FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) Knowledge Test — Student Pilot Certificate — Questions and Answers

Question 1: You are on final approach to land at a towered airport and you realize your radio has failed. You look at the control tower and see a steady green light signal. What does this signal indicate?

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
Cleared to land. (Correct answer)
Airport unsafe, do not land.
Return for landing (to be followed by a steady green at the proper time).

Correct answer: Cleared to land.

According to the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM), a steady green light signal from the control tower directed at an aircraft in flight means it is cleared to land.

Question 2: What does a gyroscopic instrument's 'precession' error cause in turns?

The attitude indicator may show a slight bank even when wings are level after a coordinated turn (Correct answer)
The VSI lags behind actual vertical speed changes
The airspeed indicator under-reads in banked flight
The altimeter over-reads during steep turns

Correct answer: The attitude indicator may show a slight bank even when wings are level after a coordinated turn

Gyroscopic precession can cause the attitude indicator to display a slight bank error after prolonged or steep turns, requiring occasional re-centering.

Question 3: During a solo flight, the engine fails shortly after takeoff with insufficient runway remaining to land straight ahead. What is the most critical initial action the pilot should take?

Establish the aircraft's best glide speed. (Correct answer)
Attempt to restart the engine using the checklist.
Immediately transmit "MAYDAY" on the emergency frequency.
Turn back towards the departure airport regardless of altitude.

Correct answer: Establish the aircraft's best glide speed.

The first and most critical action in an engine failure scenario is to establish the aircraft's best glide speed (Vg). This maximizes the distance the aircraft can travel without power, providing the pilot more time and options to select a suitable landing site. While communication and restart attempts are important, they are secondary to maintaining aircraft control.

Question 4: What is the maximum speed below 10,000 feet MSL in the contiguous United States?

250 knots (Correct answer)
300 knots
200 knots
Unlimited unless ATC restricts

Correct answer: 250 knots

FAR 91.117 limits aircraft speed to 250 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 5: Relative wind is defined as:

The headwind component affecting groundspeed
The wind reported by ATIS at the departure airport
Turbulent air encountered during cruise flight
The airflow direction experienced by the wing, opposite to the aircraft's flight path (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The airflow direction experienced by the wing, opposite to the aircraft's flight path

Relative wind is the airflow direction an aircraft experiences in flight, always parallel and opposite to the aircraft's actual flight path through the air.

Question 6: A student pilot's solo flight endorsement for a specific make and model of aircraft expires after how long?

90 days (Correct answer)
30 days
180 days
60 days

Correct answer: 90 days

A student pilot's solo flight endorsement expires 90 days from the date the instructor last endorsed it.

Question 7: What does the VSO airspeed indicate on the airspeed indicator?

Maximum structural cruising speed
Never-exceed speed
Stalling speed in the clean configuration
Stalling speed in the landing configuration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stalling speed in the landing configuration

VSO is the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration (gear down, flaps fully extended).

Question 8: A pilot notices that a ground light appears to drift slowly sideways while on a long final approach at night. This is MOST likely:

Autokinesis—an illusion of movement of a stationary light (Correct answer)
The light actually moving due to wind at the surface
The aircraft drifting off course due to crosswind
A symptom of hypemia reducing visual acuity

Correct answer: Autokinesis—an illusion of movement of a stationary light

Autokinesis is a visual illusion where a stationary point of light appears to move when stared at in a dark environment without reference points.

Question 9: A student pilot on a solo cross-country flight becomes disoriented. If the pilot needs to declare a general emergency, which transponder code should be set?

7500
7600
7700 (Correct answer)
1200

Correct answer: 7700

The transponder code 7700 is the universal code for a general emergency. It will immediately alert Air Traffic Control to the aircraft's distress situation. Code 7500 is for hijacking, 7600 is for lost communications, and 1200 is the standard VFR code.

Question 10: What is the function of a wing’s camber?

