SAIWA Security Competency Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which of the following is a key technique for effective verbal communication when attempting to de-escalate a potentially volatile situation?
- Using active listening and acknowledging the other person's perspective. (Correct answer)
- Speaking loudly and authoritatively to assert control immediately.
- Interrupting the person frequently to correct their statements.
- Making direct and prolonged eye contact to show you are not intimidated.
Correct answer: Using active listening and acknowledging the other person's perspective.
Active listening (showing you are paying attention) and acknowledging the other person's perspective (e.g., 'I understand you are frustrated') are fundamental de-escalation techniques. They help to lower tension, build rapport, and open a channel for rational communication, making a peaceful resolution more likely.
Question 2: A security agent is offered a gift by a regular client after an event. What is the most ethical response?
- Accept it and share with colleagues
- Accept it quietly
- Demand a larger gift for better service
- Politely decline and explain company policy on gifts (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Politely decline and explain company policy on gifts
Professional ethics require declining gifts that could create a conflict of interest or perception of favouritism.
Question 3: After a security officer has lawfully apprehended a suspect for shoplifting, what is their single most important legal obligation?
- To determine the monetary value of the goods stolen.
- To deliver the suspect to a police officer as soon as is practicable. (Correct answer)
- To search the suspect's vehicle for other stolen goods.
- To obtain a full written confession from the suspect.
Correct answer: To deliver the suspect to a police officer as soon as is practicable.
Section 25(5) of the Criminal Investigation Act 2006 explicitly states that a person who makes a citizen's arrest must, as soon as practicable, arrange for a police officer to attend or take the suspect to a police officer. The security officer's role is to detain the individual until they can be handed over to the proper legal authority; investigation and processing are police functions.
Question 4: Who has authority to inspect a security company's premises and records under WA legislation?
- Federal police officers
- Only the company's auditors
- Authorised officers from WA Police Licensing Enforcement Division (Correct answer)
- Any member of the public
Correct answer: Authorised officers from WA Police Licensing Enforcement Division
Authorised officers from the Licensing Enforcement Division have broad inspection powers.
Question 5: Which principle requires a security agent to treat all members of the public equally regardless of their background?
- Duty of care
- Professional indemnity
- Impartiality and non-discrimination (Correct answer)
- Chain of command
Correct answer: Impartiality and non-discrimination
Impartiality and non-discrimination requires treating all people fairly without bias based on protected characteristics.
Question 6: How should a security agent communicate with a person who appears to have a hearing impairment?
- Shout louder
- Speak very slowly as if to a child
- Avoid communicating entirely
- Face the person directly, speak clearly, use gestures, and offer to write things down (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Face the person directly, speak clearly, use gestures, and offer to write things down
Facing the person directly allows lip-reading, clear speech aids understanding, and written communication provides an alternative.
Question 7: A security agent is offered overtime at a venue where a family member is manager. How should they handle this conflict of interest?
- Accept but promise impartiality
- Decline without explanation
- Disclose the conflict of interest to their employer and let management decide (Correct answer)
- Accept without disclosing the connection
Correct answer: Disclose the conflict of interest to their employer and let management decide
Conflicts of interest must be disclosed to the employer who can make an informed decision.
Question 8: A security agent discovers a colleague working without a valid licence. What is their responsibility?
- Report the matter to their supervisor immediately (Correct answer)
- Cover for the colleague
- Help the colleague apply for renewal
- It is not their concern
Correct answer: Report the matter to their supervisor immediately
Working with or knowingly allowing unlicensed security work can implicate others. Report immediately.
Question 9: Under Western Australia's Liquor Control Act 1988, on which of the following grounds can a crowd controller, who has been authorised in writing by the licensee, lawfully remove a person from a licensed venue?
- Only if the person has committed a serious criminal offence.
- For any reason the crowd controller deems appropriate at the time.
- If the person is violent, quarrelsome, disorderly, or intoxicated. (Correct answer)
- Only if specifically instructed to do so by a police officer present at the scene.
Correct answer: If the person is violent, quarrelsome, disorderly, or intoxicated.
Section 115 of the Liquor Control Act 1988 specifically empowers authorised persons, including crowd controllers with written authorisation, to remove individuals who are violent, quarrelsome, disorderly, or present in a state of intoxication.
Question 10: A security agent is required by the Security and Related Activities (Control) Regulations 1997 to maintain certain records. Which of the following is a prescribed record that must be kept?
- An incident register detailing any notable events. (Correct answer)
- A daily log of all staff meal breaks.
- A register of all visitors who enter the premises.
- A record of all verbal warnings given to the public.
Correct answer: An incident register detailing any notable events.
The Security and Related Activities (Control) Regulations 1997 specifically mandate the keeping of an Incident Register for both security agents and crowd control agents. This register is for recording details of any incident that occurs involving the agent or their employees.
Question 11: What legislative requirements apply to security agent uniforms in WA?
- Must wear police-style uniforms
- Only crowd controllers have requirements
- Uniforms must not be designed to be confused with police, military, or emergency service uniforms (Correct answer)
- No requirements exist
Correct answer: Uniforms must not be designed to be confused with police, military, or emergency service uniforms
WA legislation prohibits security uniforms from resembling police, military, or emergency service uniforms.
