through all elimination pathways combined? β†’ Total body clearance
  12. Radioactive iodine (I-131) treats hyperthyroidism by: β†’ Destroying overactive thyroid tissue via beta radiation
  13. Protean agonism describes a situation in which a partial agonist: β†’ Acts as an agonist in normal tissue but an antagonist in constitutively active systems
  14. Phenytoin exhibits zero-order kinetics at therapeutic doses. The clinical implication is that: β†’ Small dose increases can cause disproportionately large plasma level increases
  15. A patient taking warfarin starts a course of fluconazole. What clinical adjustment is most likely needed? β†’ Decrease warfarin dose
  16. Which antiparasitic drug is first-line for treatment of malaria caused by chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum? β†’ Artemether-lumefantrine
  17. Which adverse effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors and results from bradykinin accumulation? β†’ Dry persistent cough
  18. Which pharmacodynamic interaction occurs when two drugs together produce an effect less than additive? β†’ Antagonism
  19. A patient takes a non-selective beta-blocker and later uses an epinephrine auto-injector. Which cardiovascular effect is most likely? β†’ Severe hypertension with bradycardia
  20. Which drug combination is most likely to cause serotonin syndrome? β†’ Phenelzine + meperidine
  21. N-acetylation polymorphism classifies patients as slow or fast acetylators. Slow acetylators taking isoniazid are at greatest risk for which adverse effect? β†’ Hepatotoxicity from acetylhydrazine accumulation
  22. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a submaximal response even at full receptor occupancy is called a: β†’ Partial agonist
  23. A patient is a 'poor metabolizer' of CYP2C19. They are prescribed omeprazole. What is the expected outcome compared to an extensive metabolizer? β†’ Higher omeprazole plasma levels
  24. A patient with pheochromocytoma is scheduled for surgery. Which drug class should be started FIRST to prevent hypertensive crisis during tumor manipulation? β†’ Alpha-blockers before beta-blockers
  25. A patient develops C. difficile infection after antibiotic therapy. Which drug class most commonly precipitates this complication? β†’ Fluoroquinolones
  26. Which effect distinguishes norepinephrine from epinephrine at clinical doses? β†’ Norepinephrine has no beta-2 effect and causes reflex bradycardia
  27. Fenofibrate primarily lowers triglycerides by activating which nuclear receptor? β†’ Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha (PPAR-Ξ±)
  28. A non-competitive antagonist is added to a preparation containing an agonist. How will this affect the agonist's dose-response curve? β†’ The maximal effect (Emax) will be reduced, and the EC50 will remain unchanged.
  29. Which receptor family primarily signals through G-protein–mediated second messenger cascades? β†’ G-protein–coupled receptors (GPCRs)
  30. Sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto) improves heart failure outcomes by combining an ARB with an inhibitor of which enzyme? β†’ Neprilysin
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