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Mixed Deck — All EMR Topics Flashcards

100 cards from real EMR practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All EMR Topics flashcards as text
  1. With regard to lifting and moving, good body mechanics include:

    Answer: using your legs and not your back when lifting.

    Good body mechanics are essential for EMRs to prevent personal injury while lifting and moving patients. The correct technique involves using the strong muscles of your legs and glutes, rather than your back, to lift. This means bending at your knees, keeping your back straight, and lifting with your legs to minimize strain on your spine.

  2. An EMR is treating a burn patient. The burn involves the entire right arm, anterior trunk, and the patient's head and neck. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the approximate total body surface area (TBSA) burned?

    Answer: 36%

    Using the Rule of Nines: right arm = 9%, anterior trunk = 18%, head and neck = 9%. Total = 9 + 18 + 9 = 36% TBSA.

  3. During circulation assessment in the primary survey, an EMR identifies major external bleeding. What is the immediate priority?

    Answer: Control bleeding with direct pressure before continuing the assessment

    Major external bleeding identified during the primary assessment must be controlled immediately with direct pressure. Life-threatening hemorrhage takes priority over completing the remainder of the assessment.

  4. An EMR is treating a patient with a large open sucking chest wound. After sealing three sides of the wound with an occlusive dressing, the patient's respiratory distress suddenly worsens. What is the MOST likely cause and next step?

    Answer: A tension pneumothorax is developing; burp or temporarily lift one edge of the dressing

    A three-sided occlusive dressing is designed to act as a flutter valve; if the patient deteriorates after application, air may be accumulating under the dressing and creating a tension pneumothorax. Briefly lifting one edge (burping the dressing) allows trapped air to escape and can rapidly reverse this life-threatening complication.

  5. A patient with chest pain rates it 8/10. Nitroglycerin is in the patient's possession. Under what condition may an EMR assist with nitroglycerin administration?

    Answer: If authorized by medical direction and the patient's systolic BP is above 90 mmHg

    EMRs may assist with a patient's prescribed nitroglycerin only when authorized by medical direction and when the systolic BP is at least 90 mmHg to avoid dangerous hypotension.

  6. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the primary assessment in EMS care?

    Answer: To identify and correct immediately life-threatening conditions

    The primary assessment is designed to rapidly identify and correct immediately life-threatening conditions affecting airway, breathing, and circulation. It is not focused on history-taking or documentation.

  7. The structure that prevents food or liquid from entering the larynx is called the:

    Answer: epiglottis

    The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped flap of cartilage located at the base of the tongue, which covers the opening of the larynx (voice box) during swallowing. Its primary function is to prevent food or liquid from entering the trachea (windpipe) and lungs, directing it instead into the esophagus. This protective mechanism is crucial for preventing aspiration into the respiratory tract.

  8. A patient in respiratory distress is sitting upright, leaning forward on their hands with labored breathing. This posture is known as:

    Answer: Tripod position

    The tripod position — sitting up, leaning forward on outstretched arms — is a classic sign of severe respiratory distress.

  9. A patient has a partial-thickness burn covering one entire arm. Using the Rule of Nines for an adult, what percentage of the body surface area (BSA) is affected?

    Answer: 9%

    Each arm represents 9% of total BSA in the Rule of Nines for adults.

  10. When transporting a victim by stretcher:

    Answer: you can leave the AED powered on and attached.

    When transporting a patient for whom an AED has been applied, it is best practice to leave the AED powered on and attached to the patient. This allows for continuous cardiac monitoring and ensures that the AED is immediately ready to deliver another shock if the patient's rhythm becomes shockable again during transport. Disconnecting or powering it off would delay potential life-saving interventions.

  11. At a hazmat scene, the placard on a tanker shows the UN number 1017. What does this indicate to the EMR?

    Answer: The placard number helps identify the substance using the Emergency Response Guidebook

    UN numbers on placards correspond to specific substances in the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), allowing responders to identify hazards and safe actions.

  12. At what point is a child considered an adult in relation to CPR?

    Answer: After the onset of puberty

    In the context of CPR guidelines, a child is considered an adult once they show signs of puberty, such as the development of an Adam's apple in males or breast development in females. This distinction is important because adult CPR guidelines, including compression depth and ratios, are then applied due to the patient's increased body size and physiological maturity.

  13. During the primary assessment of a trauma patient, you notice bright red blood spurting from a deep laceration on their thigh. The patient is also moaning and appears confused. What is the EMR's IMMEDIATE priority?

    Answer: Control the life-threatening hemorrhage.

    In a trauma patient with obvious, life-threatening external hemorrhage, controlling the bleeding is the top priority, even before assessing the airway. This is often referred to as the ABC or XABC approach, where '' or 'X' stands for catastrophic or exsanguinating hemorrhage. An uncontrolled arterial bleed can lead to death more quickly than a compromised airway in some instances.

  14. The risk of infection to the rescuer while performing CPR is:

    Answer: extremely low.

    The risk of infection to a rescuer while performing CPR, particularly from diseases like HIV or Hepatitis B, is considered extremely low. While universal precautions should always be followed, direct transmission during CPR is rare, especially with the use of barrier devices like pocket masks. Rescuers should not hesitate to perform CPR due to fear of infection.

  15. What is the purpose of the Incident Command System (ICS) at a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?

    Answer: To establish a coordinated command structure that manages personnel, resources, and communications

    The Incident Command System (ICS) provides a scalable organizational framework that coordinates all responders, manages resources, and ensures clear communication and chain of command at MCIs.

  16. As you approach an emergency scene, you should first:

    Answer: scan the area to determine the extent of the incident.

    Upon approaching an emergency scene, the very first action an EMR should take is to perform a visual scan of the entire area. This initial scan helps to quickly identify potential hazards, determine the overall scope of the incident, and estimate the number of patients. This crucial step ensures responder safety and helps in formulating an initial plan before direct patient contact.

  17. Before attempting to move any patient, you should:

    Answer: assess the patient's weight and know your physical limitations.

    Before attempting to move any patient, an EMR must prioritize safety for both the patient and themselves. Assessing the patient's weight and understanding your own physical limitations is crucial. This evaluation helps determine if you need additional rescuers, specialized equipment, or a different moving technique to ensure a safe and efficient transfer without causing injury.

  18. You are caring for a patient with a suspected forearm fracture. There is no deformity. What is an important sign that confirms the injury?

    Answer: Point tenderness directly over the bone

    Point tenderness directly over the bone is a reliable indicator of a fracture even without visible deformity.

  19. What is the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) used to evaluate?

    Answer: Appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin

    The PAT rapidly assesses a child's appearance (tone, interactivity), work of breathing (retractions, sounds), and skin circulation (color, mottling).

  20. Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are multiple patients. You should:

    Answer: immediately request additional resources using the mobile radio in your response vehicle.

    Upon arriving at a scene with multiple patients (a mass casualty incident), the EMR's immediate priority, after ensuring scene safety, is to call for additional resources. This initial request should be made promptly using the mobile radio to ensure that adequate personnel and equipment are en route as quickly as possible, even before a full patient assessment or triage is completed.