Question 12: What is the maximum penalty for performing security work without a valid licence in Western Australia?
- $50,000 fine or 2 years imprisonment
- $10,000 fine or 12 months imprisonment (Correct answer)
- Community service order only
- $5,000 fine
Correct answer: $10,000 fine or 12 months imprisonment
Operating as a security agent without a licence can attract fines up to $10,000 and imprisonment for up to 12 months.
Question 13: What responsibility does a licensed agent have regarding physical identification while on duty?
- No identification requirements
- Only carry ID if requested by police
- Must wear or carry security identification including licence number visibly while performing duties (Correct answer)
- Only a driver licence is required
Correct answer: Must wear or carry security identification including licence number visibly while performing duties
Agents must display or carry their security identification including licence number while performing security functions.
Question 14: To maximize the deterrent effect against opportunistic theft in a large, multi-level car park, what is the most effective patrol strategy a security officer should employ?
- Concentrating patrols only on the ground level near the main entrance and exits.
- Varying the patrol route, timing, and direction unpredictably throughout the shift. (Correct answer)
- Driving through the car park with flashing amber lights every hour on the hour.
- Performing a thorough foot patrol of each level at the start of the shift, then monitoring CCTV.
Correct answer: Varying the patrol route, timing, and direction unpredictably throughout the shift.
Predictable patrol patterns can be observed and exploited by criminals. A strategy that incorporates random timing, varied routes, and unpredictable direction makes it difficult for an offender to know when or where a security officer will be, thus creating a significantly stronger deterrent.
Question 15: In what circumstances can a security agent use force to prevent a person from leaving premises?
- Only during a lawful citizen's arrest where the person is attempting to escape (Correct answer)
- When a person has not paid a bill
- Whenever the employer requests
- When the person has been rude to staff
Correct answer: Only during a lawful citizen's arrest where the person is attempting to escape
Force to prevent departure is only justified during a lawful citizen's arrest where the person is escaping.
Question 16: A crowd controller identifies a patron carrying a concealed weapon at a venue entrance. What should they do?
- Confiscate the weapon and allow entry
- Refuse entry, maintain a safe distance, and immediately contact police (Correct answer)
- Ignore it if the patron seems calm
- Physically disarm the patron
Correct answer: Refuse entry, maintain a safe distance, and immediately contact police
Weapons require immediate refusal of entry, maintaining safe distance, and contacting police.
Question 17: In risk assessment, what does residual risk mean?
- Risk before any security measures
- Risk of agent being injured
- Risk of equipment failing
- The level of risk remaining after security controls and mitigation measures have been applied (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The level of risk remaining after security controls and mitigation measures have been applied
Residual risk is what remains after all identified controls and mitigations have been implemented.
Question 18: A security agent is asked by a client to provide confidential information about a former employee that was obtained during a previous assignment. Which principle of professional conduct is most relevant in this situation?
- Acting with integrity and honesty.
- Promoting the reputation of the security industry.
- Avoiding conflicts of interest.
- Maintaining client confidentiality. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maintaining client confidentiality.
The SAIWA Code of Ethics requires members to respect the relationship of confidence and trust with their principal and not disclose information learned during their duties without consent. Disclosing this information would be a direct breach of confidentiality.
Question 19: A client has hired a security company to guard a commercial building. An officer on patrol discovers a door that has been forced open after hours. According to their duties and legislative responsibilities, what is the MOST appropriate initial action for the officer to take?
- Enter the building immediately to search for intruders.
- Call the building manager directly to inform them of the unsecured door.
- Contact their supervisor or control room to report the situation and await instructions. (Correct answer)
- Lock the door to prevent the intruder from returning.
Correct answer: Contact their supervisor or control room to report the situation and await instructions.
The officer's primary duty is to observe, report, and ensure their own safety. Entering a potentially dangerous situation alone is risky. The standard and safest procedure is to immediately report the finding to their supervisor or control room. This allows for a coordinated and safe response, which will include notifying the police and the client.
Question 20: Which of the following actions would be considered a breach of the WA Security Industry Code of Conduct?
- Exchanging information and experience with other industry participants to improve the profession.
- Intentionally spreading false rumors about a competitor's business to gain an advantage. (Correct answer)
- Refusing to represent a client whose interests conflict with an existing client's, even after full disclosure.
- Reporting another licensed security agent for unethical practices to the regulator.
Correct answer: Intentionally spreading false rumors about a competitor's business to gain an advantage.
The WA Security Industry Code of Conduct and the SAIWA Code of Ethics both prohibit intentionally or maliciously injuring the professional reputation, prospects, or business of another person or member in the profession.
Question 21: A patron removed from a venue attempts to re-enter through a side entrance. What action should the crowd controller take?
- Allow re-entry as they may have calmed down
- Ignore them and focus on the main entrance
- Use physical force to prevent approach
- Deny re-entry, communicate firmly, and alert team members to monitor all access points (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Deny re-entry, communicate firmly, and alert team members to monitor all access points
Re-entry should be denied, the patron informed firmly, and all team members alerted.
Question 22: Before resorting to physical intervention, a security agent should first attempt:
- Verbal de-escalation and communication (Correct answer)
- Calling police immediately
- Evacuating all bystanders from the area
- Physical restraint to prevent escalation
Correct answer: Verbal de-escalation and communication
Verbal de-escalation is the preferred first step as it may resolve the situation without any physical contact.
Question 23: What training requirements apply to security agents working with electronic security systems?
- Relevant units covering installation, programming, and maintenance of electronic security equipment (Correct answer)
- No specific training
- A generic IT qualification
- Only the manufacturer's manual
Correct answer: Relevant units covering installation, programming, and maintenance of electronic security equipment
Agents working with electronic systems must complete specific competency units.
Question 24: Which training qualification must be completed before applying for a security agent licence in WA?
- Certificate II in Security Operations
- Bachelor of Criminology
- Certificate III in Security Operations or equivalent (Correct answer)
- Diploma of Security and Risk Management
Correct answer: Certificate III in Security Operations or equivalent
Applicants must complete a Certificate III in Security Operations or equivalent before applying.
Question 25: Which content area addresses technological advancements in security?
- Traditional communication methods.
- Social media management.
- Customer feedback systems.
- Surveillance and monitoring systems. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Surveillance and monitoring systems.
Technological advancements in security primarily manifest in sophisticated tools and systems designed to protect assets and monitor environments. Surveillance and monitoring systems, such as CCTV, access control, and alarm systems, are direct applications of technology to enhance security capabilities. These systems continuously evolve with new innovations like AI-powered analytics and integrated security platforms.
Question 26: When communicating over a two-way radio, the use of plain English and the phonetic alphabet (e.g., 'Alpha, Bravo, Charlie' for ABC) primarily serves to:
- Make the communication sound more official and impressive to clients.
- Ensure clarity and prevent misunderstandings, especially when signal quality is poor. (Correct answer)
- Keep the message content secret from unauthorized listeners.
- Fulfill a specific record-keeping requirement in the Security Regulations 1997.
Correct answer: Ensure clarity and prevent misunderstandings, especially when signal quality is poor.
The main purpose of professional radio procedure, including using plain English for brevity and the phonetic alphabet for spelling out critical information like names or vehicle registrations, is to ensure the message is understood correctly the first time. This is vital in noisy environments or when conveying precise information where errors could have serious consequences.
Question 27: What should a security agent assess when conducting a vehicle patrol of a car park?
- Vehicle security, suspicious persons, lighting conditions, and access point integrity (Correct answer)
- Only unauthorised vehicles
- Only the number of cars
- Only whether parking fees are paid
Correct answer: Vehicle security, suspicious persons, lighting conditions, and access point integrity
Car park patrols should cover vehicle security, suspicious activity, environmental conditions, and access point integrity.
Question 28: After making a citizen's arrest, the agent realises they may have the wrong person. What should they do?
- Pretend nothing happened
- Continue arrest and let police sort it out
- Release the person immediately, apologise, document the incident, and report to supervisor and police (Correct answer)
- Arrest someone else instead
Correct answer: Release the person immediately, apologise, document the incident, and report to supervisor and police
If the wrong person is arrested, release them immediately, apologise, and fully document the mistake.
Question 29: What information should a security agent gather before emergency services arrive?
- Estimated cost of property damage
- Names of everyone in the building
- Only witness names
- Nature of incident, number of casualties, hazards present, access routes, and actions already taken (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Nature of incident, number of casualties, hazards present, access routes, and actions already taken
Emergency services need information about the incident, casualties, hazards, access routes, and actions taken.
Question 30: Under the WA Criminal Code, what conditions must be met for a lawful citizen's arrest by a security agent?
- Written authorisation from property owner
- Any suspicion of wrongdoing
- Must find the person committing an indictable offence, use reasonable force, and hand them to police promptly (Correct answer)
- Two or more agents must be present
Correct answer: Must find the person committing an indictable offence, use reasonable force, and hand them to police promptly
Three conditions: witness an indictable offence, use only reasonable force, deliver to police without delay.
Question 31: What restrictions apply to body-worn cameras used by security agents under WA legislation?
- Only police can use them
- No restrictions
- Body-worn cameras are prohibited
- Must comply with the Surveillance Devices Act 1998, including restrictions on covert recording of private conversations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Must comply with the Surveillance Devices Act 1998, including restrictions on covert recording of private conversations
Body-worn cameras must comply with the Surveillance Devices Act 1998.
Question 32: What continuing professional development obligations exist for licensed security agents in WA?
- CPD is voluntary with no impact
- Must complete a university degree within 5 years
- No CPD obligations
- Must maintain current first aid and CPR, and may be required to complete additional training for licence conditions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Must maintain current first aid and CPR, and may be required to complete additional training for licence conditions
At minimum, agents must maintain first aid and CPR certifications, plus additional training as required.
SAIWA Security Competency Test
The SAIWA Security Competency Test assesses candidates seeking a security agent licence in Western Australia, covering WA security legislation, professional conduct, emergency response, and operational procedures.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds