FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Certificate — Unmanned Aircraft General (UAG) Knowledge Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which document provides the CTAF, tower, ground, and ATIS frequencies for a specific airport?

Chart Supplement (CS) / Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) (Correct answer)
FAA Order JO 7110.65
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) Table of Contents
VFR Sectional Chart legend only

Correct answer: Chart Supplement (CS) / Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

The Chart Supplement (formerly A/FD) lists all published frequencies for each airport including CTAF, tower, ground control, and ATIS.

Question 2: What is the required minimum visibility for UAS operations in Class G airspace during the day?

2 statute miles
3 statute miles (Correct answer)
1 statute mile
5 statute miles

Correct answer: 3 statute miles

For UAS operations in Class G airspace during the day, FAA Part 107 requires a minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles. This ensures that the remote pilot can maintain visual line of sight with the UAS and detect any potential hazards or obstacles in time to take evasive action. This visibility requirement is critical for safe operations in uncontrolled airspace.

Question 3: Why is it important to know a UAS's maximum wind speed rating before each flight?

It determines the maximum altitude at which the UAS can legally fly
FAA requires this information be filed in the NOTAM system
Operating beyond the wind rating can overpower the motors and cause loss of control (Correct answer)
Wind speed affects remote ID transmission range

Correct answer: Operating beyond the wind rating can overpower the motors and cause loss of control

If wind speed exceeds the rated maximum, the UAS cannot maintain position or attitude, and the pilot may lose directional control of the aircraft.

Question 4: A remote pilot certificate issued under Part 107 is valid for how long before recurrent knowledge must be demonstrated?

24 months (Correct answer)
It does not expire
12 months
36 months

Correct answer: 24 months

Remote pilot certificates do not expire, but currency requires passing the recurrent aeronautical knowledge test every 24 calendar months.

Question 5: A Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM) that restricts airspace around a stadium during a major sporting event is classified as a:

TFR under 14 CFR 91.145 (Correct answer)
NOTAM (D) permanent restriction
Prohibited area
Special Flight Rules Area

Correct answer: TFR under 14 CFR 91.145

Sporting event TFRs are established under 14 CFR 91.145, which specifically covers major sporting events and entertainment events.

Question 6: An RPAS pilot is operating in uncontrolled Class G airspace, far from any aerodrome. To maintain situational awareness of other air traffic, which frequency should the pilot monitor?

122.8 MHz
126.7 MHz (Correct answer)
The local aerodrome's MF
121.5 MHz

Correct answer: 126.7 MHz

The frequency 126.7 MHz is the universal air-to-air frequency used for general aviation traffic in uncontrolled Class G airspace in Canada where no other specific frequency is designated. Monitoring this frequency allows pilots to be aware of other aircraft in the vicinity.

Question 7: When calculating density altitude at a field elevation of 2,000 ft MSL with temperature 15°F above standard, the pilot should expect the aircraft to perform as if it were at approximately:

Above 2,000 ft MSL because higher temperature increases density altitude (Correct answer)
Below 2,000 ft MSL because hot air descends, reducing effective altitude
2,000 ft MSL, since field elevation equals density altitude
Exactly sea level, since 15°F above standard cancels the 2,000 ft elevation

Correct answer: Above 2,000 ft MSL because higher temperature increases density altitude

Temperature above standard increases density altitude above field elevation; the aircraft will perform as though it is at a higher altitude than the actual field elevation.

Question 8: A remote pilot receives a LAANC authorization for 200 feet in Class C airspace. The pilot then decides to fly at 300 feet. What is the regulatory outcome?

A violation; the pilot must operate within the authorized altitude (Correct answer)
Acceptable if no manned aircraft are visible
Allowed if the operation is completed in under 30 minutes
Permitted with verbal coordination with ATC

Correct answer: A violation; the pilot must operate within the authorized altitude

LAANC authorizations specify altitude ceilings; exceeding the authorized altitude constitutes a regulatory violation under Part 107.

Question 9: Which publication is the primary source for locating currently active TFRs before a sUAS flight?

