STAT — Special Tertiary Admissions Test (Multiple Choice) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A recipe requires 3/4 cup of sugar for 12 cookies. How many cups of sugar are needed to make 44 cookies?
- 2¾ cups (Correct answer)
- 2 cups
- 3 cups
- 2½ cups
Correct answer: 2¾ cups
(3/4) ÷ 12 × 44 = 0.0625 × 44 = 2.75 = 2¾ cups.
Question 2: An op-ed argues: 'If we allow assisted dying for the terminally ill, soon doctors will euthanise anyone who is inconvenient.' This is an example of:
- An appeal to emotion
- A slippery slope fallacy (Correct answer)
- A circular argument
- A straw man fallacy
Correct answer: A slippery slope fallacy
The argument assumes an inevitable chain of escalating consequences without evidence that each step will follow the previous.
Question 3: A frequency polygon has peaks at values 30, 50, and 70, with the highest peak at 50. What does this shape suggest about the distribution?
- The data has no central tendency
- The data is strongly right-skewed
- The data is roughly symmetrical with a central peak (Correct answer)
- The data is uniformly distributed
Correct answer: The data is roughly symmetrical with a central peak
A central dominant peak at 50 with roughly symmetric side peaks at 30 and 70 suggests an approximately symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution.
Question 4: If a prompt asks 'What single experience has most shaped your worldview?', why is it important to explain the 'so what?' after describing the experience?
- To demonstrate reflective thinking by connecting the event to broader insight (Correct answer)
- To increase the word count to meet a minimum requirement
- To show empathy for others who had similar experiences
- To prove the experience actually happened
Correct answer: To demonstrate reflective thinking by connecting the event to broader insight
Explaining the significance transforms a narrative into a reflective essay, which is what the STAT task is designed to assess.
Question 5: A graph shows sales rising steeply for three months then leveling off. Which interpretation is most accurate?
- Sales declined after three months
- Growth rate slowed but sales are still increasing (Correct answer)
- Sales grew at a constant rate throughout
- Sales peaked then returned to original levels
Correct answer: Growth rate slowed but sales are still increasing
A leveling-off curve means the rate of increase is decreasing, but the total value is still going up.
Question 6: An American research team looked into the historical changes in partisan polarization in American society in a 2019 study, among other topics. The graph below, which represents a y-axis or "thermometer" that ranges from unfavorable (also known as "cold") to favorable (also known as "warm"), is the result of the study. Republican and Democratic party members' perceptions of their own party and its members are measured by the in-party feeling metric, whereas members of other parties' perceptions of their opponents' parties and their members are measured by the out-party feeling meter. The difference (polarization) between the preceding two measurements is all that the affective polarization meter represents. <br> <br> Which of the following years had the biggest percentage gap between affective polarization and out-party feeling?
- 1980
- 1990
- 1978 (Correct answer)
- 2012
Correct answer: 1978
In 1978 the distance between the affective polarization line and the out-party feeling line is the widest of the years offered, giving the biggest percentage gap. The other years (1980, 1990, 2012) show the two lines closer together, so their differences are smaller even though overall polarization rose over time.
Question 7: A stacked bar chart shows total revenue of $100K split between Product X and Product Y across three years. In Year 1, X=$60K and Y=$40K; in Year 3, X=$40K and Y=$60K. What changed?
- Product Y became the dominant revenue source (Correct answer)
- Total revenue declined
- The ratio of X to Y remained constant
- Product X grew in absolute terms
Correct answer: Product Y became the dominant revenue source
Product Y's share grew from 40% to 60% of equal total revenue, making it the dominant source in Year 3.
Question 8: A bar chart compares the populations of four cities. City W = 2.1M, City X = 3.4M, City Y = 1.8M, City Z = 2.9M. Approximately what fraction of the total population lives in City X?
- Two-fifths
- One-half
- One-quarter
- One-third (Correct answer)
Correct answer: One-third
Total = 10.2M; City X = 3.4M; 3.4/10.2 ≈ 0.333, which is approximately one-third.
Question 9: A charity collected $12,000 in donations. It spent 18% on administration. How much went directly to programs?
- $9,840 (Correct answer)
- $9,960
- $10,200
- $9,600
Correct answer: $9,840
Programs received 82% of $12,000 = 0.82 × 12,000 = $9,840.
Question 10: A passage describes a scientist's failed experiment in detail, then states: 'It was the most productive failure of her career.' How does this phrase reframe the failure?
