Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which of the following is a characteristic of exchange-traded options?
- No margin requirements
- Traded only in the over-the-counter market
- Custom expiration dates negotiated between parties
- Standardized contracts with set strike prices and expirations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Standardized contracts with set strike prices and expirations
Exchange-listed options are standardized contracts with fixed strike prices, expiration dates, and contract sizes.
Question 2: Variable life insurance differs from whole life insurance primarily because:
- Variable life has no death benefit
- Variable life cash value depends on investment subaccount performance (Correct answer)
- Variable life only covers accidental death
- Variable life requires no premiums
Correct answer: Variable life cash value depends on investment subaccount performance
Variable life insurance ties the policy's cash value to investment subaccounts, so its value fluctuates with market performance.
Question 3: What risk do bond investors face when interest rates fall and they must reinvest coupon payments at lower rates?
- Liquidity risk
- Inflation risk
- Reinvestment risk (Correct answer)
- Credit risk
Correct answer: Reinvestment risk
Reinvestment risk is the risk that future coupon payments will be reinvested at lower interest rates than originally expected.
Question 4: Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, a mutual fund must redeem shares at:
- The prior day's closing price
- Net Asset Value (NAV) (Correct answer)
- A premium to NAV
- A discount set by the fund
Correct answer: Net Asset Value (NAV)
Open-end investment companies (mutual funds) must redeem shares at the current NAV, calculated after receipt of a redemption request.
Question 5: Which regulatory body has jurisdiction over variable annuities and variable life insurance products?
- State insurance regulators only
- Both the SEC and FINRA, as well as state insurance regulators (Correct answer)
- The Federal Reserve
- FINRA only
Correct answer: Both the SEC and FINRA, as well as state insurance regulators
Variable products are considered both securities and insurance, so they fall under SEC/FINRA jurisdiction as well as state insurance regulation.
Question 6: Which regulatory body oversees the operations of US stock exchanges and broker-dealers?
- SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission) (Correct answer)
- FDIC
- Federal Reserve
- OCC (Office of the Comptroller of the Currency)
Correct answer: SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission)
The SEC is the primary federal regulator of US securities markets, overseeing exchanges, broker-dealers, and investment advisers.
Question 7: A general obligation (GO) municipal bond is backed by:
- Federal government guarantees
- Collateralized mortgage pools
- The issuing government's taxing power (Correct answer)
- Revenue from a specific project
Correct answer: The issuing government's taxing power
GO bonds are backed by the full taxing authority of the issuing municipality, making them generally less risky than revenue bonds.
Question 8: Which answer accurately sums up a margin account?
- Brokerage costs are not payable by investors.
- Brokers lend money to investors, who use it for trading. (Correct answer)
- Traders need to understand the minimum balance requirements.
- Investors make their stock portfolios more resilient.
Correct answer: Brokers lend money to investors, who use it for trading.
A margin account is a brokerage account that allows an investor to borrow money from their broker-dealer to purchase securities. The securities bought with the borrowed funds serve as collateral for the loan. This leverage can amplify returns but also increases potential losses, as investors are still responsible for repaying the loan plus interest, regardless of the investment's performance.
Question 9: Which type of stock gives shareholders priority over common stockholders when dividends are distributed?
- Convertible bonds
- Common stock
- Preferred stock (Correct answer)
- Warrants
Correct answer: Preferred stock
Preferred stockholders receive dividends before common stockholders and have priority in liquidation.
Question 10: A stock trading 'ex-rights' means the shares are trading:
- Without voting rights
- Without the right to receive the upcoming rights offering (Correct answer)
- Without dividend eligibility
- Without short-selling restrictions
Correct answer: Without the right to receive the upcoming rights offering
When stock trades ex-rights, buyers do not receive the subscription rights associated with the upcoming rights offering.
Question 11: A pattern day trader is defined as someone who executes how many or more day trades within five business days?
- 3
- 2
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 5
Correct answer: 4
FINRA Rule 4210 defines a pattern day trader as any customer who executes four or more day trades in five business days in a margin account.
Question 12: What information is required on a new account form under FINRA rules?