Sectional aeronautical charts
FAA Advisory Circulars
FAA NOTAM Search system (notams.faa.gov) (Correct answer)
Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

Correct answer: FAA NOTAM Search system (notams.faa.gov)

TFRs are issued as NOTAMs and are searchable through the FAA NOTAM system at notams.faa.gov, which provides current, real-time data.

Question 10: Which action is REQUIRED before conducting commercial sUAS operations in Class D airspace?

Notify the nearest FSDO
Obtain a Part 107 waiver
File a NOTAM at least 24 hours in advance
Obtain ATC authorization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Obtain ATC authorization

Class D airspace is controlled airspace requiring ATC authorization via LAANC or DroneZone before operating.

Question 11: Under Part 107, who is responsible for ensuring a small UAS is in safe condition prior to flight?

The UAS manufacturer
The person who last inspected the aircraft
The visual observer
The remote pilot in command (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The remote pilot in command

The RPIC is responsible for conducting a preflight inspection and ensuring the sUAS is airworthy.

Question 12: On a clear night with calm winds, which type of fog is most likely to develop in low-lying areas and river valleys by early morning?

Frontal fog
Advection fog
Radiation fog (Correct answer)
Steam fog

Correct answer: Radiation fog

Radiation fog forms on clear, calm nights when the ground radiates heat away and cools the air near the surface below the dew point.

Question 13: A remote pilot's sUAS experiences a motor failure at 200 ft AGL over a suburban neighborhood. What is the FIRST priority?

Land immediately at the nearest open space regardless of obstacles
Call 911 to warn ground personnel
Guide the aircraft toward the least-populated area available (Correct answer)
Attempt to restart the motor while maintaining altitude

Correct answer: Guide the aircraft toward the least-populated area available

The primary duty is to minimize risk to people; steering toward the least-populated area reduces potential casualties.

Question 14: While operating an sUAS, a manned helicopter is spotted on a collision course. According to Part 107 right-of-way rules, what action must the remote pilot take?

Ascend rapidly to avoid the helicopter's rotor wash.
Maneuver to the right to pass the helicopter.
Maintain course and speed, as the more maneuverable aircraft should give way.
Give way to the helicopter, ensuring not to pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Give way to the helicopter, ensuring not to pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear.

14 CFR § 107.37 states that a small unmanned aircraft must yield the right of way to all aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch and reentry vehicles. The remote pilot must give way and ensure the sUAS is well clear of the other aircraft.

Question 15: Under what condition does Class E airspace typically begin at 700 feet AGL?

Near Class B airports
In the vicinity of airports with instrument approaches but no control tower (Correct answer)
Along federal airways
Everywhere in the contiguous U.S. except designated areas

Correct answer: In the vicinity of airports with instrument approaches but no control tower

Class E airspace beginning at 700 feet AGL, shown by a faded magenta vignette on charts, provides a transition area for IFR approaches at non-towered airports.

Question 16: A remote PIC must report an accident to the FAA within how many days if there is serious injury or property damage exceeding $500?

30 calendar days
72 hours
10 calendar days (Correct answer)
24 hours

Correct answer: 10 calendar days

Part 107 requires the remote PIC to report accidents involving serious injury or property damage over $500 (excluding the UAS itself) within 10 calendar days.

Question 17: Alert areas are depicted on sectional charts with what color boundary?

Magenta with hatching
Red
Magenta
Blue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Blue

Alert areas are outlined with a solid blue boundary on sectional charts, indicating areas with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity.

Question 18: A convective SIGMET is automatically issued when a thunderstorm cluster covers an area of at least:

500 square miles with severe embedded cells
3,000 square miles with cells affecting 40% of the area
Any area with confirmed lightning activity
1,000 square miles with cells affecting 40% of the area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1,000 square miles with cells affecting 40% of the area

Convective SIGMETs are issued for embedded thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms, or an area of thunderstorms covering at least 3,000 sq mi affecting 40% of the area — but the standard cluster threshold is 1,000 sq mi.

Question 19: How does an off-center payload mounted to the front of a multirotor affect its flight characteristics?