Reduce noise
Increase drag
Generate lift through airflow (Correct answer)
Control yaw

Correct answer: Generate lift through airflow

Camber refers to the curvature of the wing, which helps create pressure differences that generate lift.

Question 11: What is the standard traffic pattern direction at most uncontrolled airports?

Straight-in only
Left-hand pattern (Correct answer)
Circular pattern
Right-hand pattern

Correct answer: Left-hand pattern

Most uncontrolled airports follow a left-hand traffic pattern for safety and consistency.

Question 12: What is the definition of 'magnetic course'?

True course corrected for wind
Compass heading corrected for deviation
True course corrected for magnetic variation (Correct answer)
The heading required to maintain ground track

Correct answer: True course corrected for magnetic variation

Magnetic course is the true course adjusted by the local magnetic variation to account for the difference between true and magnetic north.

Question 13: Which navigation method uses radio signals from ground-based stations?

VOR navigation (Correct answer)
GPS
Pilotage
Dead reckoning

Correct answer: VOR navigation

VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) is a radio navigation system that helps pilots determine their position and stay on course.

Question 14: What is the purpose of the aircraft's primer system?

To pressurize the fuel tanks before engine start
To pre-heat the carburetor to prevent icing
To lubricate the engine cylinders before startup
To inject fuel directly into the cylinders for easier cold-weather starting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To inject fuel directly into the cylinders for easier cold-weather starting

The primer pumps fuel directly into the cylinders or intake manifold to enrich the mixture for cold engine starting.

Question 15: Which publication provides aeronautical information such as airport data, airspace, and navigational aids for pilots?

PIREP
ATIS
NOTAM
Chart Supplement (A/FD) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Chart Supplement (A/FD)

The Chart Supplement (formerly Airport/Facility Directory) contains detailed airport and airspace information for pilots.

Question 16: During an emergency descent due to cabin fire, what airspeed limitation must the pilot respect?

Best glide speed (Vg)
Never-exceed speed (Vne) (Correct answer)
Best rate of climb speed (Vy)
Maneuvering speed (Va)

Correct answer: Never-exceed speed (Vne)

Even in an emergency descent, the pilot must stay below Vne to prevent structural damage to the aircraft.

Question 17: What does a flashing red light signal from the control tower mean to an aircraft on the ground?

Return to starting point on the airport (Correct answer)
Stop
Taxi clear of runway in use
Cleared to taxi

Correct answer: Return to starting point on the airport

A flashing red light directed at an aircraft on the ground means 'taxi clear of landing area in use' or return to starting point.

Question 18: A pilot is preparing for a takeoff from a high-elevation airport on a hot, humid day. What effect will these conditions have on aircraft performance?

Increased performance due to warmer air providing more lift.
Improved climb performance but a longer takeoff roll.
No significant effect on performance.
Decreased performance due to high density altitude. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreased performance due to high density altitude.

High elevation, high temperatures, and high humidity all contribute to a high density altitude. High density altitude means the air is less dense. This less dense air reduces engine power output, decreases lift, and consequently leads to a longer takeoff roll and a reduced rate of climb.

Question 19: On a sectional chart, the top number in Class C airspace rings (e.g., 40) represents:

The ceiling in hundreds of feet MSL (Correct answer)
The lateral radius in nautical miles
The floor in hundreds of feet MSL
The ceiling in thousands of feet MSL

Correct answer: The ceiling in hundreds of feet MSL

In Class C ring labels, the top number is the ceiling and the bottom number is the floor, both in hundreds of feet MSL.

Question 20: What is the function of the aircraft's magneto?

To regulate voltage to the instrument panel
To power the aircraft's avionics systems
To charge the aircraft battery during cruise flight
To generate high-voltage electrical sparks to ignite the fuel-air mixture (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To generate high-voltage electrical sparks to ignite the fuel-air mixture

Magnetos are self-contained ignition generators that produce high-voltage electricity to fire the spark plugs, independent of the aircraft battery.