- Customer's name, address, tax ID, investment objectives, financial situation, and risk tolerance (Correct answer)
- Only the customer's name and tax ID
- References from two existing brokerage clients
- Only financial information verified by an accountant
Correct answer: Customer's name, address, tax ID, investment objectives, financial situation, and risk tolerance
FINRA requires firms to collect comprehensive customer information including personal details, financial profile, and investment objectives for suitability purposes.
Question 13: Rule 144 governs the sale of:
- Municipal bonds in the secondary market
- Exchange-listed options
- Foreign securities in US markets
- Restricted and control securities (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Restricted and control securities
SEC Rule 144 establishes the conditions under which restricted and control securities can be publicly resold without registration.
Question 14: The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 created the SEC and primarily regulates:
- New securities issuances
- Insurance products
- Secondary market trading and broker-dealers (Correct answer)
- Commodity futures markets
Correct answer: Secondary market trading and broker-dealers
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 governs secondary market trading, broker-dealers, exchanges, and established the SEC.
Question 15: The 'cooling off' period after filing a registration statement with the SEC typically lasts at least:
- 30 days
- 10 days
- 60 days
- 20 days (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 20 days
The SEC has a 20-day review period after an S-1 registration statement is filed before securities can be sold to the public.
Question 16: What is the term for a corporate action that increases the number of outstanding shares while reducing the price per share proportionally?
- Reverse stock split
- Forward stock split (Correct answer)
- Rights offering
- Stock dividend
Correct answer: Forward stock split
A forward stock split increases share count and lowers the price per share, keeping total market value the same.
Question 17: SIPC (Securities Investor Protection Corporation) protects investors against:
- Fraud committed by the issuer of securities
- Market losses from bad investments
- Broker-dealer insolvency and missing customer assets (Correct answer)
- Losses on options strategies
Correct answer: Broker-dealer insolvency and missing customer assets
SIPC covers up to $500,000 (including $250,000 in cash) per customer if a member broker-dealer becomes insolvent.
Question 18: At expiration, an option that is 'out of the money' will typically:
- Be automatically converted to shares
- Be exercised at a loss
- Be assigned to the seller
- Expire worthless (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Expire worthless
An out-of-the-money option has no intrinsic value at expiration and will expire worthless, causing the buyer to lose the premium.
Question 19: A discretionary account allows a broker to:
- Charge higher commissions than standard accounts
- Trade customer funds without prior approval for each transaction (Correct answer)
- Open accounts for minors without custodian approval
- Bypass suitability requirements
Correct answer: Trade customer funds without prior approval for each transaction
Discretionary accounts grant the broker written authority to make trades without contacting the customer for each decision.
Question 20: Under the Bank Secrecy Act, broker-dealers must file a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) when a customer conducts a cash transaction exceeding:
- $10,000 (Correct answer)
- $50,000
- $5,000
- $25,000
Correct answer: $10,000
The Bank Secrecy Act requires a CTR for any cash transaction exceeding $10,000, and structuring transactions to avoid this threshold is illegal.
Question 21: Under Regulation T, the initial margin requirement for purchasing equity securities is:
- 75%
- 100%
- 50% (Correct answer)
- 25%
Correct answer: 50%
Regulation T, set by the Federal Reserve, requires customers to deposit at least 50% of the purchase price of marginable securities.
Question 22: What is a Uniform Gifts to Minors Act (UGMA) account?
- A custodial account holding assets for a minor, managed by an adult custodian (Correct answer)
- A college savings account with tax benefits
- A trust account requiring court oversight
- A retirement account for minors
Correct answer: A custodial account holding assets for a minor, managed by an adult custodian
A UGMA account is a custodial account where an adult manages assets on behalf of a minor until the minor reaches adulthood.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of common stock?
- Limited liability
- Residual claim on assets
- Guaranteed dividend payments (Correct answer)
- Voting rights
Correct answer: Guaranteed dividend payments
Common stockholders are not guaranteed dividends; dividends are paid at the discretion of the board of directors.
Question 24: The process by which a company first sells shares to the public is known as a(n):
- Initial public offering (IPO) (Correct answer)
- Private placement
- Secondary offering
- Rights offering
Correct answer: Initial public offering (IPO)
An IPO is when a company sells its shares to the public for the first time, transitioning from a private to a public company.
Question 25: Which risk refers to the chance that a bond issuer will be unable to make interest or principal payments?
- Market risk
- Reinvestment risk
- Liquidity risk
- Credit (default) risk (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Credit (default) risk
Credit risk (also called default risk) is the risk that an issuer will fail to make timely interest or principal payments on its debt.
Question 26: Which of the following is considered a leading economic indicator?
- Average duration of unemployment
- Building permits issued (Correct answer)
- Prime interest rate
- Outstanding commercial loans
Correct answer: Building permits issued
Building permits are a leading indicator because they signal future construction activity and economic expansion before it occurs.
Question 27: Reg BI (Regulation Best Interest) requires broker-dealers to:
- Act only in a fiduciary capacity at all times
- Eliminate all sales commissions
- Act in the best interest of retail customers when making recommendations (Correct answer)
- Recommend only no-load mutual funds
Correct answer: Act in the best interest of retail customers when making recommendations
Reg BI requires broker-dealers to place retail customers' best interests first when making investment recommendations.
Question 28: Short selling requires investors to borrow securities because:
- SEC rules require collateral for all trades
- They must hold the securities for 30 days before selling
- They are selling securities they do not currently own (Correct answer)
- Short selling is only permitted on margin
Correct answer: They are selling securities they do not currently own
Short sellers borrow securities to sell them first, expecting to buy them back cheaper later and return the borrowed shares.
Question 29: When the Federal Reserve raises interest rates, what is the typical effect on existing fixed-rate bond prices?
- Bond prices increase
- Bond prices become uncorrelated with rates
- Bond prices decrease (Correct answer)
- Bond prices remain unchanged
Correct answer: Bond prices decrease
When interest rates rise, existing bonds paying lower fixed rates become less attractive compared to new bonds, causing their market prices to fall.
Question 30: When interest rates rise, what happens to the price of existing bonds?
- Bond prices rise
- Bond prices remain unchanged
- Bond prices become volatile but trend upward
- Bond prices fall (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bond prices fall
Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship; when rates rise, existing bonds with lower rates become less attractive, so their prices fall.
Question 31: Under the Bank Secrecy Act, currency transaction reports (CTRs) must be filed for cash transactions exceeding:
- $5,000
- $10,000 (Correct answer)
- $25,000
- $1,000
Correct answer: $10,000
Financial institutions must file a CTR for any single cash transaction or series of related transactions exceeding $10,000.
Question 32: What is a 'pink sheet' stock?
- A stock trading on the NYSE Amex exchange
- A preferred stock with a pink certificate
- An OTC security not listed on a formal exchange, typically with less regulatory oversight (Correct answer)
- A government bond issued by a foreign country
Correct answer: An OTC security not listed on a formal exchange, typically with less regulatory oversight
Pink sheet stocks trade over-the-counter outside major exchanges with minimal reporting requirements and less regulatory scrutiny.
Question 33: A churning violation occurs when a broker:
- Recommends the same security to multiple customers
- Trades securities at a loss to generate tax benefits
- Excessively trades a customer's account primarily to generate commissions (Correct answer)
- Delays execution of customer orders
Correct answer: Excessively trades a customer's account primarily to generate commissions
Churning is the unethical practice of excessive trading in a customer's account primarily to generate commissions for the broker.
Question 34: Under Regulation T, the Federal Reserve Board sets the initial margin requirement for purchasing equity securities at:
- 25%
- 50% (Correct answer)
- 75%
- 100%
Correct answer: 50%
Regulation T requires investors to deposit at least 50% of the purchase price of marginable securities at the time of purchase.
Question 35: The bid price in a security quote represents:
- The price at which a dealer will buy the security (Correct answer)
- The last traded price of the security
- The average of buy and sell prices
- The price at which a dealer will sell the security
Correct answer: The price at which a dealer will buy the security
The bid price is the highest price a buyer (dealer) is willing to pay to purchase the security from an investor.
Question 36: The National Best Bid and Offer (NBBO) rule requires broker-dealers to:
- Charge a minimum commission on all trades
- Execute all trades through the NYSE
- Execute customer orders at the best available prices across all exchanges (Correct answer)
- Route orders to the largest market maker
Correct answer: Execute customer orders at the best available prices across all exchanges
The NBBO rule requires broker-dealers to execute customer orders at the best available bid or offer price across all trading venues.
Question 37: An Initial Public Offering (IPO) occurs when a company:
- Declares its first dividend
- Issues bonds to the public for the first time
- Buys back shares from the public
- Lists its shares on a stock exchange for the first time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lists its shares on a stock exchange for the first time
An IPO is when a private company first offers its shares to the public on a stock exchange.
Question 38: An Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) differs from a mutual fund primarily because:
- ETFs actively manage their portfolios
- ETFs cannot hold stocks
- ETFs are only available to institutional investors
- ETFs trade on exchanges throughout the day like stocks (Correct answer)
Correct answer: ETFs trade on exchanges throughout the day like stocks
ETFs trade on exchanges continuously throughout the trading day at market prices, unlike mutual funds priced once at end of day.
Question 39: The Options Disclosure Document (ODD) titled 'Characteristics and Risks of Standardized Options' must be provided to customers:
- Annually thereafter
- Only when the customer requests it
- Before or at the time of opening an options account (Correct answer)
- Only after the first options trade is executed
Correct answer: Before or at the time of opening an options account
FINRA rules require the ODD be provided to customers before or at the time they open an options trading account.
Question 40: Blue chip stocks are generally characterized by:
- Small market capitalization and new companies
- Penny stock pricing under $5
- High volatility and high growth potential
- Large, well-established companies with stable earnings (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Large, well-established companies with stable earnings
Blue chip stocks represent financially stable, large-cap companies with long track records of reliable performance.
Question 41: What is accrued interest in bond trading?
- Interest earned since the last coupon payment, owed to the seller (Correct answer)
- The penalty for calling a bond early
- The premium paid above par value
- The discount below par value
Correct answer: Interest earned since the last coupon payment, owed to the seller
Accrued interest is the interest earned by the bond seller from the last coupon date to the settlement date, paid by the buyer.
Question 42: To combat rising inflation, the Federal Reserve would most likely:
- Lower the discount rate charged to member banks
- Sell government securities on the open market (Correct answer)
- Lower the reserve requirement for member banks
- Purchase government securities on the open market
Correct answer: Sell government securities on the open market
Selling government securities withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates, which slows inflation.
Question 43: The securities laws of any state in the union may be slightly different from the laws of other states. These state securities laws are most frequently referred to collectively as:
- Regulations in Series 63
- Blue-sky regulations (Correct answer)
- NASAA regulations
- The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Correct answer: Blue-sky regulations
The state securities laws in the United States, which regulate the offering and sale of securities within individual states to protect investors from fraud, are collectively referred to as 'blue-sky regulations.' These laws require the registration of securities, brokers, and dealers, and they mandate disclosures to ensure that investors have adequate information before making investment decisions. The term originated from a judge's comment about speculative schemes having 'no greater value than so many feet of blue sky.'
Question 44: Under FINRA's Best Execution rule, broker-dealers must:
- Seek the most favorable terms reasonably available for customer orders (Correct answer)
- Execute large orders before small ones
- Execute all trades on the NYSE
- Match any competitor's price
Correct answer: Seek the most favorable terms reasonably available for customer orders
Best execution requires broker-dealers to use reasonable diligence to find the most favorable terms for customer order execution.
Question 45: The Securities Act of 1933 primarily regulates:
- Investment adviser conduct
- Commodity futures trading
- The issuance of new securities in the primary market (Correct answer)
- Secondary market trading and exchanges
Correct answer: The issuance of new securities in the primary market
The Securities Act of 1933 focuses on new securities offerings, requiring registration and disclosure of material information.