There is no effect as flight controllers automatically compensate without limits
Flight time will increase because forward CG improves aerodynamics
The aircraft will gain speed due to forward weight shift
The aircraft will tend to pitch nose-down and require corrective trim (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The aircraft will tend to pitch nose-down and require corrective trim

A forward-shifted center of gravity causes a nose-down pitch tendency, which the flight controller must constantly counteract, wasting power and reducing control authority.

Question 20: Thermal activity is most intense during which time period on a sunny day?

Midnight when atmospheric pressure is lowest
Just after sunrise when surface heating begins
Late evening as the ground retains heat
Early to mid-afternoon when ground heating is at its peak (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Early to mid-afternoon when ground heating is at its peak

Thermal updrafts peak in early to mid-afternoon when solar heating has warmed the surface to its daily maximum, maximizing convective energy.

Question 21: What is the effect of high-density altitude on drone performance?

Reduces performance and lift (Correct answer)
Increases battery efficiency
Improves lift and stability
No effect on drone performance

Correct answer: Reduces performance and lift

High-density altitude occurs when air is less dense, typically due to high temperatures, high humidity, or high elevation. Less dense air means there are fewer air molecules for the drone's propellers to push against, which reduces the efficiency of the propellers and the lift generated. This results in reduced engine performance, slower climb rates, and decreased overall flight efficiency for the drone.

Question 22: After a hard landing that damages the sUAS but causes no injury and $450 in damage to a fence, what is the remote pilot's FAA reporting obligation?

File a report because any property damage must be reported
File a report because the aircraft was damaged
No FAA report required because both thresholds are unmet (Correct answer)
File a report because the fence belongs to a third party

Correct answer: No FAA report required because both thresholds are unmet

Neither threshold is triggered: no person was seriously injured and property damage ($450) is below the $500 reporting limit.

Question 23: A remote pilot in command (RPIC) may transfer operational control to another certificated remote pilot:

Only with ATC approval
Only when below 200 ft AGL
At any time, as long as the other pilot assumes RPIC duties (Correct answer)
Never — the RPIC must maintain control at all times

Correct answer: At any time, as long as the other pilot assumes RPIC duties

Another certificated remote pilot may assume RPIC duties at any time during the operation.

Question 24: A remote pilot is operating a sUAS at an off-site location (away from any airport) and observes a low-flying crop duster approaching. What is the correct action?

Continue the mission since the pilot is below 400 feet and within regulations
Hold position and alert the crop duster via radio
Land the sUAS immediately or descend to the lowest safe altitude and move clear (Correct answer)
Climb the sUAS above 400 feet to avoid the crop duster

Correct answer: Land the sUAS immediately or descend to the lowest safe altitude and move clear

Agricultural aircraft often operate at very low altitudes; the remote pilot must always yield right-of-way and descend or land to avoid conflict.

Question 25: Which condition most significantly increases the risk of a remote PIC making a poor decision?

Having an experienced VO present during the flight
Mild fatigue combined with time pressure and unfamiliar airspace (Correct answer)
Operating a well-maintained aircraft with a full battery
Flying a familiar route in stable weather

Correct answer: Mild fatigue combined with time pressure and unfamiliar airspace

The combination of fatigue, urgency, and unfamiliar environment stacks multiple risk factors that compound the likelihood of errors in judgment.

Question 26: A client asks you to film a property located within the lateral boundaries of Class C airspace, but outside the surface area, at an altitude of 350 feet AGL. According to regulations, what is required to conduct this operation?

No authorization is needed as the operation is outside the surface area.
A transponder with altitude-reporting capability.
Authorization from ATC, which can be requested via LAANC. (Correct answer)
A waiver for operations over people.

Correct answer: Authorization from ATC, which can be requested via LAANC.

According to 14 CFR Part 107, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace without prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC). The Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (LAANC) system is the primary method for obtaining this authorization for flights under 400 feet.

Question 27: Which of the following is NOT a category of prohibited or restricted airspace that a remote pilot must avoid?

Prohibited areas (e.g., P-56 over Washington, D.C.)
Restricted areas during active hours
Alert areas
MOAs (Military Operations Areas) at all times (Correct answer)

Correct answer: MOAs (Military Operations Areas) at all times

MOAs are not prohibited for civil UAS at all times — they can be transited when inactive or with coordination, unlike prohibited areas which are always off-limits.

Question 28: What is the primary reason surface winds are typically lighter and more variable at sunrise compared to mid-afternoon?

Less convective mixing to bring down faster upper-level winds (Correct answer)
Frontal boundaries are closer to the surface at dawn
Higher pressure gradients at night
Increased Coriolis effect in morning hours

Correct answer: Less convective mixing to bring down faster upper-level winds

Daytime solar heating creates convective mixing that transports momentum from faster winds aloft down to the surface, strengthening surface winds.

Question 29: Density altitude is defined as pressure altitude corrected for:

Relative humidity only
Magnetic variation
Non-standard temperature (Correct answer)
Wind speed and direction

Correct answer: Non-standard temperature

Density altitude equals pressure altitude adjusted for temperature deviations from the standard atmosphere, which affects aircraft/drone performance.

Question 30: How does wind speed affect the power requirements of a hovering sUAS?

Wind reduces power requirements by providing lift from airflow over the rotors
Wind always reduces battery drain by cooling the motors
Wind has no effect on hovering power consumption
Wind increases power requirements as the flight controller makes constant corrections to maintain position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wind increases power requirements as the flight controller makes constant corrections to maintain position

Even in hover, wind forces the flight controller to continuously adjust motor speeds to maintain position, increasing average power consumption and reducing endurance.

Question 31: Which of the following correctly describes 'visual line of sight' (VLOS) under Part 107?

A visual observer may use binoculars and relay position to the pilot
VLOS is maintained as long as the UAS is tracked on a screen
The pilot must be able to see the UAS with unaided vision at all times (Correct answer)
The pilot may use binoculars to extend their unaided visual range

Correct answer: The pilot must be able to see the UAS with unaided vision at all times

VLOS requires the RPIC to maintain unaided visual contact with the UAS; binoculars and screens do not satisfy this requirement.

Question 32: Controlled firing areas (CFAs) differ from restricted areas in that CFAs:

Are not shown on sectional charts and require a NOTAM
Require a NOTAMs to be active
Extend to higher altitudes than restricted areas
Suspend activities immediately when a non-participating aircraft approaches (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Suspend activities immediately when a non-participating aircraft approaches

Unlike restricted areas, CFAs suspend their activities when non-participating aircraft approach, which is why they do not appear on sectional charts.

Question 33: Which action best demonstrates effective crew briefing before a sUAS flight?

Reviewing only the weather forecast as a team
Confirming the client's shot list with the VO
Verbally reviewing roles, hazards, lost-link procedures, and abort criteria with all crew (Correct answer)
Handing the VO a printed checklist and starting the flight

Correct answer: Verbally reviewing roles, hazards, lost-link procedures, and abort criteria with all crew

A thorough crew briefing covers individual roles, anticipated hazards, emergency procedures, and the criteria that would require aborting the mission.

Question 34: An sUAS manufacturer specifies a maximum gross weight of 3.5 lbs. The airframe weighs 2.8 lbs with a fully charged battery. What is the maximum allowable payload?

1.0 lbs
0.5 lbs
0.3 lbs
0.7 lbs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.7 lbs

Maximum allowable payload = maximum gross weight minus airframe weight: 3.5 - 2.8 = 0.7 lbs.

Question 35: A remote pilot observes that the Aviation Weather Center has issued an AIRMET Tango (AIRMET T). What hazard should the pilot expect?

Tropical cyclone development within 24 hours
Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds above 30 knots, or low-level wind shear (Correct answer)
IFR conditions and mountain obscuration
Icing conditions below 18,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds above 30 knots, or low-level wind shear

AIRMET Tango (T for Turbulence) covers moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more, and non-convective low-level wind shear.

Question 36: Which condition would most significantly degrade sUAS hovering efficiency?

Using propellers rated for the manufacturer's recommended RPM
Flying in calm wind conditions at sea level
Operating at high density altitude with maximum payload (Correct answer)
Flying over a paved surface

Correct answer: Operating at high density altitude with maximum payload

High density altitude means thinner air, requiring rotors to spin faster to generate the same lift, increasing power consumption and reducing hover efficiency.

Question 37: When operating an RPAS in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome that has a designated Mandatory Frequency (MF), which of the following actions is required?

Obtain a Special Flight Operations Certificate (SFOC) for all flights.
Monitor the frequency and broadcast intentions as required. (Correct answer)
Broadcast intentions only if another aircraft is visible.
Contact the control tower before entering the zone.

Correct answer: Monitor the frequency and broadcast intentions as required.

In a Mandatory Frequency (MF) area, pilots of radio-equipped aircraft are required to be equipped with a functioning radio and to make specific reports regarding their position and intentions on the designated frequency. This allows all traffic in the area to be aware of each other's movements.

Question 38: An sUAS with a rated maximum gross weight is operated at exactly that limit. How will any unexpected payload addition during flight (such as ice accumulation) affect the aircraft?

The aircraft will exceed its structural and power limits, risking loss of control (Correct answer)
No effect; the rated limit accounts for such variations
Performance improves because added weight stabilizes the platform
Ice accumulation only affects fixed-wing aircraft, not multirotors

Correct answer: The aircraft will exceed its structural and power limits, risking loss of control

Operating at the maximum gross weight leaves no margin, so any additional weight from ice, moisture, or unexpected cargo can exceed structural or power limits and cause a loss of control.

Question 39: A remote pilot in command is flying a construction inspection when a bystander walks into the operating area. Using the DECIDE model, the 'Detect' step means the pilot should:

Immediately land the drone
Notify the bystander verbally
Evaluate the bystander's distance before deciding anything
Recognize that a change has occurred that requires attention (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Recognize that a change has occurred that requires attention

In the DECIDE model, 'Detect' means recognizing that a deviation from the original plan or a new hazard has occurred.

Question 40: A remote PIC notices the Visual Observer (VO) seems distracted and is not scanning effectively. The best CRM action is to:

Immediately land and report the VO to the FAA
Verbally re-brief the VO on their scanning responsibilities and confirm readiness (Correct answer)
Continue the flight and monitor the VO's performance
Replace the VO with another crew member mid-flight

Correct answer: Verbally re-brief the VO on their scanning responsibilities and confirm readiness

Good CRM requires actively communicating expectations and ensuring all crew members are performing their duties before continuing operations.

Question 41: Under Part 107, dropping an object from a sUAS is:

Permitted only over unpopulated areas with a waiver
Permitted if done in a manner that does not create an undue hazard (Correct answer)
Prohibited in all circumstances
Prohibited unless the object is less than 1 lb

Correct answer: Permitted if done in a manner that does not create an undue hazard

Section 107.23 allows dropping objects as long as it does not create an undue hazard to persons, property, or other aircraft.

Question 42: Under Part 107, which authority can a remote pilot-in-command invoke to deviate from regulations in an in-flight emergency?

The waiver authority pre-approved by the FAA for that specific operation
The emergency authority is not available to remote pilots, only manned aircraft pilots
The emergency authority under 14 CFR 107.21 to the extent necessary to meet the emergency (Correct answer)
Any deviation authority granted by the ground crew

Correct answer: The emergency authority under 14 CFR 107.21 to the extent necessary to meet the emergency

14 CFR 107.21 grants remote PICs emergency authority to deviate from Part 107 to the minimum extent necessary to respond to the emergency.

Question 43: What does a 'TFR' stand for in airspace restrictions?

Traffic Flow Radius
Temporary Flight Restriction (Correct answer)
Tower Flight Rule
Terminal Flight Regulation

Correct answer: Temporary Flight Restriction

A TFR stands for Temporary Flight Restriction. TFRs are issued by the FAA to restrict aircraft (including UAS) from operating within a defined area for a specific period due to various reasons, such as natural disasters, VIP movements, major public events, or space launches. Drone pilots must always check for active TFRs before flying to ensure compliance and safety.

Question 44: The dew point spread (temperature minus dew point) is 2°F. This indicates:

A strong temperature inversion is present
Ideal conditions for drone operations with excellent visibility
Air that is nearly saturated, with high fog or low cloud risk (Correct answer)
Very dry air with low fog risk

Correct answer: Air that is nearly saturated, with high fog or low cloud risk

A small dew point spread means the air is close to saturation, greatly increasing the likelihood of fog or low cloud formation.

Question 45: An airport has a published traffic pattern altitude of 1,000 feet AGL. A remote pilot is authorized to fly at 400 feet AGL near the airport. Why must the pilot still be vigilant for manned aircraft?

Aircraft transitioning to and from the pattern, and those making straight-in approaches, may operate at or below 400 feet AGL (Correct answer)
Drones have legal priority below 500 feet AGL near airports
Manned aircraft always fly exactly at pattern altitude and never deviate
Pattern altitude applies only to jets, not piston aircraft

Correct answer: Aircraft transitioning to and from the pattern, and those making straight-in approaches, may operate at or below 400 feet AGL

Aircraft on straight-in approaches, departures, and transitioning in and out of the pattern may descend well below published pattern altitude, creating conflicts with sUAS operations.

Question 46: A sUAS remote pilot plans to operate near a Military Operations Area (MOA). What action is required?

No action required; MOAs only affect manned aircraft
Contact the controlling agency and exercise extreme caution due to high-speed military training (Correct answer)
Obtain a waiver from the FAA before flight
File a flight plan with the nearest FSS

Correct answer: Contact the controlling agency and exercise extreme caution due to high-speed military training

While sUAS are not explicitly prohibited from MOAs, pilots should contact the controlling agency and be aware of high-speed military aircraft activity.

Question 47: What is the FAA's LAANC system primarily used for in Part 107 operations?

Filing accident reports electronically
Registering UAS with the FAA
Obtaining near-real-time airspace authorization (Correct answer)
Applying for Part 107 waivers

Correct answer: Obtaining near-real-time airspace authorization

LAANC (Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability) provides near-real-time authorization to fly in controlled airspace.

Question 48: When planning a flight in a confined area with obstacles, which loading consideration is MOST critical?

Maximizing payload weight to justify the operational risk
Mounting sensors on the rear of the airframe only
Ensuring the UAS is painted a high-visibility color
Keeping the CG within limits to maintain maneuverability for obstacle avoidance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keeping the CG within limits to maintain maneuverability for obstacle avoidance

A CG within manufacturer limits ensures predictable and responsive handling needed to safely navigate around obstacles in confined spaces.

Question 49: A remote pilot is pressured by a client to complete a filming mission before approaching weather arrives. The pilot assesses the situation and feels they cannot control the approaching weather or the client's demands, so they agree to fly. This mindset is an example of which hazardous attitude?

Resignation (Correct answer)
Anti-authority
Macho
Impulsivity

Correct answer: Resignation

The hazardous attitude of Resignation is characterized by the feeling that one's actions do not matter or that they are helpless in a given situation, leading them to give up and accept unnecessary risks. In this scenario, the pilot is succumbing to external pressures because they feel they cannot influence the outcome. [14, 22]

Question 50: What is the primary goal of Crew Resource Management (CRM) / Single-pilot Resource Management (SRM) training?

To teach pilots how to maintain drones without technician support
To certify that a pilot can operate all drone models
To reduce errors by improving use of all available resources and teamwork (Correct answer)
To replace the DECIDE model with a faster decision process

Correct answer: To reduce errors by improving use of all available resources and teamwork

CRM/SRM training reduces human error by training pilots to effectively use resources including people, equipment, and information.

Question 51: Under Part 107, a remote pilot who has reason to question their own physical or mental fitness to fly should:

Notify ATC and continue
Continue the operation if it is already in progress
Halt operations until fit to safely fly (Correct answer)
Use their best judgment and proceed cautiously

Correct answer: Halt operations until fit to safely fly

The self-assessment duty under §107.17 requires the RPIC to not act as PIC when they are physically or mentally unfit.

Question 52: A remote pilot wants to operate a sUAS in a Warning Area over international waters 12 miles offshore. What restriction applies?

Flight is prohibited without a military escort
No restriction; warning areas do not carry regulatory authority over international waters (Correct answer)
Part 107 authorization is still required from the FAA
A TFR must be filed with the FAA before operations

Correct answer: No restriction; warning areas do not carry regulatory authority over international waters

Warning areas are established over international waters where the FAA has no regulatory jurisdiction, so they carry an advisory-only status.

Question 53: A remote pilot wants to fly a sUAS in Class D airspace. What is required before operations can begin?

Obtain prior authorization from the controlling ATC facility (Correct answer)
File a NOTAM with the FAA
Notify the nearest airport manager in writing
No action required if flying below 100 feet AGL

Correct answer: Obtain prior authorization from the controlling ATC facility

Class D airspace requires prior ATC authorization before sUAS operations, typically obtained via phone or LAANC.

Question 54: A remote pilot is operating a UAS on a hot summer day and notices sluggish motor response. The MOST likely cause is:

The remote controller is too far from the aircraft
Motor windings overheating, causing thermal protection throttle reduction (Correct answer)
The aircraft has entered a GPS compass calibration mode
The propellers are generating too much lift

Correct answer: Motor windings overheating, causing thermal protection throttle reduction

Excessive heat causes motor winding resistance to increase and activates thermal protection circuits, reducing available power and making the aircraft respond sluggishly.

Question 55: According to FAA guidelines, what minimum flight visibility is required for sUAS operations under 14 CFR Part 107?

2 statute miles
3 statute miles (Correct answer)
1 statute mile
5 statute miles

Correct answer: 3 statute miles

Part 107 requires a minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles from the control station, regardless of the operating altitude.

Question 56: During a Part 107 operation, a remote pilot-in-command delegates the visual observer role but retains which ultimate responsibility?

Filing a NOTAM before flight
Final authority over the safe conduct of the flight (Correct answer)
Maintaining visual line of sight from the launch point
Monitoring radio frequencies

Correct answer: Final authority over the safe conduct of the flight

The remote PIC retains final authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the UAS regardless of crew delegation.

Question 57: A remote pilot sees a NOTAM indicating a TFR established under 14 CFR 91.141. What activity does this TFR most likely protect?

A national disaster area
Flight of Presidential or other key government officials (Correct answer)
Aerial firefighting operations
A major sporting event

Correct answer: Flight of Presidential or other key government officials

TFRs established under 14 CFR 91.141 protect the airspace around VIP aircraft movements, such as the President or Vice President.

Question 58: What is the meaning of the radio phrase 'Negative' in ATC communications?

No, or permission is not granted, or that is not correct (Correct answer)
I did not receive your transmission
Do not acknowledge this transmission
Fly away from the current position

Correct answer: No, or permission is not granted, or that is not correct

'Negative' is used in aviation to mean 'no,' to deny permission, or to indicate that information is incorrect.

Question 59: A remote pilot is asked to fly a photographic mission but realizes the area is in Class D airspace without authorization. Feeling pressure from the client, the pilot flies anyway. This best illustrates:

Anti-authority attitude and plan continuation bias (Correct answer)
Invulnerability combined with external pressure
Proper risk management
Correct use of the 3P model

Correct answer: Anti-authority attitude and plan continuation bias

Disregarding airspace rules under client pressure reflects anti-authority (dismissing regulations) and plan continuation bias (proceeding despite a known hazard).

Question 60: The 'anti-authority' hazardous attitude is characterized by:

Over-reliance on technology instead of pilot judgment
Fear of making independent decisions
Excessive deference to rules and regulations
Resentment of rules and a belief that they do not apply to oneself (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Resentment of rules and a belief that they do not apply to oneself

Anti-authority pilots resent oversight and dismiss regulations, believing rules are for others or are unnecessary restrictions.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Certificate — Unmanned Aircraft General (UAG) Knowledge Test

The FAA Part 107 UAG Aeronautical Knowledge Test certifies remote pilots to legally fly small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially under 14 CFR Part 107, covering regulations, airspace, weather, and flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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