Question 21: What should a student pilot do if they become spatially disoriented during flight under visual conditions?

Close their eyes and rely entirely on the flight instruments
Trust body sensations and adjust the aircraft accordingly
Refer to the flight instruments and correct the attitude smoothly (Correct answer)
Reduce airspeed immediately and wait for orientation to return

Correct answer: Refer to the flight instruments and correct the attitude smoothly

The instruments show the true attitude of the aircraft and should be trusted over physical sensations, which can be deceiving.

Question 22: What does an aircraft's 'empty weight' typically include?

Airframe, engine, unusable fuel, and full engine oil (Correct answer)
Airframe, passengers, and baggage
Airframe only, without any fluids
Airframe, engine, and all usable fuel

Correct answer: Airframe, engine, unusable fuel, and full engine oil

Standard empty weight includes the airframe, engines, all permanently installed equipment, unusable fuel, and full engine oil as specified in the POH.

Question 23: What is the correct entry procedure for a standard left-hand traffic pattern when approaching from the non-traffic-pattern side?

Enter on the crosswind leg
Circle the airport at pattern altitude and join any leg
Enter directly on the base leg
Fly to the pattern side and enter on the 45-degree entry to the downwind leg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fly to the pattern side and enter on the 45-degree entry to the downwind leg

The recommended entry for a standard traffic pattern is a 45-degree entry to the downwind leg on the traffic pattern side of the runway.

Question 24: What does the aircraft Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) define as 'service ceiling'?

The recommended cruise altitude for best fuel economy
The maximum altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a 100 FPM climb rate (Correct answer)
The absolute highest altitude the aircraft can ever reach
The altitude above which all instrument approaches are prohibited

Correct answer: The maximum altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a 100 FPM climb rate

Service ceiling is the density altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a maximum rate of climb of only 100 feet per minute.

Question 25: What does a steady green light signal mean when directed at an aircraft in flight?

Proceed to the next checkpoint
Cleared to land (Correct answer)
Return for landing
Give way to other aircraft

Correct answer: Cleared to land

A steady green light directed at an aircraft in flight means cleared to land.

Question 26: Ground effect on takeoff is most pronounced when the aircraft is flying at a height equal to:

One-half wingspan or less above the ground (Correct answer)
One full wingspan above the ground
Three times the chord length above the ground
Two wingspans above the ground

Correct answer: One-half wingspan or less above the ground

Ground effect is most significant when the aircraft is within one-half wingspan of the ground, as the ground interrupts wingtip vortex formation and reduces induced drag.

Question 27: At which altitude above sea level does Class A airspace begin in the contiguous United States?

18,000 feet MSL (Correct answer)
10,000 feet MSL
14,500 feet MSL
24,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: 18,000 feet MSL

Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 over the contiguous US.

Question 28: What is dead reckoning navigation?

Flying direct between GPS waypoints
Following ATC vectors to a destination
Estimating position using known speed, heading, and elapsed time from a known point (Correct answer)
Using radio beacons to fix position

Correct answer: Estimating position using known speed, heading, and elapsed time from a known point

Dead reckoning calculates estimated position by applying speed, heading, and time from a last known position.

Question 29: What does the term 'stabilized approach' mean during a landing?

The autopilot is engaged for the approach
The aircraft maintains consistent airspeed, descent rate, and alignment on final approach (Correct answer)
The aircraft's landing gear and flaps are fully extended
The aircraft is trimmed for level flight on final

Correct answer: The aircraft maintains consistent airspeed, descent rate, and alignment on final approach

A stabilized approach means the aircraft is on glidepath, at target airspeed, with proper configuration, and descent rate well before the runway threshold.

Question 30: Under 14 CFR 91.119, what is the minimum safe altitude over a congested area?

1,000 feet AGL
500 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot radius
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot radius (Correct answer)
500 feet AGL

Correct answer: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot radius

Over congested areas, pilots must fly at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.

Question 31: What is the purpose of the aircraft's ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)?

To broadcast the aircraft's position continuously during all phases of flight
To communicate with ATC on emergency frequencies during flight
To send a text alert to the pilot's phone if the aircraft is stolen
To automatically transmit a distress signal on 406 MHz after a crash to aid search and rescue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To automatically transmit a distress signal on 406 MHz after a crash to aid search and rescue

An ELT activates upon impact and transmits a coded signal to satellites on 406 MHz, enabling search and rescue teams to locate a downed aircraft.

Question 32: Which flight condition produces the greatest amount of induced drag?

Low speed, high angle of attack (Correct answer)
High speed, low angle of attack
Descent with power off
Level flight at cruise airspeed

Correct answer: Low speed, high angle of attack

Induced drag is greatest at high angles of attack (low speeds) because strong wingtip vortices form when generating large amounts of lift.

Question 33: What is 'ground effect' and how does it affect takeoff performance?

A cushion of air that increases runway friction
Reduced lift near the ground forcing longer takeoff rolls
Increased lift and reduced induced drag close to the ground, allowing liftoff at lower speeds (Correct answer)
Increased drag caused by surface turbulence near the runway

Correct answer: Increased lift and reduced induced drag close to the ground, allowing liftoff at lower speeds

Ground effect occurs within about one wingspan of the surface; it reduces induced drag and increases lift, allowing the aircraft to become airborne at lower speeds.

Question 34: What is the correct format for reading a frequency such as 123.45 MHz over the radio?

One-two-three-four-five
One twenty-three and four five
One two three decimal four five (Correct answer)
One twenty-three point forty-five

Correct answer: One two three decimal four five

Frequencies are read digit by digit with the word 'decimal' replacing the decimal point, per standard aviation phraseology.

Question 35: What is the primary purpose of deploying flaps during a landing approach?

To allow for a steeper approach to landing without increasing airspeed. (Correct answer)
To improve the aircraft's roll rate for better crosswind control.
To increase the aircraft's top speed.
To decrease the total weight of the aircraft.

Correct answer: To allow for a steeper approach to landing without increasing airspeed.

Extending flaps increases both lift and drag. This allows the pilot to fly a steeper approach angle for landing without the airspeed increasing, which is crucial for clearing obstacles and landing on a shorter runway.

Question 36: What type of airspace exists at most small general aviation airports that have an operating control tower?

Class E
Class D (Correct answer)
Class B
Class C

Correct answer: Class D

Class D airspace surrounds airports with an operating control tower that don't qualify for Class B or C designation.

Question 37: In steady, level, unaccelerated flight, which statement about the four forces is correct?

All four forces are equal to zero
Thrust equals weight and lift equals drag
Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag (Correct answer)
Thrust exceeds drag and lift exceeds weight

Correct answer: Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

In straight-and-level unaccelerated flight, the four forces are in equilibrium: lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

Question 38: What should a pilot do if they hear their call sign followed by 'radio check'?

Ignore the call and continue on course
Squawk ident to confirm radio works
Respond with signal readability using the readability scale (Correct answer)
File a PIREP immediately

Correct answer: Respond with signal readability using the readability scale

A radio check response should include the station called, your call sign, and signal readability (e.g., 'loud and clear' or a numeric readability value).

Question 39: What is the result of leaning the mixture too aggressively at low altitude?

Smoother engine operation and improved fuel economy
Engine roughness, loss of power, and possible detonation (Correct answer)
Increased manifold pressure and higher RPM
Lower cylinder head temperatures and reduced wear

Correct answer: Engine roughness, loss of power, and possible detonation

An excessively lean mixture can cause rough running, power loss, and dangerously high cylinder temperatures that may lead to detonation.

Question 40: A student pilot notices the oil pressure gauge is in the red arc shortly after takeoff. What is the correct procedure?

Continue to the destination and monitor the gauge
Increase altitude to reduce engine load
Reduce power and return to the airport immediately (Correct answer)
Shut down the engine in flight

Correct answer: Reduce power and return to the airport immediately

Low oil pressure indicates potential engine failure risk; the pilot should reduce power, declare an emergency if needed, and land as soon as possible.

Question 41: Where is the weight and balance data specific to your aircraft found?

Airport Facility Directory
Aeronautical Information Manual
Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) / Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) (Correct answer)
FAR/AIM

Correct answer: Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) / Airplane Flight Manual (AFM)

Aircraft-specific weight and balance data, including empty weight, CG location, and loading limits, is found in the Pilot's Operating Handbook or Airplane Flight Manual for that specific aircraft.

Question 42: A pilot notices a faint smell of exhaust in the cockpit. The BEST immediate action is to:

Open cabin heat to purge the system
Continue flight and monitor for further symptoms
Close all vents, don oxygen if available, and land as soon as practicable (Correct answer)
Increase airspeed to ventilate the cockpit faster

Correct answer: Close all vents, don oxygen if available, and land as soon as practicable

Exhaust odor suggests possible CO infiltration; pilots should close heat/vents, use oxygen if available, and land promptly before impairment worsens.

Question 43: Which of the following is a primary symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can result from a faulty aircraft cabin heating system?

A bluish discoloration of the lips and fingernails
A sharp, acidic smell in the cockpit
Headache, dizziness, and drowsiness (Correct answer)
Tingling sensations in the fingers and toes

Correct answer: Headache, dizziness, and drowsiness

Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that, when inhaled, prevents the blood from carrying oxygen. Early symptoms often include headache, dizziness, and drowsiness. Bluish discoloration (cyanosis) is a sign of severe hypoxia, while tingling sensations are characteristic of hyperventilation.

Question 44: A pilot flying at 13,000 feet MSL for over 40 minutes without supplemental oxygen begins to experience a false sense of well-being and impaired judgment. Which aeromedical condition is the most likely cause?

Hypoxic hypoxia (Correct answer)
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Spatial disorientation
Hyperventilation

Correct answer: Hypoxic hypoxia

Hypoxic hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body. It occurs at high altitudes where there is less partial pressure of oxygen. FAA regulations (14 CFR § 91.211) require flight crew to use supplemental oxygen for any portion of a flight over 30 minutes at cabin pressure altitudes between 12,500 and 14,000 feet. Symptoms like euphoria and impaired judgment are classic signs of the onset of hypoxia.

Question 45: You are approaching a non-towered airport to land. On which frequency should you self-announce your position and intentions?

ATIS
MULTICOM
UNICOM
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)

The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) is the designated frequency for pilots to communicate and self-announce their positions and intentions at an airport without an operating control tower. This allows pilots in the area to maintain situational awareness and sequence themselves safely.

Question 46: What effect does high-density altitude have on aircraft performance?

Has no effect on piston aircraft with carbureted engines
Reduces air density, which decreases engine power and lift (Correct answer)
Improves engine power and decreases takeoff roll
Increases propeller efficiency

Correct answer: Reduces air density, which decreases engine power and lift

High-density altitude means thinner air, which reduces both engine power output and wing lift, degrading overall aircraft performance.

Question 47: A VFR flight departing a towered airport should contact ground control after receiving clearance from which facility?

Approach control
Clearance delivery or tower (Correct answer)
ATIS
Departure control

Correct answer: Clearance delivery or tower

At a towered airport, a pilot typically receives IFR clearance from clearance delivery (or tower at smaller airports) before contacting ground control for taxi.

Question 48: In a standard atmosphere, what is the approximate temperature lapse rate per 1,000 feet of altitude gain?

1°C (1.8°F)
2°C (3.5°F) (Correct answer)
4°C (7.2°F)
5°C (9°F)

Correct answer: 2°C (3.5°F)

The standard atmosphere lapse rate is approximately 2°C (or 3.5°F) per 1,000 feet up to the tropopause.

Question 49: What is the definition of 'Vx' and when would a student pilot use it?

Maximum structural cruising speed; used for maximum efficiency
Maneuvering speed; used in turbulent air to protect the airframe
Best rate of climb speed; used for normal climb to cruise altitude
Best angle of climb speed; used to clear obstacles after takeoff (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Best angle of climb speed; used to clear obstacles after takeoff

Vx is best angle of climb speed and provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest horizontal distance, useful for clearing obstacles.

Question 50: Which of the following is generally NOT included when calculating an aircraft's useful load?

Usable fuel
Baggage
Permanently installed avionics (Correct answer)
Pilot and passengers

Correct answer: Permanently installed avionics

Permanently installed avionics are part of the basic empty weight, not useful load; useful load consists of items the pilot adds, such as occupants, baggage, and usable fuel.

Question 51: What is the purpose of the aircraft's fuel selector valve?

To control the fuel-to-air mixture ratio
To select which fuel tank supplies fuel to the engine (Correct answer)
To shut off fuel flow during engine start
To transfer fuel between tanks automatically

Correct answer: To select which fuel tank supplies fuel to the engine

The fuel selector valve allows the pilot to choose which fuel tank feeds the engine, or to shut off fuel flow entirely.

Question 52: What does 'Vx' represent in aircraft performance?

Best angle of climb speed, which gives the greatest altitude gain over the shortest horizontal distance (Correct answer)
Maneuvering speed at maximum gross weight
Speed for best glide ratio with engine out
Best rate of climb speed, which gives the greatest altitude gain per unit of time

Correct answer: Best angle of climb speed, which gives the greatest altitude gain over the shortest horizontal distance

Vx is the speed that produces the steepest climb angle, gaining the most altitude in the shortest ground distance — useful for obstacle clearance.

Question 53: After landing, a tower controller instructs you to 'exit the runway at taxiway Charlie and contact ground control when clear.' You have exited the runway and your entire aircraft is past the solid double yellow lines adjacent to two dashed yellow lines. What is your next action?

Begin taxiing to the ramp via the most direct route.
Stop immediately and wait for further instructions from the tower.
Switch to the CTAF frequency and announce that you are clear of the runway.
Contact ground control for taxi instructions to parking. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact ground control for taxi instructions to parking.

The runway holding position marking consists of two solid and two dashed yellow lines. When your aircraft is completely clear of the runway, meaning you have crossed all four lines, you are considered 'clear of the runway.' As per the controller's instruction, your next step is to contact ground control for taxi instructions.

Question 54: What does an unusually low brake pedal feel (excessive travel before braking) indicate during preflight taxi checks?

Brakes are properly warmed up and ready for use
Normal hydraulic brake behavior in cold weather
Possible loss of hydraulic fluid or brake wear requiring maintenance (Correct answer)
Anti-skid system is operating correctly

Correct answer: Possible loss of hydraulic fluid or brake wear requiring maintenance

Spongy or low brake pedals indicate possible hydraulic fluid loss or air in the brake lines, requiring inspection before flight.

Question 55: When approaching an uncontrolled airport, on which side of the runway should the traffic pattern be flown if no other information is available?

Right side
The side with the segmented circle
Left side (Correct answer)
Either side at pilot's discretion

Correct answer: Left side

The standard traffic pattern at US airports is left-hand (left turns), unless otherwise specified by a right-hand traffic pattern indicator.

Question 56: What does the 'A' in the AROW acronym represent for required aircraft documents?

Airspeed limitations chart
Aircraft maintenance log
Airworthiness certificate (Correct answer)
Avionics checklist

Correct answer: Airworthiness certificate

AROW stands for Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Operating limitations, and Weight and balance data.