Question 46: A joint tenancy with right of survivorship (JTWROS) account means:
- Owners can designate different beneficiaries for their share
- Each owner can only access their proportional share
- Upon one owner's death, their share passes to the surviving owner(s) (Correct answer)
- The account is subject to probate upon any owner's death
Correct answer: Upon one owner's death, their share passes to the surviving owner(s)
In a JTWROS account, when one owner dies, ownership automatically passes to the surviving account holder(s) outside of probate.
Question 47: Which of these situations requires the filing of a Form U5?
- For each of these situations, a Form U5 file would be necessary. (Correct answer)
- When an individual's registration is cancelled
- When a registered individual switches firms
- When a person who is registered retires
Correct answer: For each of these situations, a Form U5 file would be necessary.
A Form U5, or Uniform Termination Notice for Securities Industry Registration, must be filed whenever an individual's registration with a FINRA member firm is terminated for any reason. This includes situations such as resignation, retirement, being fired, or switching firms. The form provides essential information about the termination, including the reason, and is crucial for regulatory tracking of registered individuals.
Question 48: What must occur before a broker-dealer executes an options trade in a customer's account?
- The customer must be an accredited investor
- The customer must have a minimum of $100,000 in the account
- Options agreement must be signed and account must be approved for options trading (Correct answer)
- The trade must be approved by FINRA in advance
Correct answer: Options agreement must be signed and account must be approved for options trading
Options accounts require separate approval based on the customer's financial profile, and a signed options agreement before trading.
Question 49: Which of the following claims regarding broker-dealer staff is accurate?<br> I. All staff members are allowed to accept customer orders for securities subject to specific restrictions.<br> II. Customers' orders for securities may be accepted by staff members who have registered as securities dealers.<br> III. Customers' phone messages may be answered by non-registered staff members and forwarded to a registered representative for appropriate processing.<br> IV. In compliance with SEC guidelines, all workers who handle money or securities in any capacity are required to submit to fingerprinting.
- II and III alone
- Just I and II
- II, III, and IV exclusively (Correct answer)
- The aforementioned claims are all accurate.
Correct answer: II, III, and IV exclusively
Statement I is inaccurate because only registered representatives, not all staff members, are permitted to accept customer orders for securities. Statement II is correct as registered securities dealers (registered representatives) are authorized to accept customer orders. Statement III is also accurate; non-registered staff can perform administrative tasks like taking and forwarding messages, but they cannot solicit business or provide investment advice. Finally, Statement IV is correct, as SEC regulations mandate fingerprinting for all employees who handle money or securities to ensure security and prevent fraud.
Question 50: JCB Company owns 5000 shares of issued stock in addition to 1000 shares of treasury stock. The right amount of common stock is represented by which of the following?
- 5000
- 1000
- 6000
- 4000 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 4000
The amount of common stock outstanding refers to the shares currently held by investors, which are the shares that have been issued minus any shares the company has repurchased and holds as treasury stock. In this scenario, JCB Company has 5,000 shares of issued stock and 1,000 shares of treasury stock. Therefore, the number of outstanding common shares is 5,000 - 1,000 = 4,000 shares.
Question 51: What is the 'suitability' obligation under FINRA rules?
- Recommendations must be appropriate based on the customer's financial profile and objectives (Correct answer)
- All customers must be offered the same investment options
- Firms must offer the lowest-cost products available
- Brokers must guarantee a minimum return on recommendations
Correct answer: Recommendations must be appropriate based on the customer's financial profile and objectives
FINRA's suitability rule requires that investment recommendations be appropriate for the specific customer based on their financial situation and goals.
Question 52: What is the 'spread' in a securities quote?
- The commission charged by the broker
- The difference between the bid and ask prices (Correct answer)
- The difference between the stock's 52-week high and low
- The difference between par value and market price
Correct answer: The difference between the bid and ask prices
The spread is the difference between the ask price (what dealers sell at) and the bid price (what dealers buy at), representing the dealer's compensation.
Question 53: What does EPS (Earnings Per Share) measure?
- Total revenue divided by outstanding shares
- Book value per share
- Net income divided by total outstanding shares (Correct answer)
- Dividends paid per share
Correct answer: Net income divided by total outstanding shares
EPS is calculated by dividing a company's net income by the number of outstanding shares.
Question 54: A registered representative who moves from one broker-dealer to another must:
- File a Form ADV with the SEC
- Transfer registration via FINRA's CRD system (Correct answer)
- Wait 90 days before conducting business
- Surrender all licenses and start fresh
Correct answer: Transfer registration via FINRA's CRD system
Registered representatives transfer their FINRA registrations through the Central Registration Depository (CRD) when changing firms.
Question 55: A tenants in common (TIC) account differs from JTWROS in that:
- TIC accounts are only for retirement assets
- TIC owners must hold equal shares
- TIC accounts cannot be held by more than two people
- Each TIC owner's share passes to their estate upon death, not to co-owners (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Each TIC owner's share passes to their estate upon death, not to co-owners
In a TIC account, each owner's interest passes to their heirs through their estate, unlike JTWROS where it passes automatically to survivors.
Question 56: Which of the following describes the primary market?
- Where new securities are first issued to the public (Correct answer)
- Where investors trade securities among themselves
- Where securities are listed on exchanges
- Where derivatives contracts are created
Correct answer: Where new securities are first issued to the public
The primary market is where issuers sell new securities directly to investors, with proceeds going to the issuer.
Question 57: A variable annuity differs from a fixed annuity in that:
- Variable annuities guarantee a fixed monthly payment
- Variable annuities have no surrender charges
- Variable annuities are not regulated by the SEC
- Variable annuity returns depend on the performance of underlying investment subaccounts (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Variable annuity returns depend on the performance of underlying investment subaccounts
Variable annuity payouts fluctuate based on the performance of selected subaccounts, while fixed annuities pay a guaranteed amount.
Question 58: What is a power of attorney (POA) in a brokerage account context?
- A court order to freeze an account
- A permission form for options trading
- A document allowing a minor to trade independently
- A written authorization for a third party to act on the account owner's behalf (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A written authorization for a third party to act on the account owner's behalf
A power of attorney authorizes a designated person to make investment decisions and transactions for another person's account.
Question 59: Which options strategy profits when the underlying stock remains relatively flat?
- Long put
- Long call
- Long straddle
- Short straddle (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Short straddle
A short straddle (selling both a call and a put at the same strike) profits from low volatility when the stock stays near the strike price.
Question 60: An investor buys a Treasury bond in the secondary market from another investor. This transaction occurs on the:
- Primary market
- New issue market
- Third market
- Secondary market (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Secondary market
When securities trade between investors after the initial offering, those transactions occur on the secondary market.
Question 61: During which phase of the business cycle does unemployment typically reach its highest level?
- Trough (Correct answer)
- Peak
- Recovery
- Expansion
Correct answer: Trough
Unemployment peaks at the trough of the business cycle, the lowest point of economic activity, before the economy begins to recover.
Question 62: Which type of bond is backed by the full faith and credit of the US government?
- Agency bonds
- Municipal bonds
- US Treasury securities (Correct answer)
- Corporate bonds
Correct answer: US Treasury securities
US Treasury securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the federal government, making them the safest bonds.
Question 63: Cumulative preferred stock means that if a dividend is missed, it must be:
- Paid immediately by law
- Paid before any common dividends in the future (Correct answer)
- Converted to common stock
- Waived permanently
Correct answer: Paid before any common dividends in the future
Cumulative preferred dividends that are skipped accumulate as arrears and must be paid before any common dividends.
Question 64: Which of the following is a characteristic of preferred stock compared to common stock?
- Priority dividend payments (Correct answer)
- Higher potential capital appreciation
- Greater voting rights
- Greater liquidation risk
Correct answer: Priority dividend payments
Preferred stockholders receive dividends before common stockholders and have priority over common stockholders in liquidation.
Question 65: A rights offering allows existing shareholders to:
- Receive extra dividends
- Convert preferred shares to common shares
- Purchase additional shares at a discount before new investors (Correct answer)
- Sell their shares at a premium
Correct answer: Purchase additional shares at a discount before new investors
A rights offering gives existing shareholders the privilege to buy new shares at a discount to maintain their ownership percentage.
Question 66: Expansionary fiscal policy is best described as:
- Decreasing taxes and/or increasing government spending to stimulate the economy (Correct answer)
- The Federal Reserve selling Treasury securities to reduce the money supply
- Raising the federal funds rate to slow borrowing
- Increasing taxes and reducing government spending to reduce deficits
Correct answer: Decreasing taxes and/or increasing government spending to stimulate the economy
Expansionary fiscal policy uses lower taxes and/or higher government spending to inject money into the economy and stimulate growth, especially during recessions.
Question 67: Delta in options pricing measures:
- The rate of change in option price relative to time decay
- The implied volatility of the underlying stock
- The sensitivity of the option to interest rate changes
- The rate of change in option price per $1 change in the underlying asset (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The rate of change in option price per $1 change in the underlying asset
Delta measures how much an option's price changes for every $1 move in the underlying security's price.
Question 68: What is the key difference between open-end and closed-end mutual funds?
- Open-end funds invest only in stocks; closed-end invest in bonds
- Closed-end funds are only sold to institutions
- Open-end funds continuously issue new shares; closed-end have a fixed number of shares (Correct answer)
- Open-end funds trade on stock exchanges; closed-end do not
Correct answer: Open-end funds continuously issue new shares; closed-end have a fixed number of shares
Open-end funds (traditional mutual funds) create and redeem shares continuously, while closed-end funds issue a fixed number of shares traded on exchanges.
Question 69: Which of the following describes the risk of losing money on an investment as a result of changes in the economy?
- Risk of currency fluctuations
- Risk to equity
- Risk of interest rates
- Risk of the market (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Risk of the market
The risk of losing money on an investment as a result of changes in the overall economy is known as market risk, also referred to as systematic risk. This type of risk affects all investments in the market to some degree and cannot be eliminated through diversification. Factors like recessions, political instability, or changes in interest rates are examples of economic shifts that contribute to market risk.
Question 70: What is the primary market?
- Where investors trade securities among themselves
- The largest stock exchange by volume
- Where newly issued securities are sold for the first time (Correct answer)
- Where foreign securities are listed
Correct answer: Where newly issued securities are sold for the first time
The primary market is where new securities are first issued and sold, with proceeds going to the issuing company.
Question 71: A margin call is issued when:
- A broker wants to promote additional trading
- A stock in the account pays a dividend
- A customer exceeds the maximum position size
- The equity in a margin account falls below the maintenance margin requirement (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The equity in a margin account falls below the maintenance margin requirement
A maintenance margin call requires the customer to deposit additional funds when account equity drops below the maintenance requirement.
Question 72: When the Federal Reserve purchases government securities through open market operations, the effect on the money supply is:
- The money supply increases (Correct answer)
- The money supply decreases
- The money supply becomes more volatile but does not change in size
- The money supply remains unchanged
Correct answer: The money supply increases
When the Fed buys government securities, it pays for them by crediting bank accounts, injecting money into the banking system and increasing the money supply.
Question 73: What is the maximum loss for a buyer of a call option?
- Unlimited loss
- Loss of the underlying stock's full value
- The difference between market price and strike price
- The premium paid for the option (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The premium paid for the option
The maximum loss for an option buyer is limited to the premium paid, since the option can expire worthless.
Question 74: What is the primary purpose of the USA PATRIOT Act requirement for customer identification programs (CIP)?
- To prevent market manipulation
- To prevent tax evasion on investment gains
- To verify customer identity and prevent money laundering (Correct answer)
- To ensure customers meet accredited investor standards
Correct answer: To verify customer identity and prevent money laundering
CIP requirements under the PATRIOT Act require firms to verify customer identity to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
Question 75: What does Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure?
- The rate at which consumer prices are rising
- The average income of all citizens in a country
- The total market value of all goods and services produced in a country during a specific period (Correct answer)
- The total amount of government debt outstanding
Correct answer: The total market value of all goods and services produced in a country during a specific period
GDP measures the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period.
Question 76: Which of the following is the Federal Reserve's primary tool for implementing monetary policy?
- Controlling government spending levels
- Setting federal income tax rates
- Adjusting the federal funds rate (Correct answer)
- Imposing import tariffs on foreign goods
Correct answer: Adjusting the federal funds rate
The Federal Reserve primarily uses the federal funds rate — the rate at which banks lend to each other overnight — as its main tool to influence monetary conditions.
Question 77: A customer who has a complaint against a broker-dealer may seek arbitration through:
- The Supreme Court only
- The Department of Justice
- The Federal Trade Commission
- FINRA's dispute resolution forum (Correct answer)
Correct answer: FINRA's dispute resolution forum
FINRA operates a dispute resolution forum where investors can bring arbitration or mediation claims against broker-dealers.
Question 78: The discount rate is best defined as:
- The interest rate banks charge their most creditworthy corporate customers
- The yield on 90-day U.S. Treasury bills
- The rate at which the Federal Reserve lends money to member banks (Correct answer)
- The rate at which banks lend to each other overnight
Correct answer: The rate at which the Federal Reserve lends money to member banks
The discount rate is the interest rate the Federal Reserve charges commercial banks when they borrow directly from the Fed's discount window.
Question 79: Callable preferred stock allows the issuer to:
- Convert shares into bonds
- Redeem the shares at a specified price (Correct answer)
- Force conversion into common stock at any time
- Suspend dividends indefinitely
Correct answer: Redeem the shares at a specified price
Callable preferred stock can be redeemed (bought back) by the issuer at a predetermined call price.
Question 80: Under SEC Rule 144, how long must an affiliate hold restricted securities before selling them in the public market?
- 1 year
- 30 days
- 6 months (Correct answer)
- 2 years
Correct answer: 6 months
SEC Rule 144 requires affiliates to hold restricted securities for at least six months before selling them publicly.
Question 81: Which regulatory body oversees the securities markets and has broad authority to enforce federal securities laws?
- SEC (Correct answer)
- MSRB
- FINRA
- SIPC
Correct answer: SEC
The SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission) is the primary federal regulator with broad authority to enforce securities laws.
Question 82: Which document must be completed before a new brokerage account is opened?
- New Account Form (customer profile) (Correct answer)
- Regulation T margin agreement
- SIPC membership form
- Options Disclosure Document
Correct answer: New Account Form (customer profile)
A new account form collecting the customer's financial information, investment objectives, and risk tolerance must be completed before trading.
Question 83: What is the role of a market maker?
- To set the official closing price of securities
- To regulate trading activity on exchanges
- To provide liquidity by continuously quoting bid and ask prices (Correct answer)
- To execute trades only for institutional investors
Correct answer: To provide liquidity by continuously quoting bid and ask prices
Market makers provide liquidity by posting continuous bid (buy) and ask (sell) prices, profiting from the bid-ask spread.
Question 84: An organization makes $100,000 a year, but it also spends $75,000. The corporation has 10,000 issued shares and owes $7,000 to preferred shareholders. Regarding the value of each share, which of the following assertions is true?
- 10% of the company's stock is owned by investors, whose shares are worth at least $5,000.
- To enhance the value of the stock held by shareholders, the corporation ought to issue an additional 10,000 shares.
- Each share will be worth $2.20.
- The par value of non-preferred stockholders' shares will be $1.80. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The par value of non-preferred stockholders' shares will be $1.80.
To determine the value available to non-preferred (common) shareholders, first calculate the company's net income by subtracting expenses from revenue: $100,000 - $75,000 = $25,000. Next, subtract the preferred dividends from the net income, as preferred shareholders are paid first: $25,000 - $7,000 = $18,000. Finally, divide this amount by the number of issued common shares (10,000) to find the earnings per common share, which is $18,000 / 10,000 = $1.80.
Question 85: Options traded on US exchanges are standardized and guaranteed by which entity?
- FINRA
- SIPC
- Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) (Correct answer)
- The SEC
Correct answer: Options Clearing Corporation (OCC)
The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) acts as the issuer and guarantor for all US listed options contracts.
Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam
The FINRA Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam assesses basic knowledge of the securities industry, including types of products and their risks, the structure of the securities industry markets, and regulatory agencies and their functions. It is a corequisite for most FINRA representative-level qualification exams.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds