DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A 7-year-old Doberman Pinscher is diagnosed with preclinical (occult) dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) via an echocardiogram which reveals significant left ventricular dilation in systole. The dog is currently asymptomatic. Based on the findings of the PROTECT study, which medication is indicated to delay the onset of congestive heart failure and prolong survival?

Atenolol
Furosemide
Pimobendan (Correct answer)
Enalapril

Correct answer: Pimobendan

The PROTECT study was a landmark clinical trial which demonstrated that administering pimobendan to Doberman Pinschers with preclinical (occult) DCM significantly prolonged the time to the onset of congestive heart failure and extended overall survival time. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat active congestive heart failure, not prevent it. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor often used in heart disease, but pimobendan was shown to be superior for this specific indication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker sometimes used for arrhythmias but is not the primary treatment to delay heart failure in this context.

Question 2: What is the recommended management of a sequestrum following a long-bone fracture in cattle?

Intramedullary pinning to stabilize the fragment
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Systemic antibiotics alone until resolution
Surgical removal of the necrotic bone fragment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Surgical removal of the necrotic bone fragment

A bone sequestrum is avascular necrotic bone that cannot be reached by antibiotics; surgical debridement and removal of the sequestrum is required for resolution of the infection.

Question 3: A rabbit undergoing ovariohysterectomy develops bradycardia and hypotension after induction with dexmedetomidine and ketamine. What is the MOST appropriate pharmacological intervention?

Atipamezole IM to reverse dexmedetomidine (Correct answer)
Atropine IV to treat bradycardia
Dobutamine CRI
Epinephrine IV bolus

Correct answer: Atipamezole IM to reverse dexmedetomidine

Atipamezole reverses dexmedetomidine-induced alpha-2 agonist effects, restoring heart rate and vascular tone without requiring additional drugs.

Question 4: A horse undergoing general anesthesia in lateral recumbency develops hypoxemia refractory to increasing FiO2. The most likely cause is:

Hypoventilation alone
Ventilation-perfusion mismatch due to dependent lung atelectasis (Correct answer)
Endobronchial intubation
Anesthetic circuit disconnect

Correct answer: Ventilation-perfusion mismatch due to dependent lung atelectasis

In lateral recumbency, the dependent lung receives more perfusion but less ventilation due to atelectasis and diaphragm compression, causing V/Q mismatch and refractory hypoxemia.

Question 5: Which stain is most appropriate for identifying lipid droplets in hepatocytes on a liver fine-needle aspirate?

Gram stain
Prussian blue
Oil Red O on air-dried unfixed sample (Correct answer)
PAS stain

Correct answer: Oil Red O on air-dried unfixed sample

Oil Red O stains neutral lipids red/orange and must be applied to unfixed, air-dried smears before lipids dissolve during routine processing.

Question 6: Which of the following best describes the concept of 'herd immunity threshold' in veterinary preventive medicine?

The proportion of immune individuals needed to prevent epidemic spread in a population (Correct answer)
The minimum number of animals that must be vaccinated to prevent any disease outbreak
The percentage of animals that develop natural immunity after exposure
The level of maternal antibodies required to protect neonates

Correct answer: The proportion of immune individuals needed to prevent epidemic spread in a population

The herd immunity threshold is the proportion of immune individuals in a population above which disease cannot sustain epidemic spread, calculated as 1 - 1/R0.

Question 7: What is the primary metabolic reason that most non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) must be used with extreme caution and at specific, validated doses and intervals in cats?

They frequently develop severe gastric ulceration after a single dose.
They are highly susceptible to NSAID-induced hepatotoxicity.
They are unable to produce protective prostaglandins in the stomach.
They have a relative deficiency in the hepatic enzyme glucuronyl transferase. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They have a relative deficiency in the hepatic enzyme glucuronyl transferase.

Cats have a relative deficiency in the hepatic enzyme UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT), which is essential for glucuronidation, a major pathway for metabolizing and eliminating many drugs, including most NSAIDs. This metabolic difference results in a significantly prolonged drug half-life, increasing the risk of accumulation and toxicity (especially renal and gastrointestinal) if dosing is not appropriate.

Question 8: What is the primary action of atropine when used as a preanesthetic agent in dogs and cats?

Muscle relaxation
Reduction of salivary and respiratory secretions (Correct answer)
Prevention of vomiting
Induction of sedation

Correct answer: Reduction of salivary and respiratory secretions

Atropine is an anticholinergic that blocks muscarinic receptors, reducing secretions (saliva, mucus) and preventing bradycardia associated with anesthetic agents.

Question 9: You are called to a dairy farm to examine a cow that calved 6 hours ago. The owner reports a large, reddish mass protruding from the vulva. Upon examination, you identify a complete uterine prolapse with the caruncles visible. The cow is standing but straining. Which of the following is the most critical first step in managing this case?

Immediately attempt to manually replace the uterus using firm pressure.
Administer a caudal epidural anesthetic. (Correct answer)
Administer a high dose of oxytocin to cause uterine involution.
Start intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.

Correct answer: Administer a caudal epidural anesthetic.

The most critical first step in managing a uterine prolapse is to administer a caudal epidural anesthetic. This will stop the cow's straining (tenesmus), which is essential for successful replacement of the uterus and prevents further trauma to the tissue. Attempting replacement without an epidural is often futile and can lead to uterine rupture or other complications. While fluid therapy and antibiotics are important supportive measures and cleaning/reducing edema of the uterus is necessary, controlling the straining via anesthesia must be done first.

Question 10: In the context of biosecurity, what does 'biocontainment' specifically refer to?

Preventing pathogens already present within a facility from spreading outward (Correct answer)
Reducing the concentration of pathogens in the environment
Preventing new pathogens from entering a facility
Eliminating all potential disease vectors from a property

Correct answer: Preventing pathogens already present within a facility from spreading outward

Biocontainment refers to measures that prevent pathogens already present within a facility from spreading to other animals, farms, or regions.

Question 11: A dog receiving morphine via CRI develops pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, and respiratory depression. The first drug to administer is:

Naloxone (Correct answer)
Physostigmine
Flumazenil
Atipamezole

Correct answer: Naloxone

Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, miosis, and bradycardia.

Question 12: During a pre-purchase examination of a horse, bilateral tarsal periarticular remodeling is noted on radiographs with evidence of distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joint fusion. This is consistent with which condition?

Bone spavin (distal tarsal osteoarthritis) (Correct answer)
Osteochondrosis dissecans of the tarsus
Bog spavin
Curb

Correct answer: Bone spavin (distal tarsal osteoarthritis)

Bone spavin refers to osteoarthritis of the distal tarsal joints (centrodistal and tarsometatarsal), which can progress to bony fusion; it is a common cause of hindlimb lameness in horses.

Question 13: A horse with Cushing's disease (PPID) is most likely to test positive on which diagnostic test?

Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (failure to suppress)
High-dose dexamethasone suppression test (failure to suppress)
Basal ACTH elevated, especially in fall (Correct answer)
Urine cortisol:creatinine ratio

Correct answer: Basal ACTH elevated, especially in fall

Elevated basal ACTH, particularly during the fall seasonal rise (August-October), is the most practical and sensitive diagnostic test for equine PPID.

Question 14: Which mechanism does ivermectin use to kill parasites?

Disrupting microtubule polymerization
Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
Inhibiting fumarate reductase
Blocking glutamate-gated chloride channels causing hyperpolarization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Blocking glutamate-gated chloride channels causing hyperpolarization

Ivermectin potentiates glutamate-gated chloride channels in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells, causing irreversible hyperpolarization and paralysis.

Question 15: According to the International Renal Interest Society (IRIS) guidelines for staging Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) in a cat, what is the primary initial parameter used for staging?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) concentration
Urine specific gravity
Symmetric dimethylarginine (SDMA) concentration
Fasting blood creatinine concentration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fasting blood creatinine concentration

The IRIS staging system for CKD is primarily based on fasting blood creatinine concentration in a stable, well-hydrated patient. While Symmetric dimethylarginine (SDMA) is a valuable biomarker incorporated into the guidelines, especially for early detection and in cases of low muscle mass, creatinine remains the foundational parameter for the initial staging into one of the four stages. Urine specific gravity and blood pressure are used for sub-staging the disease, not for the primary staging.

Question 16: When does a dog go into estrus?

Between 4-21 days with a mean of 19 days (Correct answer)
Exactly 15 days
Between 7-28 days with a mean of 11 days
Exactly 6 days

Correct answer: Between 4-21 days with a mean of 19 days

Estrus, commonly known as 'heat,' is the period when a female dog is receptive to mating. While the duration can vary significantly among individual dogs, the typical range for estrus is indeed between 4 and 21 days, with an average duration of about 19 days. This period is characterized by specific hormonal changes and behavioral signs.

Question 17: A 10-year-old Quarter Horse gelding presents with a cresty neck, generalized obesity (BCS 8/9), and a history of recurrent laminitis. You suspect Equine Metabolic Syndrome (EMS). Which diagnostic test is considered the most sensitive for confirming insulin dysregulation associated with this condition?

Complete blood count (CBC)
Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test
Baseline cortisol measurement
Oral sugar test (OST) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oral sugar test (OST)

Equine Metabolic Syndrome (EMS) is characterized by insulin dysregulation (ID), which is a key factor in the development of laminitis. While baseline insulin and glucose can be used as screening tools, they can be affected by stress or recent meals. The Oral Sugar Test (OST) is a dynamic test that is more sensitive for diagnosing ID. It involves administering a sugar solution (like Karo syrup) orally and measuring the insulin response over time, providing a more accurate assessment of the horse's ability to handle a carbohydrate challenge.

Question 18: One of the most common clinical symptoms of the following horse diseases is abortion:

Equine viral rhino pneumonitis (Correct answer)
AHS
Equine Influenza
EIA

Correct answer: Equine viral rhino pneumonitis

Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis (EVR), caused by Equine Herpesvirus-1 (EHV-1), is a significant cause of abortion in mares, particularly during the last trimester of pregnancy. The virus can lead to fetal death and subsequent abortion, making it a major concern in equine breeding. Other symptoms include respiratory disease and neurological issues.

Question 19: The 'Swiss cheese model' of accident causation, as applied to veterinary biosecurity, describes:

A system where animals must pass through sequential chemical disinfection baths
A single perfect barrier that prevents all disease entry
The Swiss federal system for regulating veterinary biologics
Multiple imperfect layers of protection where aligned holes allow pathogen penetration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Multiple imperfect layers of protection where aligned holes allow pathogen penetration

The Swiss cheese model illustrates that multiple imperfect biosecurity layers are needed because any single layer has gaps (holes), and disease only penetrates when holes in all layers align simultaneously.

Question 20: A bird of prey is found grounded and unable to fly. On exam, you note dull mentation, crop stasis, and green urates. Lead level is 0.8 ppm. Which chelation agent is the treatment of choice for lead toxicosis?

Dimercaprol (BAL)
Deferoxamine
Calcium EDTA (Correct answer)
Penicillamine alone

Correct answer: Calcium EDTA

Calcium EDTA is the preferred chelation agent for lead toxicosis in raptors and other birds, administered IM and repeated for several days.

Question 21: Which reticulocyte response indicates adequate regeneration following acute hemorrhage in a dog?

Absolute reticulocyte count >80,000/µL (Correct answer)
Absolute reticulocyte count >60,000/µL
Reticulocyte percentage >0.5%
Any polychromasia on smear

Correct answer: Absolute reticulocyte count >80,000/µL

An absolute reticulocyte count above 80,000/µL is generally considered indicative of an adequate regenerative response in dogs.

Question 22: Which vaccine is classified as a non-core vaccine in dogs and recommended only for animals with frequent exposure to standing water or wildlife?

Distemper vaccine
Parvovirus vaccine
Adenovirus vaccine
Leptospira spp. vaccine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Leptospira spp. vaccine

Leptospirosis vaccine is non-core and recommended for dogs exposed to wildlife, stagnant water, or rural environments due to geographic and lifestyle risk factors.

Question 23: In chelonians (turtles and tortoises), which organ is responsible for uric acid excretion as the primary nitrogenous waste product?

Bladder
Cloaca
Liver
Kidney (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Kidney

Chelonian kidneys excrete uric acid as the primary nitrogenous waste, an adaptation that conserves water in terrestrial species.

Question 24: The investigation of illness origins is:

Pathology
Etiology (Correct answer)
Biology
Toxicology

Correct answer: Etiology

Etiology is the branch of medical science that deals with the causes and origins of diseases or conditions. It involves identifying the factors, such as pathogens, genetic predispositions, or environmental influences, that contribute to the development of an illness. Understanding etiology is crucial for effective diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies.

Question 25: A dog's serum biochemistry shows a markedly elevated GGT with mild ALT elevation. Which condition is most associated with this pattern in dogs?

Acute hepatocellular necrosis
Muscle trauma
Biliary disease or cholestasis (Correct answer)
Renal tubular damage

Correct answer: Biliary disease or cholestasis

GGT is a sensitive marker of cholestasis and biliary disease in dogs; marked elevation with modest ALT suggests primary biliary rather than hepatocellular pathology.

Question 26: Neostigmine is used to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Its mechanism involves:

Blocking depolarizing agents at the neuromuscular junction
Competitive antagonism of non-depolarizing agents
Direct stimulation of nicotinic receptors
Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, increasing synaptic acetylcholine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, increasing synaptic acetylcholine

Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, allowing acetylcholine to accumulate and competitively overcome non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents.

Question 27: Which suture pattern provides the greatest tensile strength for closure of a contaminated abdominal wound in a dog?

Simple interrupted (Correct answer)
Interrupted cruciate (far-near-near-far)
Ford interlocking
Simple continuous

Correct answer: Simple interrupted

Simple interrupted sutures are preferred in contaminated wounds because failure of one suture does not compromise the entire closure.

Question 28: Chickens with the following illness experience immunological suppression:

IBD (Correct answer)
Avian encephalomyelitis
ILT
Avian Influenza

Correct answer: IBD

Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD), also known as Gumboro disease, is a highly contagious viral disease of young chickens that primarily targets the bursa of Fabricius. This organ is crucial for B-lymphocyte development, and its damage leads to severe immunosuppression, making the birds highly susceptible to other infections and reducing vaccine efficacy.

Question 29: Which parasitic condition in dogs is commonly called 'heartworm disease,' and what is its definitive host?

Toxocara canis — dog
Ancylostoma caninum — dog
Dirofilaria immitis — mosquito
Dirofilaria immitis — dog (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dirofilaria immitis — dog

Dirofilaria immitis causes heartworm disease, with the dog (and other canids) serving as the definitive host and mosquitoes as the intermediate host.

Question 30: In the context of avian influenza surveillance, the term 'spillover event' refers to:

Reassortment of influenza gene segments between two avian strains
Transmission of an avian influenza strain to a mammalian (non-avian) host (Correct answer)
Transfer of influenza virus between two wild bird species
Introduction of a human influenza strain into a domestic poultry flock

Correct answer: Transmission of an avian influenza strain to a mammalian (non-avian) host

Spillover refers to interspecies transmission events where an avian influenza strain crosses from avian hosts into mammals, including pigs or humans, with pandemic potential.

Question 31: A horse is presented with acute laminitis following grain overload. Which underlying pathophysiologic mechanism is most directly responsible for lamellar disruption?

Activation of matrix metalloproteinases degrading lamellar basement membrane (Correct answer)
Direct compression of the digital cushion by hoof wall
Immune complex deposition in the laminar vasculature
Thrombosis of the digital arteries causing ischemic necrosis

Correct answer: Activation of matrix metalloproteinases degrading lamellar basement membrane

In laminitis, MMP activation (particularly MMP-2 and MMP-9) degrades the lamellar basement membrane, disrupting the bond between the sensitive and insensitive lamellae.

Question 32: A dairy herd vaccination program for bovine respiratory disease (BRD) should ideally target animals at what time point for maximum efficacy?

At the time of clinical signs in the first affected animal
Only after confirmed pathogen identification via PCR
Immediately at weaning with no prior preparation
2-4 weeks before anticipated stress events or high-risk periods (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2-4 weeks before anticipated stress events or high-risk periods

Vaccinating 2-4 weeks before stress events allows adequate time for protective immune responses to develop before animals face high-risk periods.

Question 33: Which tickborne disease, caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum, is considered zoonotic and shares its vector with Lyme disease in the northeastern US?

Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Ehrlichiosis (HME)
Babesiosis
Human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA)

Anaplasma phagocytophilum causes human granulocytic anaplasmosis and is transmitted by Ixodes scapularis, the same tick that transmits Borrelia burgdorferi.

Question 34: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been documented as a zoonosis. Which transmission pattern has been confirmed in companion animal households?

MRSA is exclusively a hospital-acquired pathogen with no animal reservoir
MRSA is only transmitted from livestock to farm workers, not from companion animals
Dogs and cats can harbor MRSA but cannot transmit it to humans under any circumstance
Bidirectional transmission between pets and their owners has been documented (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bidirectional transmission between pets and their owners has been documented

Studies have confirmed bidirectional MRSA transmission between pets (dogs and cats) and their owners, with shared household strain types identified through molecular typing.

Question 35: In cattle, retained fetal membranes (RFM) are defined as failure to expel the placenta within:

12 hours post-partum
24 hours post-partum (Correct answer)
6 hours post-partum
48 hours post-partum

Correct answer: 24 hours post-partum

RFM in cattle is defined as retention of fetal membranes beyond 24 hours post-calving, after which the risk of metritis and long-term reproductive failure increases substantially.

Question 36: What is the name for the surgical procedure that involves cutting the lateral digital extensor tendon to correct a knuckling over deformity in calves?

Tenotomy of the lateral digital extensor (Correct answer)
Tenotomy of the superficial digital flexor
Neurectomy of the palmar digital nerve
Desmotomy of the suspensory ligament

Correct answer: Tenotomy of the lateral digital extensor

In calves with spastic paresis or knuckling, tenotomy of the lateral digital extensor (and sometimes the tibialis cranialis) relieves the abnormal extensor tension.

Question 37: Which arthropod vector is responsible for transmitting both Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) and Anaplasma phagocytophilum in the northeastern United States?

Amblyomma americanum
Dermacentor variabilis
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
Ixodes scapularis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ixodes scapularis

Ixodes scapularis (black-legged tick) is the primary vector for both Borrelia burgdorferi and Anaplasma phagocytophilum in the northeastern and upper midwestern US.

Question 38: A 3-year-old mixed-breed dog presents with lethargy and pale mucous membranes. A complete blood count (CBC) reveals a hematocrit of 18% (reference range 37-55%), with an absolute reticulocyte count of 350,000/µL (reference >80,000/µL indicates regeneration). Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of this anemia?

A laboratory error in the hematocrit measurement.
Regenerative, likely due to hemorrhage or hemolysis. (Correct answer)
Non-regenerative, likely due to chronic kidney disease.
Anemia of inflammatory disease.

Correct answer: Regenerative, likely due to hemorrhage or hemolysis.

The markedly high absolute reticulocyte count indicates that the bone marrow is responding appropriately to the anemia by producing and releasing new red blood cells. This is the hallmark of a regenerative anemia, which is typically caused by red blood cell loss (hemorrhage) or destruction (hemolysis).

Question 39: Which monitoring parameter BEST reflects the adequacy of ventilation during general anesthesia?

Mean arterial pressure
Heart rate
SpO2 via pulse oximetry
End-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: End-tidal CO2 (EtCO2)

EtCO2 directly reflects alveolar ventilation and CO2 elimination, making it the best indicator of ventilation adequacy.

Question 40: A horse owner reports that their 10-year-old Quarter Horse has been showing signs of intermittent lameness, muscle wasting over the topline, and pot-bellied appearance. Which endocrine disorder is most likely?

Hypothyroidism
Equine metabolic syndrome
Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) (Correct answer)
Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)

PPID (Cushing's disease) in horses commonly presents with hypertrichosis, muscle wasting, PU/PD, and laminitis, typically in older horses.

Question 41: A farmer presents a 4-week-old calf with a soft, non-painful, easily reducible swelling at the umbilicus approximately 3 cm in diameter. There are no signs of infection or systemic illness. What is the most appropriate initial management recommendation?

Suggest monitoring; many small, uncomplicated hernias resolve spontaneously. (Correct answer)
Advise surgical repair within the next week.
Recommend immediate application of a hernia clamp.
Prescribe a course of systemic antibiotics to prevent infection.

Correct answer: Suggest monitoring; many small, uncomplicated hernias resolve spontaneously.

Small (less than 5 cm or '2-3 fingers' wide), uncomplicated, reducible umbilical hernias in young calves often resolve without intervention as the calf grows and the abdominal wall strengthens. Surgical correction is typically delayed until the calf is older (e.g., weaning) if the hernia persists or enlarges. Hernia clamps are generally not recommended due to risk of complications, and antibiotics are not indicated without evidence of infection.

Question 42: Which suture pattern is classically used to close the equine linea alba after celiotomy?

Mattress pattern with stainless steel wire
Simple interrupted with chromic gut
Simple continuous with 2-0 PDS
Large-bite simple continuous with #2 or #3 polyglactin 910 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Large-bite simple continuous with #2 or #3 polyglactin 910

Large-bite simple continuous suture with large-gauge absorbable monofilament or polyglactin incorporates adequate fascial tissue to resist the significant intra-abdominal pressure in horses.

Question 43: Which nerve block is most appropriate for standing flank laparotomy in cattle?

Retrobulbar nerve block
Cornual nerve block
Ring block of the teat
Paravertebral nerve block (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Paravertebral nerve block

Paravertebral nerve block (proximal or distal) desensitizes the flank region by blocking the spinal nerves T13, L1, and L2, providing analgesia and muscle relaxation for standing laparotomy.

Question 44: A 10-year-old Cavalier King Charles Spaniel with known degenerative mitral valve disease presents with an acute onset of coughing and a respiratory rate of 80 breaths/min. Radiographs confirm cardiogenic pulmonary edema. In addition to oxygen therapy, which of the following drugs is most critical for immediate intravenous administration to reduce preload and alleviate the edema?

Pimobendan
Enalapril
Spironolactone
Furosemide (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Furosemide

Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that acts quickly to promote diuresis, which reduces circulating blood volume and venous pressure (preload). This action directly alleviates the fluid accumulation in the lungs (pulmonary edema) characteristic of acute congestive heart failure. While pimobendan and enalapril are crucial for long-term management, furosemide provides the most immediate and life-saving relief in this acute crisis. Spironolactone is a much weaker, potassium-sparing diuretic used for chronic management.

Question 45: Which of the following is a World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH, formerly OIE) listed disease with major public health and international trade implications, requiring immediate notification by member countries?

Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) (Correct answer)
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)
Canine Distemper Virus

Correct answer: Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE), also known as "Mad Cow Disease," is a WOAH-listed disease due to its proven zoonotic potential (causing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans) and its devastating impact on international trade of cattle and bovine products. Its detection triggers significant regulatory and public health responses. While BVD and IBR are economically important cattle diseases, and Canine Distemper is a serious viral disease in dogs, they do not have the same level of international public health and trade implications as BSE and are managed differently under WOAH guidelines.

Question 46: An avian patient shows green-stained urates and lethargy. Which organ system dysfunction is most likely indicated?

Hepatic disease (biliverdinuria) (Correct answer)
Renal disease
Gastrointestinal obstruction
Respiratory infection

Correct answer: Hepatic disease (biliverdinuria)

Green urates (biliverdinuria) in birds indicate hepatic disease, as birds excrete biliverdin rather than bilirubin, and liver dysfunction causes biliary pigment to spill into urine.

Question 47: A Thoroughbred racehorse presents with exercise intolerance and dark red-brown urine after intense exercise. CK is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
Equine infectious anemia
Exertional rhabdomyolysis (tying-up) (Correct answer)
Pyelonephritis

Correct answer: Exertional rhabdomyolysis (tying-up)

Exertional rhabdomyolysis causes muscle breakdown leading to markedly elevated CK, myoglobinuria (dark urine), and exercise intolerance in horses.

Question 48: A veterinarian is asked to advise on controlling Salmonella in a commercial poultry flock. Which intervention is MOST effective at the population level?

Routine prophylactic antibiotic use in feed
Vitamin supplementation only
Competitive exclusion products combined with vaccination (Correct answer)
Increased stocking density to promote natural immunity

Correct answer: Competitive exclusion products combined with vaccination

Competitive exclusion products introduce beneficial microflora that outcompete Salmonella, and when combined with vaccination, provide the most effective population-level control.

Question 49: A horse develops purple-red discoloration of the muzzle and coronary bands along with vesicles and erosions in the mouth after being moved to a new pasture. Which condition should be ruled out first?

Vesicular stomatitis (Correct answer)
Equine herpesvirus-1 infection
Purpura hemorrhagica
Photosensitization

Correct answer: Vesicular stomatitis

Vesicular stomatitis is a reportable foreign animal disease that causes vesicles and erosions on the muzzle, coronary bands, and oral mucosa in horses, and must be ruled out before considering other differentials.

Question 50: Which statement regarding feline pain assessment is MOST accurate?

Cats show identical pain behaviors to dogs and can be assessed with the same scales
The Grimace Scale based on facial action units is a validated tool for acute pain assessment in cats (Correct answer)
Sedation scores in cats correlate directly with pain intensity
Cats reliably vocalize when in pain, making assessment straightforward

Correct answer: The Grimace Scale based on facial action units is a validated tool for acute pain assessment in cats

The Feline Grimace Scale (FGS) uses facial action units (ear position, orbital tightening, muzzle tension, whisker change, head position) and is validated for acute pain assessment in cats.

Question 51: Which ligament must be transected during a standing bovine caesarean section via the left paralumbar flank?

Intercornual ligament
Lateral suspensory ligament of the udder
Round ligament of the uterus
Broad ligament of the uterus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Broad ligament of the uterus

The broad ligament may need to be partially incised to exteriorize the gravid uterine horn through the flank incision during caesarean section in cattle.

Question 52: In cryptorchid horses, the retained abdominal testicle:

Functions normally if the contralateral testicle is also retained
Fails to produce testosterone due to disrupted hypothalamic-pituitary signaling
Produces testosterone normally but fails to produce fertile sperm due to elevated intra-abdominal temperature (Correct answer)
Produces neither testosterone nor sperm, making the horse completely infertile

Correct answer: Produces testosterone normally but fails to produce fertile sperm due to elevated intra-abdominal temperature

The retained testicle in cryptorchid stallions maintains normal endocrine (testosterone) function but cannot produce viable sperm because spermatogenesis requires scrotal temperatures approximately 2–4°C below core body temperature.

Question 53: A 6-year-old, spayed female Labrador Retriever is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The owner has started insulin therapy. Which clinical sign is the most reliable indicator for the owner to monitor at home to assess for hypoglycemia?

Lethargy, weakness, or ataxia (Correct answer)
Weight loss
Increased appetite
Polyuria and polydipsia

Correct answer: Lethargy, weakness, or ataxia

Lethargy, weakness, ataxia, and in severe cases, seizures, are classic clinical signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) resulting from an insulin overdose. While polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss are signs of uncontrolled diabetes (hyperglycemia), they are not indicative of an acute hypoglycemic event. An increased appetite can be seen with both hyperglycemia and early hypoglycemia, but weakness and neurologic signs are more specific and urgent indicators of low blood glucose.

Question 54: Which of the following classic sets of changes on a canine complete blood count (CBC) is most consistent with a 'stress leukogram' induced by endogenous or exogenous corticosteroids?

Neutropenia, lymphopenia, eosinophilia, monocytosis.
Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia, monocytosis. (Correct answer)
Neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinopenia, monocytopenia.
Neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia, monocytosis.

Correct answer: Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia, monocytosis.

A classic stress leukogram, caused by glucocorticoids (stress), is characterized by neutrophilia (mature neutrophils), lymphopenia, eosinopenia, and, in dogs, monocytosis. The most consistent findings are neutrophilia and lymphopenia.

Question 55: Which equine lameness condition is associated with degenerative joint disease of the distal interphalangeal joint and navicular bone?

Sidebone
Laminitis
Navicular syndrome (Correct answer)
Ringbone

Correct answer: Navicular syndrome

Navicular syndrome (podotrochlear disease) involves degenerative changes affecting the navicular bone, associated ligaments, and bursa within the hoof.

Question 56: The 'One Health' approach to zoonotic disease control emphasizes which core principle?

Prioritizing human health outcomes over animal and environmental health
Integrated collaboration across human medicine, veterinary medicine, and environmental health (Correct answer)
Focusing exclusively on emerging infectious diseases with pandemic potential
Centralizing disease surveillance under a single governmental agency

Correct answer: Integrated collaboration across human medicine, veterinary medicine, and environmental health

One Health recognizes that human, animal, and environmental health are interconnected and requires collaborative, multisectoral approaches to prevent and control zoonotic diseases.

Question 57: Which species is known to have a bicornuate uterus with an extremely long uterine horn relative to its body size?

Dog
Pig (Correct answer)
Cow
Rabbit

Correct answer: Pig

Swine have very long uterine horns (up to 1.2 meters each) to accommodate their large litter sizes.

Question 58: A dog presents with 'rubber jaw' and renal secondary hyperparathyroidism. What is the underlying mechanism?

Vitamin D toxicosis
Reduced renal phosphorus excretion leading to hypocalcemia (Correct answer)
Primary parathyroid adenoma
Excess dietary calcium

Correct answer: Reduced renal phosphorus excretion leading to hypocalcemia

Chronic renal failure causes phosphorus retention and reduced calcitriol synthesis, leading to hypocalcemia and compensatory PTH secretion that demineralizes bone.

Question 59: Cutaneous larva migrans ('creeping eruption') in beach-going humans is most commonly caused by which organism?

Ancylostoma braziliense (cat/dog hookworm) (Correct answer)
Strongyloides stercoralis
Toxoplasma gondii
Baylisascaris procyonis

Correct answer: Ancylostoma braziliense (cat/dog hookworm)

Ancylostoma braziliense larvae penetrate human skin but cannot complete their life cycle, migrating through the epidermis and causing the characteristic serpiginous track.

Question 60: A ferret is presented with symmetrical alopecia, pot-bellied appearance, and pruritus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hyperadrenocorticism (adrenal gland disease) (Correct answer)
Hypothyroidism
Sarcoptic mange
Insulinoma

Correct answer: Hyperadrenocorticism (adrenal gland disease)

Adrenal gland disease (often adrenocortical carcinoma or adenoma) is extremely common in ferrets and causes sex hormone excess leading to bilateral alopecia and pruritus.

Question 61: A veterinary student develops a painful pustular lesion on the hand after working with sheep at a teaching farm. The causative agent is most likely:

Bacillus anthracis
Dermatophilus congolensis
Parapoxvirus (orf virus) (Correct answer)
Staphylococcus aureus

Correct answer: Parapoxvirus (orf virus)

Orf (contagious ecthyma) caused by parapoxvirus is a classic occupational zoonosis of sheep and goat handlers, producing self-limiting pustular skin lesions.

Question 62: Which local anesthetic has the LONGEST duration of action when used for a peripheral nerve block?

Bupivacaine (Correct answer)
Procaine
Lidocaine
Mepivacaine

Correct answer: Bupivacaine

Bupivacaine has the longest duration of action among commonly used local anesthetics, typically lasting 4–8 hours for nerve blocks.

Question 63: A cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a pendulous abdomen. Bloodwork shows hyperglycemia and elevated liver enzymes. Which condition is most likely?

Hyperadrenocorticism (Correct answer)
Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes mellitus
Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: Hyperadrenocorticism

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) in cats causes PU/PD, pot-bellied appearance, and elevated liver enzymes due to excess cortisol.

Question 64: Which of the following is the correct dosing frequency for melarsomine dihydrochloride (Immiticide) using the split-dose protocol for heartworm treatment in dogs?

Single injection repeated every 6 months
Three injections given weekly
One injection, rest 30 days, then two injections 24 hours apart (Correct answer)
Two injections given 24 hours apart only

Correct answer: One injection, rest 30 days, then two injections 24 hours apart

The AHS-recommended split-dose protocol involves one IM injection, a 30-day rest, then two injections 24 hours apart to reduce the risk of pulmonary thromboembolic complications.

Question 65: Which hormone is primarily responsible for luteolysis in most domestic species?

Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) (Correct answer)
Progesterone
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Correct answer: Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α)

Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α), produced by the endometrium, causes regression of the corpus luteum in most domestic species and is used clinically to synchronize estrus.

Question 66: A Standardbred trotter is presented for bilateral hindlimb weakness and muscle wasting. EMG reveals abnormal spontaneous activity in epaxial muscles. PSSM-2 testing is negative. Which condition should be considered?

Equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy (EDM)
Equine motor neuron disease (EMND) (Correct answer)
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)

Correct answer: Equine motor neuron disease (EMND)

Equine motor neuron disease causes lower motor neuron signs with muscle atrophy, abnormal EMG, and is associated with vitamin E deficiency; retinal pigment changes are pathognomonic.

Question 67: In risk-based surveillance design, which sampling strategy is most efficient for detecting a disease when its prevalence may be clustered in certain subpopulations?

Simple random sampling across all animals equally
Convenience sampling based on animal accessibility
Stratified or targeted sampling focused on high-risk groups (Correct answer)
Census sampling of every animal on every farm

Correct answer: Stratified or targeted sampling focused on high-risk groups

Stratified or targeted sampling concentrates surveillance effort on high-risk subpopulations, improving efficiency and probability of detection when disease is not uniformly distributed.

Question 68: A feedlot steer develops peracute septicemia with hemorrhagic nasal discharge and dies within 24 hours. Post-mortem reveals hemorrhagic tracheitis and severe pulmonary edema. Which pathogen is most likely responsible?

Bovine herpesvirus-1 (IBR)
Mannheimia haemolytica
Mycoplasma bovis
Histophilus somni (thromboembolic meningoencephalitis) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Histophilus somni (thromboembolic meningoencephalitis)

Histophilus somni can cause a peracute septicemic form with hemorrhagic tracheitis, myocarditis, and rapid death, in addition to the classic thromboembolic meningoencephalitis.

Question 69: A dog is in Trendelenburg position during abdominal surgery. Which physiologic consequence is most likely?

Hypercapnia from reduced minute ventilation
Decreased venous return
Increased intracranial pressure (Correct answer)
Decreased cardiac preload

Correct answer: Increased intracranial pressure

Trendelenburg (head-down) position shifts abdominal contents cranially and increases intracranial pressure by impeding venous drainage from the head.

Question 70: Which of the following zoonotic diseases is correctly matched with its primary animal reservoir in the United States?

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome — deer mice (Peromyscus maniculatus) (Correct answer)
West Nile virus — domestic dogs
Plague (Yersinia pestis) — white-tailed deer
Trichinellosis — cattle

Correct answer: Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome — deer mice (Peromyscus maniculatus)

Deer mice (Peromyscus maniculatus) are the primary reservoir for Sin Nombre virus, the agent of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome in the US.

Question 71: Which of the following is a DIRECT zoonotic transmission route for Cryptosporidium parvum?

Consumption of raw meat
Fecal-oral contact with infected calf feces (Correct answer)
Inhalation of spores
Mosquito bite

Correct answer: Fecal-oral contact with infected calf feces

Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts in calf feces are immediately infectious upon passage and can be transmitted to humans via direct fecal-oral contact or contaminated water.

Question 72: What is the primary advantage of the ventral midline approach over the flank approach for exploratory laparotomy in horses?

Ability to perform surgery in the standing horse
Superior visualization and access to the entire abdominal cavity (Correct answer)
Decreased risk of wound dehiscence
Reduced operative time

Correct answer: Superior visualization and access to the entire abdominal cavity

Ventral midline celiotomy provides access to all abdominal compartments, enabling the surgeon to examine, decompress, and correct any region of the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 73: A dog receiving a morphine CRI post-surgery develops respiratory depression (rate 4 breaths/min). What is the CORRECT reversal agent and dose strategy?

Atipamezole at full reversal dose IM
Flumazenil IV bolus
Naloxone titrated IV in small incremental doses (Correct answer)
Yohimbine IV at 0.1 mg/kg

Correct answer: Naloxone titrated IV in small incremental doses

Naloxone is the opioid antagonist of choice; small incremental IV doses reverse respiratory depression while minimizing the risk of acute pain and cardiovascular excitation.

Question 74: On cytology of a lymph node aspirate, you observe a monomorphic population of large lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli comprising >80% of cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia
Granulomatous lymphadenitis
Lymphoma (Correct answer)
Suppurative lymphadenitis

Correct answer: Lymphoma

A monomorphic population of large, atypical lymphocytes exceeding 80% of the cell population is highly indicative of lymphoma.

Question 75: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of ionophore toxicity (e.g., monensin) in cattle?

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase causing cholinergic crisis
Disruption of mitochondrial cation transport leading to cardiac and skeletal muscle necrosis (Correct answer)
Competitive inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase
Direct hepatotoxicity via lipid peroxidation

Correct answer: Disruption of mitochondrial cation transport leading to cardiac and skeletal muscle necrosis

Ionophores disrupt mitochondrial sodium/potassium transport, causing energy depletion and cell death in cardiac and skeletal muscle, leading to myopathy and heart failure.

Question 76: An ACTH stimulation test in a dog yields a pre-cortisol of 2 µg/dL and post-cortisol of 2.5 µg/dL. What does this confirm?

Hypoadrenocorticism (Correct answer)
Adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism
Normal adrenal function
Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism

Correct answer: Hypoadrenocorticism

A blunted cortisol response to ACTH (both pre- and post-stimulation values low or below normal) confirms hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease).

Question 77: A 3-year-old Golden Retriever is recovering 12 hours after a tibial-plateau-leveling osteotomy (TPLO). The patient is receiving a constant rate infusion of fentanyl. To implement a multimodal analgesic plan and target a different part of the pain pathway, which of the following would be the most appropriate class of drug to add?

A different pure mu-opioid, such as hydromorphone
An NMDA receptor antagonist, such as ketamine
An opioid antagonist, such as naloxone
A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as carprofen (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as carprofen

Multimodal analgesia involves using different classes of drugs to block the pain pathway at multiple sites. Since the dog is already receiving a pure mu-opioid (fentanyl) that acts on central receptors, adding an NSAID (carprofen) is an excellent choice. NSAIDs work peripherally at the site of injury to reduce inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. Adding another opioid is redundant, an antagonist would reverse the analgesia, and while an NMDA antagonist is a valid part of a multimodal plan, an NSAID is a cornerstone for managing the inflammatory pain associated with orthopedic surgery.

Question 78: Pyometra in dogs is most commonly associated with which phase of the reproductive cycle?

Anestrus
Estrus
Proestrus
Diestrus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diestrus

Pyometra typically develops during diestrus when sustained progesterone elevation stimulates endometrial proliferation and suppresses uterine immune defenses, predisposing to bacterial colonization.

Question 79: Responsibilities of veterinary technicians

Make a sandwich
clean cages
Give medicine
Check vitals (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check vitals

Veterinary technicians perform a wide range of essential tasks under the supervision of a veterinarian. Checking vital signs, such as temperature, pulse, and respiration, is a fundamental responsibility, crucial for monitoring an animal's health and assessing their condition during examinations or treatment.

Question 80: Which approach is preferred for surgical repair of a fractured third metacarpus in a horse intended for return to performance?

Internal fixation with dynamic compression plates and screws (Correct answer)
Stall rest without surgical intervention
Intramedullary nailing
External coaptation with a full limb cast alone

Correct answer: Internal fixation with dynamic compression plates and screws

Dynamic compression plating provides rigid internal fixation that allows controlled bone healing and is necessary for cortical fractures of the cannon bone in performance horses where return to work is desired.

Question 81: A sheep undergoes anesthesia for 90 minutes in dorsal recumbency. At recovery, it is ataxic and reluctant to rise. The most likely complication is:

Post-anesthetic myopathy of the forelimbs from compression
Hypoglycemia from prolonged fasting
Laryngospasm during extubation
Bloat and regurgitation during anesthesia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bloat and regurgitation during anesthesia

Ruminants in dorsal recumbency rapidly accumulate gas in the rumen because eructation is impossible, leading to bloat that can impair ventilation and cardiovascular function.

Question 82: A dog's urine protein:creatinine (UPC) ratio is 4.2 with no active sediment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pre-renal proteinuria from fever
Lower urinary tract inflammation
Glomerulonephropathy (Correct answer)
Post-renal hemorrhage

Correct answer: Glomerulonephropathy

A UPC ratio above 2.0 with inactive sediment and no lower urinary tract disease strongly suggests glomerulonephropathy as the source of proteinuria.

Question 83: Which urine sediment finding is pathognomonic for ethylene glycol toxicity in dogs?

Calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals (Correct answer)
Struvite crystals
Cystine crystals
Ammonium biurate crystals

Correct answer: Calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals

Calcium oxalate monohydrate (hippurate) crystals in urine sediment are characteristic of ethylene glycol metabolism and are highly diagnostic.

Question 84: A 5-year-old indoor cat is presented for emergency evaluation. The owner reports administering a single dose of an over-the-counter human pain reliever 12 hours ago. The cat is lethargic, with facial edema and muddy, cyanotic mucous membranes. These clinical signs are most consistent with toxicity from which drug, and what is the primary therapeutic antidote?

Ibuprofen; Misoprostol
Aspirin; Vitamin K1
Naproxen; Omeprazole
Acetaminophen; N-acetylcysteine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acetaminophen; N-acetylcysteine

Cats have a deficiency in the glucuronidation pathway for drug metabolism, making them extremely susceptible to acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicity. A toxic metabolite accumulates, causing oxidative damage to red blood cells, leading to the characteristic methemoglobinemia (muddy/brown mucous membranes), as well as facial and paw edema and hepatotoxicity. The specific antidote is N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which replenishes glutathione stores needed to neutralize the toxic metabolite.

Question 85: You are presented with a 4-year-old raccoon that was found acting aggressively in a suburban neighborhood and has now progressed to showing signs of ataxia and hypersalivation. The animal bites one of your technicians during the initial examination. What is the most critical and immediate first step a veterinarian should take in this situation?

Draw blood from the raccoon for a rabies antibody titer to confirm the diagnosis.
Administer post-exposure prophylaxis to the technician and the raccoon.
Immediately begin a 10-day quarantine period for the raccoon to observe for progression of signs.
Euthanize the raccoon and submit the head for rabies testing, and contact public health authorities. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Euthanize the raccoon and submit the head for rabies testing, and contact public health authorities.

Due to the high-risk species (raccoon), classic clinical signs, and human exposure, rabies is the top differential. Public health and safety are paramount. The standard protocol for a suspect rabid wild animal that has exposed a human is to humanely euthanize it and submit the appropriate tissues (brain) for immediate testing to guide human post-exposure prophylaxis decisions. Contacting public health authorities is a legal requirement. A 10-day quarantine is reserved for domestic dogs, cats, and ferrets.

Question 86: A 7-year-old cat with a known history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) requires anesthesia for a full-mouth dental extraction. Which of the following induction agents should be used with the most caution due to its sympathomimetic effects, which increase heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand?

Etomidate
Alfaxalone
Ketamine (Correct answer)
Propofol

Correct answer: Ketamine

Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that causes catecholamine release, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output. In a cat with HCM, where the ventricular muscle is thickened and diastolic function is impaired, this increased myocardial oxygen demand can be detrimental and may lead to arrhythmias or cardiac decompensation. Alfaxalone, propofol, and etomidate generally have less impact on heart rate or may cause a decrease, making them safer choices in this scenario.

Question 87: A public health official contacts you about several people who have developed an acute flu-like illness with fever and pneumonia. Their only common link is the consumption of raw milk from a local goat dairy where you recently attended a difficult kidding. Which zoonotic pathogen is the most likely cause of this outbreak?

Coxiella burnetii (Correct answer)
Brucella melitensis
Listeria monocytogenes
Mycobacterium bovis

Correct answer: Coxiella burnetii

*Coxiella burnetii*, the causative agent of Q fever, is the most likely pathogen. It is shed in high concentrations in the milk, urine, feces, and especially the birth products (placenta, amniotic fluid) of infected ruminants like goats, sheep, and cattle. Human infection often occurs via inhalation of contaminated aerosols, which are heavily generated during parturition, or through consumption of unpasteurized dairy products. The clinical signs of acute Q fever in humans, including fever, pneumonia, and flu-like symptoms, match the scenario. While the other pathogens are zoonotic, *C. burnetii* is classically associated with this specific combination of exposure (kidding, raw milk) and clinical presentation.

Question 88: Superovulation in cattle for embryo transfer is most commonly induced by:

Exogenous FSH or eCG administered during the mid-luteal phase to stimulate multiple follicle development (Correct answer)
Progesterone implants to increase the number of implantation sites
Surgical removal of one ovary to concentrate follicular stimulation
GnRH administration on day 7 to recruit additional follicles

Correct answer: Exogenous FSH or eCG administered during the mid-luteal phase to stimulate multiple follicle development

Multiple ovulations for embryo transfer are induced by exogenous FSH (given in decreasing doses over 4 days) or a single eCG injection during the mid-luteal phase, resulting in several transferable embryos.

Question 89: During a bovine dystocia, the calf's head is present but both forelimbs are retained. What maneuver corrects this presentation?

Immediate cesarean section
Application of obstetrical chains to the head only and traction
Fetotomy to remove the head
Repulsion of the head and manual flexion of forelimbs into the birth canal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Repulsion of the head and manual flexion of forelimbs into the birth canal

The head must be repelled using a head snare or hand to create space while the forelimbs are individually flexed and brought into the birth canal before applying traction.

Question 90: A dog develops acute respiratory distress after receiving a blood transfusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (Correct answer)
Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

Correct answer: Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) presents as acute respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion due to donor antibodies activating recipient neutrophils.

Question 91: Toxoplasma gondii oocysts in the environment primarily originate from which host, and what is the primary public health risk for pregnant women?

Cattle; risk is consumption of undercooked beef containing bradyzoites
Definitive hosts (felids); risk is congenital transmission causing fetal damage (Correct answer)
Intermediate hosts (rodents); risk is via direct rodent contact
Birds; risk is ingestion of undercooked poultry

Correct answer: Definitive hosts (felids); risk is congenital transmission causing fetal damage

Only felids shed infective oocysts; primary risk for pregnant women is congenital toxoplasmosis causing abortion, stillbirth, or severe fetal neurological damage.

Question 92: A 4-year-old male neutered Standard Poodle presents in a state of collapse. Bloodwork reveals a Na:K ratio of 21:1, azotemia, and hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Acute renal failure
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Severe gastrointestinal disease
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)

The classic electrolyte abnormalities for hypoadrenocorticism are hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, which result in a low sodium-to-potassium (Na:K) ratio, typically below 27:1. The combination of these electrolyte changes with collapse, azotemia, and hypoglycemia in a predisposed breed makes Addison's disease the top differential.

Question 93: Which hemostatic technique uses electrical current to coagulate vessels by converting electrical energy to heat?

Ultrasonic dissection
Bipolar electrosurgery (Correct answer)
Laser photocoagulation
Ligasure vessel sealing

Correct answer: Bipolar electrosurgery

Bipolar electrosurgery passes current between two forceps tips through tissue, generating heat that denatures protein and seals vessels with minimal lateral thermal spread.

Question 94: A 14-year-old cat with stable chronic kidney disease (IRIS Stage 2) and painful osteoarthritis requires long-term analgesia. Which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is generally considered to have a favorable safety profile and is licensed for long-term use in cats for this purpose in many regions?

Deracoxib
Robenacoxib (Correct answer)
Meloxicam
Carprofen

Correct answer: Robenacoxib

Robenacoxib is a highly COX-2 selective NSAID. Its pharmacokinetic profile in cats, including a short half-life in the blood but persistence at the site of inflammation, contributes to a favorable safety profile. Studies have shown it can be used with appropriate monitoring in cats with stable, early-stage chronic kidney disease. Carprofen and Deracoxib are not typically used for long-term pain management in cats. While Meloxicam is also used, Robenacoxib is a well-supported choice for long-term management of OA in cats, including those with stable comorbidities.

Question 95: A dog with splenic hemangiosarcoma is presented. Which CBC finding would most strongly support active hemorrhage into the abdominal cavity?

Mature neutrophilia
Regenerative anemia with thrombocytopenia and schistocytes (Correct answer)
Lymphocytosis
Polycythemia

Correct answer: Regenerative anemia with thrombocytopenia and schistocytes

Regenerative anemia with thrombocytopenia and red cell fragmentation (schistocytes) suggests hemorrhage combined with microangiopathic changes, common with hemangiosarcoma.

Question 96: The 'wet form' of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) is characterized by accumulation of fluid due to which pathological process?

Hypoalbuminemia from malnutrition
Vasculitis and increased vascular permeability (Correct answer)
Portal hypertension
Lymphatic obstruction

Correct answer: Vasculitis and increased vascular permeability

FIP's effusive (wet) form results from immune complex deposition causing pyogranulomatous vasculitis with leakage of high-protein fluid into body cavities.

Question 97: A horse has pleural fluid analysis showing a cloudy yellow effusion with total protein 5.0 g/dL, nucleated cells 25,000/µL, and intracellular bacteria on cytology. What is the diagnosis?

Septic pleuritis (pleuropneumonia) (Correct answer)
Chylothorax
Hemothorax
Transudative heart failure

Correct answer: Septic pleuritis (pleuropneumonia)

High protein, markedly elevated neutrophil counts, and intracellular bacteria in equine pleural fluid confirm septic pleuritis, most often due to Streptococcus or Pasteurella spp.

Question 98: On a blood smear from a febrile dog returning from the southeastern US, you observe morulae within neutrophils. Which organism is implicated?

Hepatozoon americanum
Babesia canis
Ehrlichia canis
Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anaplasma phagocytophilum

Anaplasma phagocytophilum infects neutrophils and forms characteristic morulae (intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies) within these cells.

Question 99: Which of the following conditions best explains a positive Schirmer Tear Test result of 4 mm/min in a dog presenting with thick ocular discharge, corneal vascularization, and pigmentation?

Epiphora
Entropion
Corneal ulcer
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)

A Schirmer Tear Test <10 mm/min confirms KCS (dry eye), which causes mucoid discharge, corneal pigmentation, and vascularization due to chronic dryness.

Question 100: A dog from Connecticut presents with shifting leg lameness, fever, and lethargy. A point-of-care ELISA test is positive for antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. This zoonotic disease, Lyme disease, is transmitted by a specific vector. Which of the following is the primary vector for Lyme disease in the northeastern United States?

Ctenocephalides felis (Cat flea)
Dermacentor variabilis (American dog tick)
Amblyomma americanum (Lone star tick)
Ixodes scapularis (Black-legged or deer tick) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ixodes scapularis (Black-legged or deer tick)

*Borrelia burgdorferi*, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is primarily transmitted by the black-legged tick, *Ixodes scapularis*, in the northeastern and midwestern United States. *Dermacentor variabilis* transmits Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and *Amblyomma americanum* is associated with ehrlichiosis and alpha-gal syndrome. Fleas are vectors for other diseases like plague and bartonellosis but not Lyme disease.

DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam

The DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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