Question 57: A student pilot notices their compass reads 270° but their chart indicates they should fly 275° magnetic. What could explain this?

Compass deviation (Correct answer)
Magnetic variation
Gyroscopic precession
Wind correction angle

Correct answer: Compass deviation

Compass deviation is caused by magnetic interference from the aircraft's own electrical and metal components, causing compass errors.

Question 58: When should seat belts be worn during flight?

During takeoff and landing only
Only in turbulence
During taxi, takeoff, and landing (Correct answer)
Not required for solo flights

Correct answer: During taxi, takeoff, and landing

FAA regulations require seat belts to be fastened during taxi, takeoff, landing, and whenever the PIC directs.

Question 59: A student pilot operating a powered aircraft is approaching a non-towered airport. Which radio frequency should they use to broadcast position reports?

122.75 MHz (Air-to-Air)
121.5 MHz (Guard)
The nearest ARTCC frequency
122.8 MHz (UNICOM) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 122.8 MHz (UNICOM)

122.8 MHz is the most common CTAF/UNICOM frequency used for self-announce position reports at non-towered airports.

Question 60: What is the purpose of checking the stall warning indicator during preflight?

To test the audio warning system volume
To verify the device activates as designed to warn of impending stall (Correct answer)
To confirm the aircraft is within weight limits
To calibrate the airspeed indicator

Correct answer: To verify the device activates as designed to warn of impending stall

The stall warning system must be tested before flight to confirm it will alert the pilot before an unintentional stall.

Question 61: A pilot discovers one fuel tank is significantly lower than the other after preflight inspection. What is the concern?

It may indicate a fuel leak or a defective fuel quantity indicator (Correct answer)
Fuel imbalance is only a concern during aerobatic flight
It only matters if the lower tank reads empty
This is normal for aircraft that were stored on a slope

Correct answer: It may indicate a fuel leak or a defective fuel quantity indicator

Unexplained fuel imbalance may indicate a leak or faulty gauge, both of which require investigation before flight.

Question 62: At night, a pilot should scan for traffic using:

Infrared vision techniques
Focused central vision centered on the suspected target area
Peripheral off-center scanning with regular eye movements (Correct answer)
Rapid left-right head sweeps only

Correct answer: Peripheral off-center scanning with regular eye movements

Because rods (night-vision cells) are concentrated around the periphery of the retina, off-center viewing activates more rods and makes dim lights more visible.

Question 63: When ATC says 'Radar contact lost,' what should the pilot do?

Resume standard position reporting procedures (Correct answer)
Descend to VFR cruising altitude
Squawk 7600 for lost communications
Declare an emergency immediately

Correct answer: Resume standard position reporting procedures

When radar contact is lost, the pilot should resume standard position reporting as if not in radar contact.

Question 64: Alert Areas on sectional charts are depicted to warn pilots of:

Wildlife refuges with noise-sensitive restrictions
Areas with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity (Correct answer)
Active military operations requiring ATC clearance
Airspace where flight is prohibited

Correct answer: Areas with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity

Alert Areas notify pilots of high concentrations of student pilot training or unusual aerial activities, though flight is not restricted.

Question 65: At what point in the landing sequence should a pilot contact the tower at a controlled airport?

When entering the downwind leg or as published in the Chart Supplement (Correct answer)
After crossing the runway threshold
Only if instructed by approach control
After completing the post-landing checklist

Correct answer: When entering the downwind leg or as published in the Chart Supplement

Pilots should contact the tower when entering the traffic pattern downwind leg or at the point specified in the Chart Supplement for that airport.

FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) Knowledge Test — Student Pilot Certificate

The FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) knowledge test assesses a student pilot's understanding of regulations, airspace, weather, aircraft systems, navigation, and emergency procedures required to earn a private pilot certificate. It is a computer-based exam administered at FAA-approved PSI testing centers.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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