- It implies the failure generated valuable knowledge or insight despite the negative outcome. (Correct answer)
- It suggests the scientist found a way to hide the failure from colleagues.
- It indicates the failure was later recognized as a success.
- It shows the scientist had many other successes to compensate.
Correct answer: It implies the failure generated valuable knowledge or insight despite the negative outcome.
The oxymoronic phrase 'productive failure' redefines success in terms of learning and knowledge gained rather than the experiment's intended outcome.
Question 11: A newspaper editorial claims: 'Real Americans support this policy, so those who oppose it are un-American.' Which rhetorical technique is being used?
- Straw man
- Bandwagon appeal
- In-group/out-group framing (no true Scotsman) (Correct answer)
- Appeal to authority
Correct answer: In-group/out-group framing (no true Scotsman)
The argument defines 'real Americans' as those who agree, dismissing dissenters as not belonging to the group — a variant of the No True Scotsman fallacy.
Question 12: A researcher claims that social media use causes depression in teenagers. Which study design would provide the strongest evidence for this causal claim?
- A comparison of depression rates in countries with different social media access
- A survey asking depressed teenagers how much they use social media
- A randomized controlled trial restricting social media use for one group of teenagers (Correct answer)
- An analysis of social media company internal engagement data
Correct answer: A randomized controlled trial restricting social media use for one group of teenagers
A randomized controlled trial allows researchers to isolate social media as the cause by controlling all other variables.
Question 13: A pie chart shows market share: Brand A = 35%, Brand B = 30%, Brand C = 20%, Brand D = 15%. If Brand A's share grows to 45% while all others shrink proportionally, what is Brand B's new approximate share?
- 25%
- 27%
- 20%
- 23% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 23%
The remaining 55% is distributed among B, C, D originally holding 65%; Brand B's proportional share is (30/65)×55 ≈ 25.4%, closest to 25%.
Question 14: An essay concludes: 'Students who study more than four hours daily perform better academically. Therefore, schools should mandate four hours of daily homework.' Which assumption is the argument relying on?
- Mandating homework will produce the same results as voluntary study (Correct answer)
- Four hours is the maximum students can study
- All students study equally effectively
- Academic performance is the only measure of student success
Correct answer: Mandating homework will produce the same results as voluntary study
The argument assumes mandatory homework will replicate the outcomes of self-motivated study, which may not hold true.
Question 15: A passage includes the sentence: 'What the report called a limitation, the researchers had privately considered a strength.' This reveals a conflict between:
- the funding agency's expectations and the final findings.
- junior and senior members of the research team.
- the official framing of results and the researchers' own interpretation. (Correct answer)
- the researchers' ethics and standard scientific practice.
Correct answer: the official framing of results and the researchers' own interpretation.
The sentence highlights a gap between an external evaluative label ('limitation') and the researchers' internal understanding of the same feature ('strength').
Question 16: A passage opens: 'Few pleasures rival that of finishing a book you almost abandoned.' This opening sentence functions primarily to:
- warn readers against giving up on difficult books.
- compare different types of literary pleasure objectively.
- establish a relatable experience that draws the reader into the author's argument. (Correct answer)
- describe a specific book the author nearly quit reading.
Correct answer: establish a relatable experience that draws the reader into the author's argument.
The opening invokes a common reading experience to create immediate rapport and frame the essay's central theme.
Question 17: A passage begins with a broad claim about human nature, then narrows to a single personal anecdote. This structural move is best described as:
- moving from the general to the particular to ground an abstract claim in lived experience. (Correct answer)
- using narrative to avoid making a direct argument.
- shifting from an objective to a subjective tone as a writing error.
- contradicting the opening claim with a counterexample.
Correct answer: moving from the general to the particular to ground an abstract claim in lived experience.
Moving from universal claim to specific anecdote is a deliberate rhetorical strategy that makes abstract ideas concrete and emotionally immediate.
Question 18: A medical researcher states: 'Our study found a positive correlation between daily coffee consumption and reported levels of alertness. Therefore, drinking coffee causes an increase in alertness.' Which of the following statements represents the most significant logical flaw in the researcher's conclusion?
- The study did not specify the type of coffee used.
- The study should have been conducted over a longer period.
- Alertness is a subjective measure and cannot be accurately reported.
- Correlation does not necessarily imply causation; other factors could be involved. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Correlation does not necessarily imply causation; other factors could be involved.
The fundamental error is equating correlation with causation. While two variables may move together (correlation), it doesn't prove that one causes the other. For example, people who drink coffee might also sleep less, and the lack of sleep could be the true cause of their alertness levels, or another third factor could influence both.
Question 19: A senator argues against a new tax reform bill by pointing out that its author was once convicted of tax fraud. This is an example of:
- Ad hominem, attacking the person rather than the policy (Correct answer)
- Relevance reasoning based on character evidence
- Appeal to authority used in reverse
- A legitimate credibility concern that defeats the argument
Correct answer: Ad hominem, attacking the person rather than the policy
The author's past does not logically determine whether the bill's content is good or bad policy — this is an ad hominem.
Question 20: An informational text includes a sidebar titled 'Key Terms.' The primary function of such a sidebar is to:
- List sources cited in the main text
- Define specialized vocabulary to support reader comprehension (Correct answer)
- Summarize the author's main conclusion
- Provide additional arguments not found in the main text
Correct answer: Define specialized vocabulary to support reader comprehension
Key Terms sidebars exist to give readers quick access to definitions of technical or unfamiliar words used in the text.
Question 21: An argument concludes that a town's high cancer rate is caused by a nearby factory because the factory opened before cancer rates rose. What fallacy does this commit?
- Post hoc ergo propter hoc (Correct answer)
- False dilemma
- Circular reasoning
- Hasty generalisation
Correct answer: Post hoc ergo propter hoc
The post hoc fallacy assumes that because one event followed another, the first caused the second, ignoring other possible explanations.
Question 22: A science article states: 'Participants who slept fewer than six hours reported higher stress levels (p < 0.05).' What does p < 0.05 indicate?
- The finding is statistically significant at the 5% level (Correct answer)
- The result occurred by chance more than 5% of the time
- The effect size is small
- Only 5% of participants reported higher stress
Correct answer: The finding is statistically significant at the 5% level
A p-value below 0.05 means there is less than a 5% probability the result is due to random chance, meeting a standard significance threshold.
Question 23: An author describes a study as 'double-blind.' In an informational context, this term most accurately means:
- The study was conducted in two separate phases
- Neither the researchers nor the participants knew who received the treatment (Correct answer)
- The participants were visually impaired
- Two independent labs replicated the results
Correct answer: Neither the researchers nor the participants knew who received the treatment
Double-blind means both participants and researchers administering the study are unaware of group assignments, reducing bias.
Question 24: A pie chart shows that Category A = 40%, Category B = 35%, Category C = 15%, and Category D = 10%. If the total is 200 units, how many units does Category B represent?
- 80 units
- 65 units
- 35 units
- 70 units (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 70 units
35% of 200 units = 0.35 × 200 = 70 units.
Question 25: A passage uses italics for the phrase terra nullius and then immediately provides its meaning. This formatting choice most likely indicates:
- The author disagrees with the phrase's usage
- The term is a foreign or technical expression being introduced to the reader (Correct answer)
- The phrase is the title of a book
- The phrase was added by an editor
Correct answer: The term is a foreign or technical expression being introduced to the reader
Italics conventionally signal foreign words or newly introduced technical terms, especially when a definition follows.
Question 26: A text presents two columns: 'Observed Frequency' and 'Expected Frequency.' A reader can conclude the author is most likely discussing:
- A statistical analysis comparing actual versus predicted outcomes (Correct answer)
- A budget comparison
- A historical record of past experiments
- A timetable for scheduled events
Correct answer: A statistical analysis comparing actual versus predicted outcomes
Observed vs. expected frequency is standard terminology in statistical tests such as chi-square analysis.
Question 27: A survey of 1,200 university students found that 1/3 planned to travel for the holidays. Of those travelling, 2/5 were going overseas. Of those going overseas, 3/4 were visiting family. How many students were travelling overseas to visit family?
- 240
- 400
- 120 (Correct answer)
- 160
Correct answer: 120
First, find the number of students travelling: 1/3 of 1,200 is 400. Next, find how many of those are going overseas: 2/5 of 400 is (2/5) * 400 = 160. Finally, find how many of the overseas travellers are visiting family: 3/4 of 160 is (3/4) * 160 = 120. Therefore, 120 students were travelling overseas to visit family.
Question 28: An advertisement for a new sports drink features a famous and well-respected musician. The musician claims the drink is the most effective for post-workout recovery. What is the most significant flaw in this argument for the drink's effectiveness?
- The effectiveness of a sports drink is a matter of personal opinion.
- The advertisement does not mention the price of the sports drink.
- The musician's expertise is in music, not in sports science or nutrition. (Correct answer)
- The musician may have been paid for the endorsement.
Correct answer: The musician's expertise is in music, not in sports science or nutrition.
This argument uses the 'appeal to false authority' fallacy. While the musician may be famous and respected, their expertise is in music, not in a field relevant to the product's claims (like sports science or nutrition). Therefore, their endorsement is not credible evidence of the drink's effectiveness.
Question 29: A report claims: 'Countries with stricter gun laws have lower gun death rates.' A reader responds: 'But Switzerland has loose laws and low deaths.' This response is best characterized as:
- A decisive refutation of the report's conclusion.
- An anecdote that proves the report is using flawed data.
- A valid use of comparative evidence.
- A cherry-picked counterexample that may not represent the broader trend. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A cherry-picked counterexample that may not represent the broader trend.
Selecting one exception to challenge a pattern derived from many countries is cherry-picking and does not disprove the general trend.
Question 30: A reviewer dismisses a study on climate change because it was funded by an environmental group. This is an example of:
- Argument from authority
- Legitimate source evaluation
- Ad hominem (circumstantial) (Correct answer)
- A false analogy
Correct answer: Ad hominem (circumstantial)
Rejecting a claim based on the alleged bias of its source rather than its methodology is a circumstantial ad hominem.
Question 31: An author argues that social media causes loneliness because lonely people use social media more. What is the most significant logical problem with this argument?
- The conclusion is overstated
- The sample is biased
- The evidence is anecdotal
- The argument confuses cause and effect (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The argument confuses cause and effect
The argument reverses the plausible causal direction — loneliness may lead to more social media use rather than social media causing loneliness.
Question 32: An argument is presented: 'The new traffic calming measures on Main Street have successfully reduced accidents. Therefore, the city should implement the same measures on all major roads to improve city-wide road safety.' Which of the following is an unstated assumption upon which this conclusion depends?
- The traffic conditions and driver behaviours on all major roads are similar to those on Main Street. (Correct answer)
- The traffic calming measures were expensive to install.
- There were a significant number of accidents on Main Street before the measures were introduced.
- Residents living on Main Street have complained about the new measures.
Correct answer: The traffic conditions and driver behaviours on all major roads are similar to those on Main Street.
The argument assumes that what worked in one specific context (Main Street) will work in all other contexts (all major roads). For this to be a valid conclusion, it must assume that the conditions—such as traffic volume, road design, speed limits, and pedestrian activity—are comparable across all these different roads. If other roads have vastly different conditions, the measures might not be effective.
Question 33: In a passage, a character avoids using the word 'afraid' throughout a crisis but constantly describes checking exits and avoiding open spaces. This technique is an example of:
- an unreliable narrator deliberately deceiving the reader.
- third-person omniscient narration.
- stream of consciousness narration.
- indirect characterization through behavior rather than direct statement. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: indirect characterization through behavior rather than direct statement.
Revealing a character's emotional state through their actions rather than explicit labels is a classic technique of indirect or behavioral characterization.
Question 34: A lawyer argues: 'My client is innocent because the prosecution has not proven guilt beyond reasonable doubt.' Which logical principle does this illustrate?
- The burden of proof lies with the one making the positive claim. (Correct answer)
- Defense attorneys never need to present evidence.
- Reasonable doubt is always present in legal cases.
- Innocence is established by character witnesses.
Correct answer: The burden of proof lies with the one making the positive claim.
In legal reasoning, the burden of proof falls on the prosecution; failure to meet that burden justifies acquittal.
Question 35: A histogram has bars of heights 3, 7, 12, 9, 4 for intervals 0-9, 10-19, 20-29, 30-39, 40-49. The distribution is best described as:
- Uniform
- Skewed left
- Skewed right
- Approximately bell-shaped with a peak in the middle (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Approximately bell-shaped with a peak in the middle
The frequencies rise to a peak in the middle interval (20-29) and fall on both sides, forming an approximately bell-shaped (unimodal) distribution.
Question 36: Read the following passage: 'While the proliferation of electric vehicles (EVs) is heralded as a crucial step towards reducing urban air pollution, a myopic focus on this single solution is perilous. The environmental cost of battery production, particularly the mining of lithium and cobalt, is substantial. Furthermore, the source of the electricity used to charge these vehicles is critical; an EV powered by a coal-fired grid merely shifts the point of emission. A truly sustainable transport policy must be holistic, integrating EVs with robust public transit, cycling infrastructure, and urban planning that reduces travel demand.' What is the primary purpose of this passage?
- To advocate for a broader, more integrated approach to sustainable transportation. (Correct answer)
- To inform readers about the process of manufacturing EV batteries.
- To argue that electric vehicles offer no real environmental benefits.
- To condemn countries that mine lithium and cobalt.
Correct answer: To advocate for a broader, more integrated approach to sustainable transportation.
The author acknowledges the benefits of EVs but then introduces several limitations ('perilous' focus, battery costs, electricity source). The final sentence provides the main conclusion and purpose: to argue that a 'truly sustainable' policy must be 'holistic' and include more than just EVs.
Question 37: A technical document contains the phrase 'as previously defined.' A reader encountering this phrase should:
- Refer back to the earlier definition given in the text (Correct answer)
- Look the term up in an external dictionary
- Assume the term has its everyday meaning
- Skip to the next section
Correct answer: Refer back to the earlier definition given in the text
The phrase signals that the author established a specific definition earlier that should be applied to the current usage.
Question 38: A policy brief concludes: 'Based on the evidence above, the committee recommends expanding the program.' The word 'recommends' signals that the statement is:
- A summary of a previous study
- A proven scientific fact
- A disclaimer limiting liability
- A prescriptive judgment based on the preceding evidence (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A prescriptive judgment based on the preceding evidence
Recommendations are value-laden conclusions that go beyond description, suggesting a course of action supported by evidence.
Question 39: The grouped bar chart below displays the preferred methods of commuting to work for employees in City A and City B in 2025. *Graph Description: A grouped bar chart comparing City A and City B. The y-axis shows the percentage of commuters (0% to 60%). The x-axis has four categories: 'Private Car', 'Public Transport', 'Cycling', and 'Walking'. For 'Public Transport', City A's bar is at 50% and City B's bar is at 25%. For 'Cycling', City A's bar is at 10% and City B's is at 20%.* A city planner claims that the number of people using public transport in City A is double the number of people cycling in City B. Why is this conclusion potentially flawed based on the graph?
- The graph shows that more people in City B prefer cycling than in City A.
- The graph represents percentages, not absolute numbers, and the total number of commuters in each city is unknown. (Correct answer)
- Public transport usage in City A is actually four times that of cycling in City A.
- The data is from 2025 and may no longer be accurate.
Correct answer: The graph represents percentages, not absolute numbers, and the total number of commuters in each city is unknown.
The graph shows percentages of commuters, not the actual number of people. City A's public transport use is 50% and City B's cycling use is 20%. While 50 is more than double 20, we cannot compare the absolute numbers of people without knowing the total commuter populations of City A and City B. If City B has a much larger population than City A, it's possible that the number of cyclists in City B is greater than the number of public transport users in City A.
Question 40: A scatter plot has a best-fit line with the equation y = 3x + 5, where x = study hours and y = score. What score does the model predict for a student who studies 8 hours?
- 29 (Correct answer)
- 32
- 19
- 24
Correct answer: 29
y = 3(8) + 5 = 24 + 5 = 29.
Question 41: A line graph compares the growth of two populations over 10 years. Population A grows from 1,000 to 2,000; Population B grows from 500 to 1,200. Which population grew more in absolute terms?
- Cannot be determined
- Population A (Correct answer)
- Population B
- They grew by the same absolute amount
Correct answer: Population A
Population A added 1,000 people while Population B added 700 people, so A had greater absolute growth.
Question 42: A cistern has two inlet pipes that fill it in 4 hours and 6 hours respectively, and one outlet pipe that empties it in 12 hours. How long does it take to fill the cistern with all pipes open?
- 3 hours (Correct answer)
- 2 hours
- 4 hours
- 6 hours
Correct answer: 3 hours
Combined rate = 1/4 + 1/6 − 1/12 = 3/12 + 2/12 − 1/12 = 4/12 = 1/3; time = 3 hours.
Question 43: A time-series graph shows a company's quarterly profits over 3 years. The trend line slopes upward but individual quarters alternate high and low. What best describes this pattern?
- A downward trend with noise
- A cyclical pattern with no overall trend
- An overall upward trend with seasonal fluctuation (Correct answer)
- Consistent growth with no variation
Correct answer: An overall upward trend with seasonal fluctuation
An upward-sloping trend line combined with alternating quarterly values indicates overall growth with seasonal fluctuation.
Question 44: A school's test score data is: minimum 42, Q1 = 58, median = 70, Q3 = 82, maximum 95. What is the interquartile range (IQR)?
- 24 (Correct answer)
- 28
- 53
- 12
Correct answer: 24
IQR = Q3 − Q1 = 82 − 58 = 24.
Question 45: What is the primary function of a personal anecdote within a personal perspective essay?
- To entertain the reader with a dramatic and detailed story.
- To demonstrate the writer's superior vocabulary and narrative skill.
- To replace the need for a clear thesis statement or argument.
- To serve as evidence or an illustration for a broader argument or reflection. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To serve as evidence or an illustration for a broader argument or reflection.
In a personal perspective essay, an anecdote is not just a story for its own sake. Its main purpose is to ground a larger idea, argument, or reflection in a concrete, personal experience, making the writer's point more relatable and convincing for the reader.
Question 46: An environmental impact statement categorizes effects as 'direct,' 'indirect,' and 'cumulative.' A reader should understand that 'cumulative' effects refer to:
- The combined result of multiple impacts over time across a region (Correct answer)
- Effects that are too small to measure individually
- Only the economic costs of a project
- The immediate physical changes caused by a project
Correct answer: The combined result of multiple impacts over time across a region
Cumulative impacts are the total environmental effects when a project's impact is added to other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable actions.
Question 47: The stacked area chart below illustrates the quarterly sales (in units) for a company's three main products (Product A, Product B, Product C) over the course of a year. *Graph Description: A stacked area chart for one year, with Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 on the x-axis. The y-axis is 'Units Sold'. In Q1, the total is 1000 (A=500, B=300, C=200). In Q2, the total is 1200 (A=400, B=500, C=300). In Q3, the total is 1100 (A=300, B=400, C=400). In Q4, the total is 1500 (A=300, B=500, C=700).* Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the chart?
- Sales of Product A consistently decreased throughout the year.
- The proportion of total sales from Product C increased each quarter. (Correct answer)
- Product B was the company's best-selling product for the entire year.
- Total company sales were highest in the second quarter (Q2).
Correct answer: The proportion of total sales from Product C increased each quarter.
Let's check the proportion of Product C sales: Q1 is 200/1000=20%; Q2 is 300/1200=25%; Q3 is 400/1100≈36%; Q4 is 700/1500≈47%. The proportion of total sales from Product C clearly increased each quarter. Option A is incorrect as sales of Product A were flat from Q3 to Q4. Option B is incorrect as total sales were highest in Q4 (1500 units). Option C is incorrect because summing the units for the year (A=1500, B=1700, C=1600) shows Product B was the bestseller, but the statement implies this was true in every quarter, which is not the case.
Question 48: A political advertisement states: 'Candidate X has the most social media followers, so they are clearly the best choice for president.' Which logical fallacy is most evident in this statement?
- Straw Man
- Ad Hominem
- Slippery Slope
- Bandwagon Fallacy (Ad Populum) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bandwagon Fallacy (Ad Populum)
The Bandwagon Fallacy, or Argumentum ad Populum, asserts that something must be true or good simply because it is popular. This argument incorrectly equates popularity (number of social media followers) with qualification for office, which is the core of the fallacy.
Question 49: A car travels 120 miles in 2 hours, then 90 miles in 1.5 hours. What is the car's average speed for the entire trip?
- 60 mph (Correct answer)
- 62.5 mph
- 65 mph
- 55 mph
Correct answer: 60 mph
Total distance = 210 miles; total time = 3.5 hours; average speed = 210 ÷ 3.5 = 60 mph.
Question 50: The table shows student enrolment, and the line graph shows the total university budget. Assume the budget was distributed among the faculties proportionally to their student enrolment numbers. [A table titled 'Student Enrolment by Faculty' is shown. | Year | Science | Arts | Engineering | Total | |------|---------|--------|-------------|--------| | 2022 | 4,000 | 6,000 | 2,000 | 12,000 | | 2023 | 4,200 | 6,100 | 2,200 | 12,500 | | 2024 | 4,500 | 6,000 | 2,500 | 13,000 | A line graph titled 'Total University Budget' is shown. - 2022: $240 Million - 2023: $250 Million - 2024: $286 Million] In 2024, what was the approximate budget allocation per student for the Arts faculty?
- $22,000 (Correct answer)
- $20,000
- $21,000
- $23,500
Correct answer: $22,000
First, find the total university budget and the total number of students for the year 2024 from the provided data. The budget was $286,000,000 and the total number of students was 13,000. The problem states that the budget is distributed proportionally based on student enrolment, which implies a constant funding amount per student across all faculties. To find this amount, divide the total budget by the total number of students: $286,000,000 / 13,000 students = $22,000 per student. Therefore, the allocation per student for the Arts faculty was $22,000.
Question 51: A map uses a scale of 1 inch = 25 miles. If two cities are 3.6 inches apart on the map, what is their actual distance?
- 75 miles
- 80 miles
- 90 miles (Correct answer)
- 100 miles
Correct answer: 90 miles
3.6 × 25 = 90 miles.
Question 52: A passage states: 'The reforms were hailed as revolutionary by supporters, dismissed as cosmetic by critics.' The author's use of both viewpoints in a single sentence is best described as:
- proving that the reforms were ultimately ineffective.
- presenting a personal endorsement of the reforms.
- showing that the critics were more credible than the supporters.
- acknowledging contradictory interpretations without taking a side. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: acknowledging contradictory interpretations without taking a side.
By presenting both perspectives in parallel, the author maintains a neutral tone and signals that the reforms were genuinely contested.
Question 53: A table shows population data: Town A increased from 12,000 to 15,000 over 5 years, while Town B increased from 8,000 to 11,200. Which town had the greater percentage increase?
- Town B, with 40% (Correct answer)
- Both had the same percentage increase
- Town A, with 40%
- Town A, with 25%
Correct answer: Town B, with 40%
Town A: (3,000/12,000)×100 = 25%; Town B: (3,200/8,000)×100 = 40%, so Town B had the greater percentage increase.
Question 54: An advocacy group publishes a report showing their charity's program reduced poverty in one village. They conclude the program should be expanded nationally. Which is the strongest critique of this reasoning?
- Poverty is too complex to measure accurately.
- The report was not published in a peer-reviewed journal.
- A single village may not be representative of the national context. (Correct answer)
- The group should not be allowed to fund its own research.
Correct answer: A single village may not be representative of the national context.
Generalizing from one case to an entire nation ignores local variation and potential confounders specific to that village.
Question 55: A gear system consists of two connected cogs. Cog A has 12 teeth and Cog B has 36 teeth. For every complete revolution of Cog B, how many revolutions does Cog A make?
- 1/3
- 3 (Correct answer)
- 1
- 4
Correct answer: 3
The relationship is based on the ratio of the number of teeth. The ratio of teeth from Cog B to Cog A is 36:12, which simplifies to 3:1. This means that for every one revolution of the larger cog (B), the smaller cog (A) must complete three revolutions.
Question 56: An author uses a series of short, fragmented sentences to describe a character's panic. The primary effect of this stylistic choice is to:
- mirror the character's fractured mental state through the rhythm of the prose. (Correct answer)
- signal that the author was writing quickly and did not revise.
- indicate that the passage is from a legal document.
- make the passage easier for younger readers to understand.
Correct answer: mirror the character's fractured mental state through the rhythm of the prose.
Sentence structure and length can enact a character's psychological state; fragmented sentences physically reproduce the disjointed feeling of panic.
Question 57: A study reports that students who study more than 3 hours per day score 15% higher on average. This is best described as:
- A proven causal relationship
- An irrelevant finding
- A correlation that does not prove causation (Correct answer)
- A controlled experiment result
Correct answer: A correlation that does not prove causation
Observational data showing an association between two variables does not establish that one causes the other.
Question 58: An analyst writes: 'Country X has a lower unemployment rate than Country Y, so Country X has a stronger economy.' Which assumption is embedded in this conclusion?
- Country X has a larger population than Country Y
- Both countries measure unemployment using the same definition
- Unemployment rate is the sole or most important indicator of economic strength (Correct answer)
- Country Y has a higher GDP than Country X
Correct answer: Unemployment rate is the sole or most important indicator of economic strength
The conclusion treats a single indicator as definitive of economic strength, ignoring GDP, inflation, inequality, and other relevant factors.
Question 59: The data was AMBIGUOUS, making conclusions difficult. 'Ambiguous' most nearly means:
- Incomplete
- Inaccurate
- Overwhelming
- Open to multiple interpretations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Open to multiple interpretations
'Ambiguous' means open to more than one interpretation, creating uncertainty about the correct meaning.
Question 60: An author describes a scientist as someone who 'pursued truth with monastic devotion.' The word 'monastic' is used to suggest the scientist was:
- dedicated and self-denying in their pursuit of knowledge. (Correct answer)
- slow and methodical in performing experiments.
- religious and prayerful in their methods.
- isolated from colleagues due to disagreements.
Correct answer: dedicated and self-denying in their pursuit of knowledge.
'Monastic' evokes the disciplined, self-sacrificing lifestyle of monks, here applied metaphorically to the scientist's extreme dedication.
Question 61: A table compares two products' sales over four quarters. Product A totals 1,200 units; Product B totals 900 units. In Q3, A sold 400 and B sold 350. Which statement is supported by the data?
- Product B outsold Product A in Q3
- Product B had a higher Q3 share of its annual total than Product A (Correct answer)
- Product A sold more in Q3 than in any other quarter
- Product A had greater total annual sales than Product B
Correct answer: Product B had a higher Q3 share of its annual total than Product A
B's Q3 share = 350/900 ≈ 38.9%; A's Q3 share = 400/1,200 ≈ 33.3%, so B devoted a larger fraction of its annual total to Q3.
Question 62: Which of the following best describes a 'straw man' fallacy?
- Claiming popularity proves correctness
- Dismissing an argument because of who made it
- Presenting only two options when more exist
- Misrepresenting an opponent's position to make it easier to attack (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Misrepresenting an opponent's position to make it easier to attack
A straw man fallacy involves distorting or exaggerating an opponent's argument so it can be more easily refuted.
Question 63: An investment fund grows by 10% in the first year. In the second year, it loses 10% of its value. What is the net percentage change in the value of the investment over the two-year period?
- A 2% decrease
- A 1% decrease (Correct answer)
- A 0% change
- A 1% increase
Correct answer: A 1% decrease
Let the initial investment be $100. After the first year, it grows by 10%, so its value becomes $100 * 1.10 = $110. In the second year, it loses 10% of its current value, so the loss is 10% of $110, which is $11. The new value is $110 - $11 = $99. The initial value was $100 and the final value is $99, which represents a 1% decrease overall.
Question 64: A line graph shows temperature readings (°C) taken every 2 hours: 6am=14°, 8am=17°, 10am=22°, 12pm=26°, 2pm=28°, 4pm=25°, 6pm=20°. Between which two consecutive readings was the rate of temperature increase greatest?
- 10am–12pm
- 8am–10am (Correct answer)
- 12pm–2pm
- 6am–8am
Correct answer: 8am–10am
The rises are: 3°, 5°, 4°, 2° for the first four intervals; the jump of 5° between 8am and 10am is the largest.
Question 65: A city council argues: 'Crime rates dropped 15% after we installed more streetlights, so streetlights prevent crime.' What is the main flaw in this argument?
- The data source is unreliable
- The sample size is too small
- The conclusion is too narrow
- Correlation is mistaken for causation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Correlation is mistaken for causation
The argument assumes that because two events occurred together, one caused the other, which is the correlation-causation fallacy.
Question 66: A table shows that 3 out of every 8 items produced are defective. If 640 items are produced, how many are expected to be defect-free?
- 320
- 400 (Correct answer)
- 240
- 480
Correct answer: 400
Defective = (3/8) × 640 = 240; defect-free = 640 − 240 = 400.
Question 67: A box-and-whisker plot for a dataset shows: minimum=10, Q1=25, median=40, Q3=55, maximum=80. What is the interquartile range (IQR)?
- 30 (Correct answer)
- 40
- 15
- 70
Correct answer: 30
IQR = Q3 − Q1 = 55 − 25 = 30.
Question 68: When sales climb or decline continuously over three years, it is referred to as a "steady trend." Which are the only months where star sales show a consistent upward trend?
- April & March (Correct answer)
- Feb & May
- Jan & June
- March & June
Correct answer: April & March
The bar graph shows that, for the past three years, sales have been rising consistently in March and April. March and April see a steady increase in the 1998 actual, 1999 actual, and 2000 actual (as indicated in the legend).
STAT — Special Tertiary Admissions Test (Multiple Choice)
The STAT Multiple Choice test is a 70-question aptitude exam used by Australian universities to assess mature-age and non-school-leaver applicants for undergraduate admission, covering verbal and quantitative reasoning skills.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds