FREE PANRE Question and Answers 2026 October
🎓 Prepare for the FREE PANRE Question and Answers certification. Practice questions with answer explanations covering all exam domains.
Where are Greenfield filters inserted to avoid pulmonary emboli for individuals who frequently clot or cannot take anticoagulants?
Explanation:
In patients with recurring clots or in those who are unable to take anticoagulants, Greenfield inferior vena cava (IVC) filters, sometimes referred to as venous filters, are implanted. The cone-shaped filter traps blood clots from the lower extremities before they can go to the lungs while still allowing blood to flow around it.
Which of the following conditions can metronidazole be used to treat?
Explanation:
Trichomonas vaginalis is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. Patients may exhibit vaginal discharge, pruritis, and dyspareunia. They may also exhibit a "Strawberry cervix" during a pelvic exam and show signs of parasites under a microscope. The drug metronidazole is effective against protozoa. You must also take care of your partner.
Which type of structure sees the most ectopic pregnancies?
Explanation:
The most frequent location for an ectopic pregnancy is the fallopian tube (when implantation occurs anywhere outside the endometrium). Early in pregnancy, individuals may complain of pain and bleeding. (Diazepam) Smoking, PID, and advanced maternal age all increase risk. The uterine cornu is the second most typical location (where the fallopian tube enters the uterus).
When examining a patient who has known benign prostatic hyperplasia, what would you anticipate finding?
Explanation:
Urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, hesitation, and dribbling can all be symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Although the cause of BPH is uncertain, aging-related hormone changes may be a factor. Prostate cancer patients may have a hard, nodular prostate, whereas BPH patients typically have an enlarged, "rubbery" prostate. An illness like prostatitis, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count would be more typical.
What might a chest x-ray reveal in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF)?
Explanation:
On a chest x-ray, the Kerley B lines denote pulmonary edema. They show up as short parallel lines at the costophrenic angles or the margins of the lungs and signify septal thickening. You may anticipate that the heart would enlarge in CHF. The appearance of ground glass is frequently seen with intestinal illness. When a structure's border cannot be seen, as in the case of atelectasis, where the heart is hidden by lung disease, this is referred to be a silent indication.
What gestational stage is the typical time at which low-risk pregnant women are evaluated for diabetes?
Explanation:
All pregnant women are checked between 24-28 weeks of pregnancy with an oral glucose tolerance test to detect gestational diabetes, which increases morbidity and mortality in both the mother and fetus. Women who have risk factors such as undiagnosed miscarriages, a family history of diabetes, or previous gestational diabetes may be examined in the first trimester.
Which of the following statements about patients with cystic fibrosis and end-of-life difficulties is accurate?
Explanation:
The respiratory and digestive systems are most affected by the hereditary disease cystic fibrosis. Supportive care includes management of related illnesses, nutrition adjustments, physical therapy for the chest, and infection control. Although the patient should be offered options and information regarding the quality of life, transplantation is frequently necessary. The late 30s are the median surviving age.
Important: The PANRE exam covers multiple domains. Create a study schedule that allocates more time to unfamiliar topics while maintaining review of strong areas.
- ✓Confirm your exam appointment and location
- ✓Bring required identification documents
- ✓Arrive 30 minutes early to check in
- ✓Read each question carefully before answering
- ✓Flag difficult questions and return to them later
- ✓Manage your time — don't spend too long on one question
- ✓Review flagged questions before submitting
Sample PANRE Test Practice Questions
Try these questions from our free PANRE Test practice tests. The correct answer and an explanation follow each question.
A 66-year-old woman presents with sudden painless vision loss in one eye described as a 'curtain coming down.' Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Central retinal vein occlusion
- B. Central retinal artery occlusion
- C. Retinal detachment
- D. Optic neuritis
Answer: B. Central retinal artery occlusion
Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden painless vision loss, pale ischemic retina, and a cherry-red spot at the fovea due to preserved choroidal circulation.
Which topical agent is first-line for treating impetigo in a child with a small, localized area of honey-crusted lesions?
- A. Topical clindamycin
- B. Topical mupirocin
- C. Topical tretinoin
- D. Topical hydrocortisone
Answer: B. Topical mupirocin
Topical mupirocin is first-line for localized impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
A 45-year-old woman undergoes LEEP for CIN 2. Pathology returns with CIN 2 and negative margins. What is the recommended follow-up?
- A. Return to routine screening in 3 years
- B. Co-testing (HPV + cytology) at 1 and 2 years post-treatment
- C. Repeat colposcopy in 6 months
- D. Hysterectomy
Answer: B. Co-testing (HPV + cytology) at 1 and 2 years post-treatment
After excisional treatment of CIN 2-3 with negative margins, co-testing at 1 and 2 years is recommended before returning to routine screening.
A neonate develops a desquamating rash starting around the mouth and spreading to form large flaccid bullae that rupture to leave a scalded appearance. Nikolsky sign is positive. Which toxin is responsible?
- A. Staphylococcal toxic shock toxin-1
- B. Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin A/B
- C. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A
- D. Clostridium perfringens alpha toxin
Answer: B. Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin A/B
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by exfoliative toxins A and B from S. aureus, which cleave desmoglein-1 in the superficial epidermis.
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PANRE: Pros and Cons
- +PANRE credential is recognized by employers and industry professionals
- +Higher earning potential compared to non-credentialed peers
- +Expanded career opportunities and professional advancement
- +Structured learning path builds comprehensive knowledge
- +Professional development that stays current with industry standards
- −Preparation requires significant time and study commitment
- −Associated costs for exams, materials, and renewal fees
- −Continuing education needed to maintain credentials
- −Competition for advanced positions can be challenging
- −Requirements and standards may vary by state or region
Pros and Cons at a Glance
| Pros | Cons |
|---|---|
| PANRE credential is recognized by employers and industry professionals | Preparation requires significant time and study commitment |
| Higher earning potential compared to non-credentialed peers | Associated costs for exams, materials, and renewal fees |
| Expanded career opportunities and professional advancement | Continuing education needed to maintain credentials |
| Structured learning path builds comprehensive knowledge | Competition for advanced positions can be challenging |
| Professional development that stays current with industry standards | Requirements and standards may vary by state or region |
About the Author
Board-Certified Physician & Medical Licensing Exam Expert
Harvard Medical SchoolDr. Michael Reynolds is a board-certified internist and Fellow of the American College of Physicians with an MD from Harvard Medical School and a Master of Science in Medical Education. With 18 years of clinical and academic medicine experience, he specializes in USMLE Step 1, Step 2, and Step 3 preparation, internal medicine board certification, and medical specialty licensing examinations.
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