Question 1: Which quality improvement methodology uses 'Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control' phases?

• PDCA (Plan-Do-Check-Act)
• Lean methodology
• Six Sigma DMAIC (Correct answer)
• Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

Correct answer: Six Sigma DMAIC

Six Sigma's DMAIC methodology provides a structured data-driven approach to improving processes by defining the problem, measuring performance, analyzing root causes, implementing improvements, and controlling the new process.

Question 2: What is a key difference between a policy and a procedure in healthcare administration?

• A policy is legally binding; a procedure is optional
• A policy is for staff; a procedure is for patients
• A policy states what must be done and why; a procedure describes step-by-step how to do it (Correct answer)
• A policy covers clinical issues; a procedure covers administrative issues

Correct answer: A policy states what must be done and why; a procedure describes step-by-step how to do it

A policy establishes the organization's position and guiding principles on a topic (what and why), while a procedure provides specific step-by-step instructions for carrying out the policy (how).

Question 3: Under the 21st Century Cures Act, what are 'information blocking' practices?

• Practices that unreasonably interfere with the access, exchange, or use of electronic health information (EHI) (Correct answer)
• Blocking unauthorized users from accessing PHI
• Implementing encryption that slows data transmission
• Preventing data sharing with competitors

Correct answer: Practices that unreasonably interfere with the access, exchange, or use of electronic health information (EHI)

Information blocking under the 21st Century Cures Act refers to practices by health IT developers, networks, or providers that unreasonably restrict the access, exchange, or use of EHI.

Question 4: Which section of the acute care health record is legally required to be completed within 24 hours of admission?

• Consultation report
• Operative report
• History and physical (H&P) (Correct answer)
• Discharge summary

Correct answer: History and physical (H&P)

The history and physical must be completed within 24 hours of admission (or 30 days before) per Joint Commission standards.

Question 5: What kind of signature does HIPAA permit?

• Digitized
• Automatic
• Wet
• Electronic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Electronic

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) permits the use of electronic signatures, provided they meet specific security and authentication requirements to ensure their validity and integrity. This allowance facilitates digital workflows and the secure exchange of health information in a modern healthcare environment. While digitized signatures (scanned wet signatures) are a form of electronic signature, 'electronic' is the broader and more accurate term.

Question 6: What is a diagnosis-related group (DRG) used for in inpatient reimbursement?

• Grouping inpatient cases to set a fixed Medicare payment rate (Correct answer)
• Assigning outpatient procedure codes
• Calculating physician productivity
• Determining outpatient visit complexity

Correct answer: Grouping inpatient cases to set a fixed Medicare payment rate

DRGs group inpatient hospital cases with similar clinical characteristics and resource use to establish a fixed prospective payment rate under Medicare.

Question 7: When an exploratory laparotomy is performed then a therapeutic procedure, the coder reports this information in ICD-9-CM.

• Cardinality
• Attributes
• Schema mapping (Correct answer)
• Normalization

Correct answer: Schema mapping

When an exploratory laparotomy is performed followed by a therapeutic procedure, the coder reports this information in ICD-9-CM by assigning codes for both procedures. In the context of health information systems, 'Schema mapping' refers to the process of defining how data elements from one data model (e.g., clinical documentation of procedures) are translated and stored according to another data model (e.g., the database schema used for ICD-9-CM codes). This ensures that the coded information about both procedures is correctly captured and linked within the system.

Question 8: What is the purpose of role-based access control (RBAC) in an EHR system?

• Allow all staff to view any record needed
• Grant system access permissions based on a user's job function rather than individual identity (Correct answer)
• Log all system activity for audit purposes
• Encrypt data during transmission

Correct answer: Grant system access permissions based on a user's job function rather than individual identity

RBAC restricts EHR access by assigning permissions based on defined job roles, ensuring users can only access the information necessary to perform their duties.

Question 9: What is the chargemaster (charge description master) in a hospital's revenue cycle?

• The master patient index
• A billing software system
• A comprehensive file of services, procedures, and their associated charges and codes (Correct answer)
• A list of all credentialed physicians

Correct answer: A comprehensive file of services, procedures, and their associated charges and codes

The chargemaster is a comprehensive file containing all hospital services, procedures, supplies, and associated billing codes and charges used to generate claims.

Question 10: What does "variance" mean in project management jargon?

• The difference between the original project plan (in terms of work, cost, and schedule estimates) and the actual progress or revised estimates (Correct answer)
• The scope-limiting statements
• The process of making actual progress and the remaining efforts from project team members
• The requests for changes to the original project scope

Correct answer: The difference between the original project plan (in terms of work, cost, and schedule estimates) and the actual progress or revised estimates

In project management, 'variance' refers to the quantifiable difference between what was originally planned (e.g., in terms of budget, schedule, or scope) and the actual performance or revised estimates. Analyzing variances is crucial for identifying deviations from the project baseline, understanding their impact, and implementing corrective actions to keep the project on track.

Question 11: The Alphabetic Index in ICD-10-CM serves what primary function?

• Contains official coding guidelines and conventions
• Lists all valid procedure codes in sequence
• Directs the coder to the appropriate code or range in the Tabular List (Correct answer)
• Provides the final, definitive code to report on the claim

Correct answer: Directs the coder to the appropriate code or range in the Tabular List

The Alphabetic Index is a starting reference tool used to locate potential codes, but the Tabular List must always be consulted to verify the final code selection.

Question 12: What is the significance of the CC/MCC designation in the MS-DRG system?

• It identifies cases requiring clinical documentation improvement
• It defines the patient's primary insurance payer
• Secondary diagnoses coded as complications or comorbidities affect DRG assignment and payment level (Correct answer)
• It determines the admitting physician's billing rate

Correct answer: Secondary diagnoses coded as complications or comorbidities affect DRG assignment and payment level

In the MS-DRG system, secondary diagnoses designated as complications (CC) or major complications/comorbidities (MCC) can move a case to a higher-weighted, better-reimbursed DRG.

Question 13: What is the purpose of abstracting data from health records?

• Extracting specific data elements for databases, reporting, or analysis (Correct answer)
• Summarizing records for legal proceedings
• Creating abbreviated records for emergency access
• Removing outdated information from active records

Correct answer: Extracting specific data elements for databases, reporting, or analysis

Abstracting involves extracting specific data elements from health records to populate databases used for reporting, research, and quality improvement.

Question 14: Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following does NOT require patient authorization for disclosure?

• Disclosure to a marketing firm
• Disclosure for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations (TPO) (Correct answer)
• Disclosure to a researcher without a waiver
• Disclosure of psychotherapy notes

Correct answer: Disclosure for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations (TPO)

The HIPAA Privacy Rule permits disclosure of PHI without patient authorization for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations (TPO) activities.

Question 15: What is the primary purpose of performance improvement (PI) initiatives in health information management?

• Increase physician billing rates
• Reduce staff headcount to lower costs
• Systematically identify and correct processes that do not meet quality or efficiency standards (Correct answer)
• Satisfy accreditation requirements only

Correct answer: Systematically identify and correct processes that do not meet quality or efficiency standards

PI initiatives systematically analyze processes, identify root causes of deficiencies, implement changes, and monitor results to improve quality and efficiency.

Question 16: What is the purpose of the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)?

• Prevent improper payment of procedures that should not be billed together (Correct answer)
• Assign DRG weights for inpatient stays
• Set hospital charge rates
• Establish ICD-10 coding guidelines

Correct answer: Prevent improper payment of procedures that should not be billed together

NCCI edits prevent Medicare from paying for procedure code combinations that should not be billed together due to bundling or mutually exclusive coding rules.

Question 17: What is a key responsibility of an HIM director related to the medical staff?

• Conduct peer review of clinical outcomes
• Credential physicians for clinical privileges
• Educate and support physicians on documentation requirements and record completion (Correct answer)
• Approve physician compensation packages

Correct answer: Educate and support physicians on documentation requirements and record completion

The HIM director educates and collaborates with physicians on documentation standards, coding requirements, and timely record completion to support compliance and reimbursement.

Question 18: In healthcare, what does the term 'span of control' refer to in organizational management?

• The authority a manager has to approve expenditures
• The number of subordinates a manager directly supervises (Correct answer)
• The range of departments a manager oversees
• The geographic area a manager's team covers

Correct answer: The number of subordinates a manager directly supervises

Span of control refers to the number of direct reports a manager supervises, which affects the management structure and workload of supervisory staff.

Question 19: All lab results from one hospitalization must be rapidly compared by a health record analyst. The paper-based health record design that works well for this objective is

• problem-oriented
• integrated (Correct answer)
• source-oriented (Correct answer)
• integrated

Correct answer: integrated

The integrated health record design works well for rapidly comparing all lab results from one hospitalization. In an integrated record, all forms and documents, regardless of their source (e.g., physician notes, nursing notes, lab results), are arranged in strict chronological order. This chronological flow allows a health record analyst to easily review and compare all lab results sequentially, providing a comprehensive overview of the patient's laboratory data over time.

Question 20: What is the function of a job description in HIM department management?

• Authorize employee access to the EHR system
• Track employee attendance and leave balances
• Define the duties, qualifications, and reporting relationships for a specific position (Correct answer)
• Set salaries for each position

Correct answer: Define the duties, qualifications, and reporting relationships for a specific position

A job description defines the essential functions, qualifications, responsibilities, and reporting structure for a specific position, serving as a foundation for hiring, evaluation, and legal compliance.

Question 21: What is the purpose of the present on admission (POA) indicator in hospital billing?

• Indicate whether a condition existed at the time of admission to differentiate from hospital-acquired conditions (Correct answer)
• Confirm patient insurance coverage at admission
• Identify patients admitted through the emergency department
• Flag high-cost DRGs for utilization review

Correct answer: Indicate whether a condition existed at the time of admission to differentiate from hospital-acquired conditions

The POA indicator identifies whether a diagnosis was present at admission, which affects Medicare payment and quality reporting by distinguishing hospital-acquired conditions.

Question 22: Which HIPAA-required safeguard type includes policies, training, and workforce management procedures?

• Technical safeguards
• Operational safeguards
• Administrative safeguards (Correct answer)
• Physical safeguards

Correct answer: Administrative safeguards

Administrative safeguards under the HIPAA Security Rule include security management processes, workforce training, contingency planning, and other policy-driven controls.

Question 23: In the MS-DRG system, a Major Complication or Comorbidity (MCC) does what compared to a CC?

• Typically results in higher reimbursement than a CC (Correct answer)
• Has less clinical severity than a CC
• Results in lower reimbursement than a CC
• Does not affect DRG assignment

Correct answer: Typically results in higher reimbursement than a CC

MCCs represent the highest severity of illness and resource use among secondary diagnoses, resulting in higher DRG relative weights and reimbursement compared to CCs.

Question 24: Edward was diagnosed with congestive heart failure and acute pulmonary edema when he was released from the hospital. Edward's record is being coded by you, and you will code

• the edema only
• both the CHF and the edema; sequence the edema first
• the CHF only (Correct answer)
• both the CHF and the edema; sequence the CHF first

Correct answer: the CHF only

When a patient is discharged with both congestive heart failure (CHF) and acute pulmonary edema, and the pulmonary edema is a direct manifestation or complication of the CHF, the CHF is coded as the principal diagnosis. Acute pulmonary edema is a common symptom of decompensated CHF, so the underlying CHF is considered the primary reason for the hospitalization. Therefore, only the CHF is coded as the principal diagnosis, with acute pulmonary edema as a secondary diagnosis.

Question 25: What is the primary purpose of SNOMED CT in healthcare?

• Classifying causes of death
• Providing a comprehensive clinical terminology for EHR documentation (Correct answer)
• Encoding laboratory reference ranges
• Billing and reimbursement coding

Correct answer: Providing a comprehensive clinical terminology for EHR documentation

SNOMED CT (Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine Clinical Terms) is a comprehensive clinical terminology used within EHRs to encode clinical concepts for documentation and data exchange.

Question 26: What is the purpose of grouper software in inpatient hospital coding?

• Generate explanation of benefits (EOB) documents
• Calculate patient financial responsibility
• Verify HIPAA compliance of claims
• Assign the appropriate DRG based on coded diagnoses and procedures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assign the appropriate DRG based on coded diagnoses and procedures

Grouper software analyzes coded diagnosis and procedure data to automatically assign the appropriate MS-DRG, which determines the Medicare payment amount.

Question 27: Which health record documentation standard requires that every entry be authenticated by the responsible provider?

• Joint Commission standard
• HIPAA Privacy Rule
• CMS Conditions of Participation (Correct answer)
• HL7 specification

Correct answer: CMS Conditions of Participation

CMS Conditions of Participation mandate that all health record entries be authenticated by the provider responsible for the care documented.

Question 28: What is a compliance audit in a health information management context?

• A review of patient satisfaction data
• An annual financial audit of hospital accounts
• A systematic review of coded claims and documentation to assess accuracy and regulatory compliance (Correct answer)
• A HIPAA security vulnerability assessment

Correct answer: A systematic review of coded claims and documentation to assess accuracy and regulatory compliance

A compliance audit in HIM systematically reviews coded claims and supporting documentation to identify errors, inconsistencies, and potential regulatory violations.

Question 29: In ICD-10-CM, the 7th character 'A' for fracture codes indicates the encounter is:

• Subsequent encounter for fracture with routine healing
• Initial encounter for active treatment of the fracture (Correct answer)
• An encounter for an open fracture only
• Sequela of the fracture

Correct answer: Initial encounter for active treatment of the fracture

The 7th character 'A' designates an initial encounter, used while the patient is receiving active treatment for the fracture, regardless of whether the provider is seeing the patient for the first time.

Question 30: The MS-DRG system is used to classify inpatient cases primarily for which payer?

• Medicare (Correct answer)
• TRICARE
• Commercial insurance
• Medicaid

Correct answer: Medicare

Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Groups (MS-DRGs) are used by Medicare under the Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) to determine hospital reimbursement.

Question 31: Which leadership style involves making all decisions without seeking input from the team?

• Transformational leadership
• Laissez-faire leadership
• Autocratic (authoritarian) leadership (Correct answer)
• Democratic (participative) leadership

Correct answer: Autocratic (authoritarian) leadership

Autocratic leadership involves the leader making decisions unilaterally without seeking team input, which can be efficient in crisis situations but may reduce employee engagement.

Question 32: What is the purpose of a retention schedule for health records?

• Set documentation completion timelines
• Define who can access patient records
• Assign ownership of health data
• Establish how long records must be kept before destruction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Establish how long records must be kept before destruction

A retention schedule establishes the minimum time health records must be retained before they can be legally and safely destroyed.

Question 33: Which type of health information system is designed specifically to track and manage cancer diagnoses across a population?

• Master patient index
• Cancer registry information system (Correct answer)
• Picture archiving and communication system (PACS)
• Clinical decision support system

Correct answer: Cancer registry information system

Cancer registry information systems capture, manage, and report cancer case data including diagnosis, treatment, and outcomes for surveillance and research purposes.

Question 34: What is a database management system (DBMS) used for in healthcare information systems?

• Creating, managing, and querying structured data stored in databases (Correct answer)
• Processing insurance claims only
• Generating medical images
• Scanning paper documents

Correct answer: Creating, managing, and querying structured data stored in databases

A DBMS allows healthcare organizations to create, organize, retrieve, and manage structured data stored in relational or other database formats.

Question 35: A Present on Admission (POA) indicator of 'N' means the condition was:

• Not present at the time of inpatient admission (Correct answer)
• Exempt from POA reporting
• Present at the time of inpatient admission
• Clinically undetermined at admission

Correct answer: Not present at the time of inpatient admission

POA indicator 'N' (No) signifies that the condition was not present at the time of admission and developed during the inpatient stay.

Question 36: In EHR implementation, what does the term 'interoperability' mean?

• The process of converting paper records to digital format
• The backup and recovery capabilities of an EHR system
• The ability of different information systems to exchange and use health data meaningfully (Correct answer)
• The ability of a system to perform without downtime

Correct answer: The ability of different information systems to exchange and use health data meaningfully

Interoperability is the ability of disparate health information systems to exchange, interpret, and use shared data in a coordinated and meaningful way.

Question 37: What does the prefix "99" stand for in the number "99-0001" listed in a tumor registry accession register?

• the year the case was entered into the database of the registry
• the stage of the tumor based upon the TNM system of staging
• the number of primary cancers reported for that patient
• the sequence number of the case

In tumor registries, accession numbers are typically structured to include the year the case was first entered into the registry, followed by a sequential number for that year. Therefore, '99' in '99-0001' indicates that the case was accessioned in the year 1999. This system helps in organizing and tracking cases chronologically within the registry database.

Question 38: Which document serves as the primary source for ICD-10-CM diagnosis code assignment for inpatient records?

• Physician's orders
• Insurance card
• Nursing notes
• Discharge summary (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Discharge summary

The discharge summary provides the physician's final assessment of the patient's conditions, making it the primary source for inpatient diagnosis code assignment.

Question 39: Which of the following is not a part of the EMTALA regulations?

• Every patient arriving at the emergency department must receive an appropriate "medical screening exam."
• Non-Medicare indigent patients must be transferred to the nearest level-1 trauma center (Correct answer)
• Transfers of non-stabilized patients must only occur under certain specific conditions.
• If an emergency medical condition exists, the hospital must treat and stabilize that condition or transfer the patient.

Correct answer: Non-Medicare indigent patients must be transferred to the nearest level-1 trauma center

EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act) mandates that hospitals provide a medical screening exam and stabilizing treatment for emergency conditions, regardless of a patient's ability to pay or insurance status. It does not dictate specific transfer destinations based on a patient's indigence or Medicare status, but rather focuses on appropriate transfers when stabilization is not possible. The other options are core requirements of EMTALA.

Question 40: Which term describes an incomplete health record that has not been finalized within the facility's required timeframe?

• Suspended record
• Delinquent record (Correct answer)
• Pending record
• Deficient record

Correct answer: Delinquent record

A delinquent record is one that remains incomplete beyond the facility's defined completion timeframe, typically 30 days post-discharge.

Question 41: Which ICD-10-CM convention indicates that two codes may be required to fully describe a condition?

• Includes note
• Excludes1
• Use additional code (Correct answer)
• Code also

Correct answer: Use additional code

'Use additional code' instructs the coder to assign a secondary code to provide more complete information about the condition or its manifestation.

Question 42: Which coding guideline requires that the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission is sequenced first?

• Complication sequencing rule
• Principal diagnosis definition (Correct answer)
• Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set rule
• Present on Admission rule

Correct answer: Principal diagnosis definition

The principal diagnosis is defined as the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission to the hospital, per the UHDDS definition.

Question 43: What is the purpose of a staffing model in HIM department management?

• Define continuing education requirements for staff
• Assign on-call schedules for coding staff
• Set compensation levels for all staff positions
• Determine the number and mix of staff needed to meet workload demands efficiently (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Determine the number and mix of staff needed to meet workload demands efficiently

A staffing model determines the appropriate number and skill mix of staff required to meet departmental workload demands within productivity and budget parameters.

Question 44: Which type of data would be found in a secondary health record but NOT a primary health record?

• Physician progress notes
• Discharge summaries
• Aggregate statistical reports (Correct answer)
• Operative reports

Correct answer: Aggregate statistical reports

Secondary records, such as aggregate statistical reports, are derived from primary patient records and used for administrative, research, or regulatory purposes.

Question 45: In the revenue cycle, what does 'clean claim' mean?

• A claim with zero patient liability
• A claim approved by the compliance officer
• A claim submitted on paper rather than electronically
• A claim that passes all edits and requires no additional information for processing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A claim that passes all edits and requires no additional information for processing

A clean claim is one that passes all front-end and payer edits and contains all required information, allowing it to be processed without delay or additional requests.

Question 46: In healthcare quality management, what does the term 'sentinel event' refer to?

• A near-miss incident with no patient harm
• An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or risk thereof (Correct answer)
• A patient complaint filed with administration
• A scheduled quality audit

Correct answer: An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or risk thereof

A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious harm to a patient, or a situation that risks such outcomes, requiring immediate investigation and response.

Question 47: What is required for a valid HIPAA-compliant authorization for release of PHI?

• Patient's insurance card as proof of identity
• Written signed authorization with required elements including expiration date and right to revoke (Correct answer)
• A physician's written order
• Verbal consent witnessed by two staff members

Correct answer: Written signed authorization with required elements including expiration date and right to revoke

A valid HIPAA authorization must be written, signed, and include required elements such as a description of PHI, purpose, expiration date, and notice of the right to revoke.

Question 48: What is the Stark Law (Physician Self-Referral Law) designed to prevent?

• Physicians from referring patients to entities in which they have a financial relationship, unless an exception applies (Correct answer)
• Hospitals from owning physician practices
• Physicians from accepting gift cards from patients
• Physicians from practicing in multiple states

Correct answer: Physicians from referring patients to entities in which they have a financial relationship, unless an exception applies

The Stark Law prohibits physicians from referring Medicare/Medicaid patients to entities with which the physician or immediate family member has a financial relationship, unless a specific exception applies.

Question 49: What type of health record format organizes documentation by care provider discipline?

• Problem-oriented medical record (POMR)
• Source-oriented medical record (Correct answer)
• Integrated medical record
• Hybrid medical record

Correct answer: Source-oriented medical record

The source-oriented medical record organizes documentation by the discipline or department that created it, such as nursing notes, physician notes, and lab reports kept separately.

Question 50: What is a business associate agreement (BAA) under HIPAA?

• An employment agreement for HIM staff handling PHI
• A contract requiring vendors to use only approved EHR software
• An insurance agreement covering HIPAA violation fines
• A written contract requiring business associates to appropriately safeguard PHI they access on behalf of a covered entity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A written contract requiring business associates to appropriately safeguard PHI they access on behalf of a covered entity

A BAA is a written contract between a covered entity and a business associate that requires the business associate to protect PHI and comply with applicable HIPAA requirements.

Question 51: What is a Medicare Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC) audit designed to identify?

• Fraud only
• Physician credentialing violations
• HIPAA privacy breaches
• Underpayments and overpayments in Medicare claims (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Underpayments and overpayments in Medicare claims

RAC auditors identify both improper overpayments and underpayments in Medicare claims submitted by healthcare providers.

Question 52: What is the purpose of an organizational chart in a healthcare department?

• Visualize patient flow through care settings
• Map out the physical layout of department workstations
• Display individual employee performance metrics
• Illustrate the formal authority, reporting relationships, and structure of the organization or department (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Illustrate the formal authority, reporting relationships, and structure of the organization or department

An organizational chart visually represents the formal hierarchy, reporting relationships, and structural arrangement of positions within an organization or department.

Question 53: There has been an alleged security breach. What idea best captures the procedure for gathering evidence?

• Security incident
• Forensics (Correct answer)
• Risk assessment
• Security event

Correct answer: Forensics

Forensics, specifically digital forensics, is the systematic process of identifying, preserving, recovering, analyzing, and presenting facts about digital information. In the context of a security breach, forensic investigation is essential for gathering evidence, determining the cause and extent of the breach, and supporting any necessary legal or disciplinary actions.

Question 54: Under HIPAA, what are the four tiers of civil money penalties for violations?

• Warning, fine, suspension, exclusion
• Unknowing violation, reasonable cause, willful neglect corrected, willful neglect not corrected (Correct answer)
• Minor, moderate, major, critical
• Level 1, Level 2, Level 3, Level 4

Correct answer: Unknowing violation, reasonable cause, willful neglect corrected, willful neglect not corrected

HIPAA civil penalties are tiered based on culpability: unknowing violation, reasonable cause, willful neglect that is corrected, and willful neglect that is not corrected — with escalating penalty amounts.

Question 55: Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) programs primarily aim to achieve which goal?

• Increase the length of hospital stays
• Ensure physician documentation accurately reflects the patient's clinical condition for coding (Correct answer)
• Eliminate the need for health information management coders
• Reduce the number of physician queries submitted

Correct answer: Ensure physician documentation accurately reflects the patient's clinical condition for coding

CDI programs work prospectively to ensure that physician documentation is complete, accurate, and specific enough to support precise coding and appropriate reimbursement.

Question 56: What is the function of a data dictionary in a health information system?

• Translate medical terms into lay language for patients
• Map ICD codes to DRG groups
• Encrypt patient data for transmission
• Define the structure, format, and meaning of all data elements stored in a database (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Define the structure, format, and meaning of all data elements stored in a database

A data dictionary defines and standardizes all data elements in a system, including their names, formats, allowable values, and relationships to ensure consistent data use.

Question 57: Which type of EHR system architecture allows software to be accessed via web browser rather than installed locally?

• Peer-to-peer architecture
• Cloud-based (SaaS) architecture (Correct answer)
• Client-server architecture
• Mainframe architecture

Correct answer: Cloud-based (SaaS) architecture

Cloud-based (Software as a Service) EHR systems are hosted remotely and accessed via web browser, eliminating the need for local software installation and on-site servers.

Question 58: Which coding system is used exclusively for inpatient hospital procedure coding under HIPAA?

• CPT
• CDT
• ICD-10-PCS (Correct answer)
• HCPCS Level II

Correct answer: ICD-10-PCS

ICD-10-PCS (Procedure Coding System) is mandated by HIPAA for reporting inpatient hospital procedures on institutional claims.

Question 59: What is benchmarking in the context of HIM operations?

• Establishing charge rates for health information services
• Setting the minimum passing score on coding certification exams
• Measuring individual employee output against their prior performance only
• Comparing an organization's performance metrics against industry standards or best practices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Comparing an organization's performance metrics against industry standards or best practices

Benchmarking compares an organization's performance data against external standards, peer organizations, or industry best practices to identify gaps and improvement opportunities.

Question 60: The data should reflect the monthly admissions to five different units over the course of the previous year, according to the utilization review committee of a hospital. Which of the following data display methods would be most effective?

• Stem and leaf plot
• Pie chart
• Line chart (Correct answer)
• Histogram

Correct answer: Line chart

A line chart is the most effective data display method for showing trends over time, especially when comparing multiple categories simultaneously. In this scenario, it can clearly illustrate the monthly admission patterns for each of the five different units over the course of a year, allowing for easy visualization of changes and comparisons between units.

Question 61: What does the AHIMA Code of Ethics require of health information management professionals?

• Protect patient privacy, ensure data integrity, and act with honesty and professional competence (Correct answer)
• Follow only state laws when they differ from federal HIPAA requirements
• Disclose all patient information requested by employers regardless of HIPAA
• Maximize reimbursement for the employing organization above all else

Correct answer: Protect patient privacy, ensure data integrity, and act with honesty and professional competence

The AHIMA Code of Ethics requires HIM professionals to protect patient privacy, ensure data accuracy and integrity, maintain professional competence, and act with honesty.

Question 62: Under the Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS), which arrangement is prohibited?

• A hospital employing full-time physicians on salary
• Participating in a Medicare ACO
• Providing free educational seminars to medical staff
• Offering remuneration to induce referrals of items or services covered by federal health programs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Offering remuneration to induce referrals of items or services covered by federal health programs

The AKS prohibits knowingly offering, paying, soliciting, or receiving remuneration to induce or reward referrals of items or services reimbursable by federal healthcare programs.

Question 63: Which meaningful use criterion under the HITECH Act required providers to demonstrate electronic exchange of health information?

• Summary of care record at transitions (Correct answer)
• Computerized physician order entry (CPOE)
• Patient portal access
• Electronic prescribing (eRx)

Correct answer: Summary of care record at transitions

Providing a summary of care record at transitions of care was a core meaningful use objective requiring providers to electronically transmit records when referring or transferring patients.

Question 64: What is the primary role of accreditation by The Joint Commission for a healthcare facility?

• Provide voluntary external validation that a facility meets established patient care and safety standards (Correct answer)
• Certify that a facility is profitable
• License healthcare workers in the facility
• Determine Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement rates

Correct answer: Provide voluntary external validation that a facility meets established patient care and safety standards

Joint Commission accreditation is a voluntary process that provides external validation that a facility meets rigorous performance and patient safety standards.

Question 65: Which HIPAA provision requires covered entities to provide patients with a list of certain disclosures made of their PHI?

• Right to an accounting of disclosures (Correct answer)
• Right to access
• Right to amend
• Right to restrict disclosures

Correct answer: Right to an accounting of disclosures

The right to an accounting of disclosures requires covered entities to provide patients with a list of certain disclosures made outside of TPO purposes upon request.

Question 66: Which outpatient coding guideline states that uncertain diagnoses (e.g., 'possible,' 'probable') should NOT be coded?

• ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for outpatient coding (Correct answer)
• UHDDS principal diagnosis rule
• Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set guideline
• AHIMA outpatient coding guidelines

Correct answer: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for outpatient coding

Per the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines, outpatient/physician coders should report conditions to the highest degree of certainty and not code uncertain or probable diagnoses.

Question 67: Which prospective payment system is used to reimburse hospital outpatient services under Medicare?

• Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) (Correct answer)
• MS-DRG system
• Home Health PPS
• Resource-Based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS)

Correct answer: Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS)

The Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) uses Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) to reimburse Medicare hospital outpatient services.

Question 68: When a patient is admitted as an inpatient following an outpatient procedure that results in a complication, which diagnosis is sequenced as principal?

• The condition with the highest DRG weight
• The complication that caused the inpatient admission (Correct answer)
• The patient's most chronic condition
• The original reason for the outpatient procedure

Correct answer: The complication that caused the inpatient admission

When an outpatient procedure leads to a complication requiring inpatient admission, the complication is sequenced as the principal diagnosis because it is the condition chiefly responsible for the admission.

Question 69: Continuous record reviews are a crucial technique for guaranteeing data quality by using accurate medical records. These evaluations assess

• completeness, adequacy, and quality of documentation (Correct answer)
• adverse effects and contraindications of drugs utilized during hospitalization
• potentially compensable events
• quality of care through the use of pre-established criteria

Correct answer: completeness, adequacy, and quality of documentation

Continuous record reviews are a fundamental quality assurance process in healthcare. Their primary purpose is to systematically evaluate the completeness, adequacy, and overall quality of patient health record documentation. This ensures that the information is accurate, reliable, and meets established standards for patient care, legal requirements, and billing integrity.

Question 70: You are completing a complete facility inventory of all currently in use forms in preparation for a HER. For bar coding and indexing into a document management system, each form needs a name. The nameless document in front of you describes tissue removed during surgery from a microscopic perspective. You are most likely to submit a document of the following type to this form:

• recovery room record
• operative report
• discharge summary
• pathology report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: pathology report

A pathology report is the official document generated by a pathologist after examining tissue or fluid samples (e.g., biopsies, surgical specimens) under a microscope. It details the microscopic findings, provides a diagnosis, and includes other relevant information about the tissue, precisely matching the description of a document describing tissue from a microscopic perspective.

Question 71: In healthcare project management, what does a Gantt chart display?

• Project tasks, timelines, and task dependencies in a bar chart format (Correct answer)
• Budget allocation by department
• Risk probability and impact matrix
• Organizational hierarchy and reporting structure

Correct answer: Project tasks, timelines, and task dependencies in a bar chart format

A Gantt chart is a project management tool that displays project tasks as horizontal bars against a timeline, showing durations, sequences, and dependencies.

Question 72: A coding compliance audit that compares coded data against the source documentation is called a:

• Retrospective audit (Correct answer)
• Concurrent audit
• Validation audit
• Prospective audit

Correct answer: Retrospective audit

A retrospective audit is conducted after the patient is discharged, reviewing the coded data against the medical record documentation to identify coding errors.

Question 73: The standards for collecting patient data differ depending on the setting for healthcare. Among the data elements you could anticipate being gathered in the MDS but not in the UHDDS is

• cognitive patterns (Correct answer)
• principal diagnosis
• procedures and dates
• personal identification

Correct answer: cognitive patterns

The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is a standardized assessment tool used in long-term care settings, such as nursing homes, to comprehensively assess residents' health, functional status, and cognitive abilities. Cognitive patterns are a critical component of the MDS to evaluate a resident's mental status and guide care planning, whereas the UHDDS (Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set) focuses on acute care inpatient data like diagnoses and procedures.

Question 74: Who is considered a 'covered entity' under HIPAA?

• Health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers that transmit PHI electronically (Correct answer)
• Any company that employs healthcare workers
• All US businesses with more than 50 employees
• Only federal government health agencies

Correct answer: Health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers that transmit PHI electronically

HIPAA covered entities include health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers (hospitals, physicians, etc.) that transmit PHI electronically for covered transactions.

Question 75: The Cooperating Parties responsible for maintaining the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines include all of the following EXCEPT:

• AHIMA
• CMS
• AMA (Correct answer)
• AHA

Correct answer: AMA

The four Cooperating Parties for ICD-10-CM are AHIMA, AHA, CMS, and NCHS — the AMA maintains CPT codes and is not one of the ICD-10-CM cooperating parties.

Question 76: Which organization is responsible for developing and maintaining the HL7 FHIR standard?

• Health Level Seven International (HL7) (Correct answer)
• The American Medical Association (AMA)
• The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
• The American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)

Correct answer: Health Level Seven International (HL7)

Health Level Seven International (HL7) develops and maintains the FHIR standard and other health data exchange standards used globally.

Question 77: In healthcare analytics, what is the difference between a data warehouse and a transactional database?

• A data warehouse stores real-time clinical data; a transactional database stores historical data
• A data warehouse is paper-based; a transactional database is electronic
• A data warehouse integrates historical data from multiple sources for analysis; a transactional database supports day-to-day operations (Correct answer)
• A data warehouse is only used for billing; a transactional database is only for clinical data

Correct answer: A data warehouse integrates historical data from multiple sources for analysis; a transactional database supports day-to-day operations

A data warehouse aggregates historical, integrated data from multiple operational systems to support complex reporting and analysis, while transactional databases are optimized for real-time operational tasks.

Question 78: What must a covered entity do when a breach of unsecured PHI affects 500 or more individuals in a state?

• Notify only the affected individuals within 30 days
• Notify HHS only within 60 days
• Notify affected individuals, HHS, and prominent media outlets in the affected state within 60 days (Correct answer)
• File a police report and notify HHS annually

Correct answer: Notify affected individuals, HHS, and prominent media outlets in the affected state within 60 days

For breaches affecting 500 or more individuals in a state, covered entities must notify affected individuals, HHS, and prominent media outlets in that state within 60 days of discovery.

Question 79: When should a coder initiate a physician query?

• Whenever the coder disagrees with the physician's treatment plan
• When clinical indicators suggest a diagnosis that is not documented (Correct answer)
• Only after the patient has been discharged
• When the physician has provided too many diagnoses

Correct answer: When clinical indicators suggest a diagnosis that is not documented

Queries should be generated when clinical indicators in the record support a diagnosis that the physician has not explicitly documented, to ensure complete and accurate coding.

Question 80: What is the purpose of a system downtime procedure in a healthcare facility?

• Archive old patient records
• Upgrade EHR software overnight
• Train new staff on EHR use
• Maintain patient care operations and data integrity when electronic systems are unavailable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain patient care operations and data integrity when electronic systems are unavailable

Downtime procedures ensure patient care can continue safely and records can be captured manually when EHR or other critical systems become unavailable.

Question 81: Special precautions must be taken to prevent the stamp from being used by a delegate when personal signature stamps are used to authenticate entries in a paper-based record. Similar controls might be used to control the usage of electronic medical records in a fully computerized patient record system.

• expert systems.
• fingerprint signatures
• electronic signatures (Correct answer)
• voice recognition systems

Correct answer: electronic signatures

In a fully computerized patient record system, electronic signatures serve the same purpose as personal signature stamps in paper-based records: to authenticate entries. Similar to controlling the use of a physical stamp, robust controls for electronic signatures, such as unique user IDs, passwords, and audit trails, are crucial to ensure the integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation of entries and prevent unauthorized use or delegation.

Question 82: ICD-10-PCS codes differ from ICD-10-CM codes in that they are used to classify what?

• Inpatient procedures performed in a hospital (Correct answer)
• Physician office evaluation and management services
• Diagnoses for outpatient encounters
• Durable medical equipment claims

Correct answer: Inpatient procedures performed in a hospital

ICD-10-PCS (Procedure Coding System) is used exclusively to code inpatient procedures performed in hospital settings, while ICD-10-CM is used for diagnoses.

Question 83: Known or suspected prenatal abnormalities affecting the mother codes from category 655 should

• be assigned at the discretion of the physician
• never be assigned
• be assigned if the fetal conditions are documented
• be assigned when they affect the management of the mother (Correct answer)

Correct answer: be assigned when they affect the management of the mother

In ICD-9-CM coding, categories like 655 (Known or suspected fetal abnormality affecting management of mother) are assigned when the fetal condition directly impacts the management or care provided to the mother during pregnancy, childbirth, or the puerperium. The key criterion is that the fetal abnormality influences the clinical decisions or interventions for the mother, not merely its presence.

Question 84: Which standard governs the electronic exchange of clinical health information between systems in the US?

• ANSI X12
• HL7 FHIR (Correct answer)
• UB-04
• ICD-10-CM

Correct answer: HL7 FHIR

HL7 FHIR (Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources) is the current leading standard for electronic clinical health information exchange in the US.

Question 85: Which revenue cycle function is responsible for verifying patient eligibility before services are rendered?

• Charge capture
• Patient access / pre-registration (Correct answer)
• Medical coding
• Accounts receivable follow-up

Correct answer: Patient access / pre-registration

Patient access (pre-registration) verifies insurance eligibility and benefits before or at the time of service to prevent claim denials due to coverage issues.

Question 86: The full report of a patient's fall from his bed, including witness accounts and likely causes of the incident, must be located by a risk manager. She would probably discover this data in the

• nurses’ notes
• incident report (Correct answer)
• integrated progress notes
• doctors’ progress notes

Correct answer: incident report

An incident report is a formal document used in healthcare facilities to record details of an unexpected event, such as a patient fall, that could potentially lead to harm or liability. It typically includes witness accounts, contributing factors, and follow-up actions, making it the primary source for a risk manager investigating such an event.

Question 87: Which of the following correctly describes the 'Excludes2' note in ICD-10-CM?

• It replaces the 'Excludes1' note in all circumstances
• It indicates the code is invalid for reporting
• The excluded condition is not included here but may be reported together if both conditions exist (Correct answer)
• The excluded code can never be used with the code above it

Correct answer: The excluded condition is not included here but may be reported together if both conditions exist

Excludes2 means the excluded condition is not included in the code but it is acceptable to assign both codes together when the patient has both conditions simultaneously.

Question 88: Acute care service providers are less likely than ambulatory care providers to depend on the documentation contained in the

• interdisciplinary patient care plan
• problem list (Correct answer)
• discharge summary
• transfer record

Correct answer: problem list

While problem lists are valuable in all settings, ambulatory care providers often rely heavily on a comprehensive and up-to-date problem list to manage chronic conditions and long-term patient health over multiple visits. In acute care, the focus is often on the immediate, presenting problem and stabilization, making the problem list less central to daily acute decision-making compared to the detailed, ongoing management in an outpatient setting.

Question 89: What is the purpose of strategic planning in a healthcare organization?

• Approve annual department budgets
• Schedule day-to-day patient appointments
• Manage individual employee performance reviews
• Define the organization's long-term goals, priorities, and resource allocation to achieve its mission (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Define the organization's long-term goals, priorities, and resource allocation to achieve its mission

Strategic planning defines an organization's long-term direction, prioritizes initiatives, and allocates resources in alignment with the organization's mission and environmental factors.

Question 90: What is the difference between structured and unstructured data in electronic health records?

• Structured data is entered by physicians; unstructured by nurses
• Structured data uses predefined fields; unstructured includes free-text narratives (Correct answer)
• Structured data is stored in paper form; unstructured is digital
• Structured data is confidential; unstructured is public

Correct answer: Structured data uses predefined fields; unstructured includes free-text narratives

Structured data uses predefined fields and formats (like checkboxes or coded values), while unstructured data includes free-text narratives such as clinical notes.

Question 91: What does the term 'legal health record' define?

• The subset of health information disclosed in response to legal requests (Correct answer)
• All records stored in the EHR system
• Records signed by an attorney
• Records subpoenaed by a court

Correct answer: The subset of health information disclosed in response to legal requests

The legal health record is the organization-defined subset of health information that is disclosed in response to legal requests such as subpoenas.

Question 92: Several days after having surgery to treat an intervertebral disk injury, a patient who had been admitted for treatment also had a fever and urinary tract infection. The urinary tract infection in this instance would be categorized as:

• Community-acquired infection
• Community sickness
• Hospital sickness
• Healthcare-associated infection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Healthcare-associated infection

A healthcare-associated infection (HAI), also known as a nosocomial infection, is an infection acquired by a patient during the course of receiving medical care in a healthcare setting. Since the patient developed the urinary tract infection several days after being admitted for surgery, it is highly probable that the infection was acquired within the hospital environment, making it an HAI rather than community-acquired.

Question 93: What is a clinical decision support (CDS) system?

• A system for scheduling patient appointments
• Software that provides evidence-based alerts and recommendations to clinicians at the point of care (Correct answer)
• An HR platform for provider credentialing
• A financial tool for insurance claim submission

Correct answer: Software that provides evidence-based alerts and recommendations to clinicians at the point of care

CDS systems deliver evidence-based alerts, reminders, and recommendations within the EHR to support clinical decision-making at the point of care.

Question 94: Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) are used under which Medicare payment system?

• Skilled Nursing Facility PPS
• Home Health PPS
• Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS)
• Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS)

APCs are the basis of payment under the Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), grouping outpatient services with similar clinical characteristics and resource use.

Question 95: In ICD-10-CM, what is a combination code?

• A code that applies to both inpatient and outpatient settings
• A single code that captures both a condition and an associated manifestation or cause (Correct answer)
• A placeholder code used with 7-character codes
• A code used when two procedures are performed together

Correct answer: A single code that captures both a condition and an associated manifestation or cause

A combination code is a single ICD-10-CM code that classifies both a condition and its associated etiology, manifestation, or complication in one code.

Question 96: When a HIM professional disseminates medical data that would inevitably lead to genetic prejudice, they are breaking the ethical rule of:

• Nonmaleficence (Correct answer)
• Beneficence
• Autonomy
• Justice

Correct answer: Nonmaleficence

Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of 'do no harm.' Disseminating medical data that could lead to genetic prejudice directly harms the patient by potentially causing discrimination or other negative consequences. A HIM professional has an ethical obligation to protect patient information and prevent its misuse, upholding the principle of nonmaleficence.

Question 97: In health informatics, what does the acronym LOINC stand for?

• Laboratory Organized Information Nomenclature Classification
• Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes (Correct answer)
• Licensed Outpatient Integrated Nomenclature Codes
• Lab and Outpatient Index of Numerical Classifications

Correct answer: Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes

LOINC (Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes) is a universal standard for identifying laboratory and clinical observations in health records and exchanges.

Question 98: What is the primary purpose of the master patient index (MPI) in a healthcare facility?

• Manage insurance billing
• Store clinical documentation
• Assign diagnosis codes
• Uniquely identify and track each patient across encounters (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Uniquely identify and track each patient across encounters

The MPI serves as the definitive source for uniquely identifying and tracking every patient across all visits and departments within a facility.

Question 99: In health information management, what is the purpose of a deficiency analysis?

• Review patient safety incidents
• Identify incomplete or missing health record documentation (Correct answer)
• Audit coding accuracy
• Assess physician credentialing

Correct answer: Identify incomplete or missing health record documentation

Deficiency analysis identifies incomplete, missing, or unauthenticated entries in health records so they can be completed within required timeframes.

Question 100: What is the primary purpose of a health information exchange (HIE)?

• Manage hospital billing and claims processing
• Enable secure electronic sharing of patient health information among providers and organizations (Correct answer)
• Store all patient records in a single national database
• Replace EHR systems with a centralized platform

Correct answer: Enable secure electronic sharing of patient health information among providers and organizations

An HIE enables the secure, authorized electronic sharing of patient health information among different healthcare organizations to support coordinated care.

Question 101: What is upcoding in medical billing?

• Updating the chargemaster annually
• Converting diagnosis codes to procedure codes
• Correcting previously submitted codes
• Submitting codes for a higher level of service than was actually provided (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Submitting codes for a higher level of service than was actually provided

Upcoding is a fraudulent practice of billing for a higher-paying service or diagnosis than what was actually provided or documented.

Question 102: Taking the following actions would be a good first step in ensuring the security of the data in a health information computer system:

• define levels of security for different types of information, depending on sensitivity (Correct answer)
• provide remote terminals for improved access to the record
• establish a good record tracking system
• provide internet access to facility records

Correct answer: define levels of security for different types of information, depending on sensitivity

A crucial first step in securing data is to classify information based on its sensitivity and criticality. Defining different levels of security for various types of information allows for the implementation of appropriate, tiered security controls, ensuring that highly sensitive data receives the strongest protections while less sensitive data has adequate, but not excessive, safeguards. This approach is both effective and efficient.

Question 103: A new patient with an ulcerative sore on the hip who was residing in a nursing home received medical attention from the doctor. A straightforward medical choice was made after a problem-focused history and physical examination.

• 99325
• 99334 (Correct answer)
• 99324
• 99332

Correct answer: 99334

CPT code 99334 is specifically designated for an initial nursing facility visit for a new or established patient. The description matches the code's requirements: a problem-focused history and examination, along with straightforward medical decision making. The other codes are either for higher complexity initial visits (99324, 99325) or for subsequent visits (99332).

Question 104: HCPCS Level II codes are used primarily to report what type of services?

• Supplies, equipment, and non-physician services not in CPT (Correct answer)
• Inpatient hospital diagnoses
• Pharmacy dispensing fees only
• Physician procedures covered by CPT

Correct answer: Supplies, equipment, and non-physician services not in CPT

HCPCS Level II codes supplement CPT to cover supplies, durable medical equipment, ambulance services, and other services not represented in CPT.

Question 105: What does case mix index (CMI) measure in hospital management?

• The average relative weight of all inpatient cases, reflecting clinical complexity and resource use (Correct answer)
• The percentage of Medicare versus commercial payer cases
• The ratio of inpatient to outpatient visits
• The number of complication/comorbidity codes per case

Correct answer: The average relative weight of all inpatient cases, reflecting clinical complexity and resource use

CMI is the average DRG relative weight across all inpatient cases, serving as an indicator of a hospital's overall patient complexity and expected resource consumption.

Question 106: Which federal law imposes civil monetary penalties for knowingly submitting false claims to government healthcare programs?

• The False Claims Act (FCA) (Correct answer)
• The Anti-Kickback Statute
• The Stark Law
• HIPAA

Correct answer: The False Claims Act (FCA)

The False Claims Act imposes civil monetary penalties on providers who knowingly submit false or fraudulent claims to Medicare, Medicaid, or other federal programs.

Question 107: What is the minimum retention period for health records under Medicare Conditions of Participation?

• 5 years (Correct answer)
• 7 years
• 3 years
• 10 years

Correct answer: 5 years

Medicare Conditions of Participation require hospitals to retain medical records for at least 5 years from the date of discharge.

Question 108: In budget management, what is the difference between a capital budget and an operating budget?

• Capital is for personnel costs only; operating is for equipment
• Capital budgets are set annually; operating budgets are set quarterly
• Capital covers daily expenses; operating covers large one-time purchases
• Capital covers major long-term assets and investments; operating covers day-to-day expenses (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Capital covers major long-term assets and investments; operating covers day-to-day expenses

The capital budget covers major long-term investments such as equipment and facilities, while the operating budget covers recurring day-to-day expenses like salaries, supplies, and utilities.

Question 109: What patient right under HIPAA allows individuals to request corrections to their health information?

• Right to restrict disclosure
• Right to an accounting of disclosures
• Right to access
• Right to amend (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right to amend

The HIPAA right to amend allows patients to request corrections to PHI in a covered entity's designated record set if they believe the information is inaccurate or incomplete.

Question 110: In ICD-10-CM, the instruction 'Code first' is used to indicate what type of coding sequence?

• The code requires an additional external cause code
• The condition should always be sequenced as principal diagnosis
• An underlying condition must be coded before the manifestation (Correct answer)
• The code is used only for outpatient reporting

Correct answer: An underlying condition must be coded before the manifestation

'Code first' instructs the coder to sequence the underlying etiology before the manifestation when both are present, following the etiology/manifestation convention.

Question 111: What is the role of the health information manager in a clinical documentation improvement (CDI) program?

• Approve all physician orders
• Perform physical exams to verify diagnoses
• Educate physicians on documentation to support accurate code assignment (Correct answer)
• Audit pharmacy dispensing records

Correct answer: Educate physicians on documentation to support accurate code assignment

In CDI programs, HIM professionals educate providers on documentation specificity to ensure coded data accurately reflects the patient's clinical condition.

Question 112: CPT codes are organized into how many main sections (categories)?

• 5
• 4
• 7
• 6 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6

CPT is organized into 6 main sections: Evaluation and Management, Anesthesia, Surgery, Radiology, Pathology and Laboratory, and Medicine.

Question 113: Which management theory focuses on motivating workers by addressing their needs in a hierarchical order?

• Total Quality Management (TQM)
• Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs (Correct answer)
• Theory X and Theory Y
• Scientific Management theory

Correct answer: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs proposes that motivation is driven by meeting needs in order from basic physiological needs up through safety, belonging, esteem, and self-actualization.

Question 114: Under HIPAA, which rule specifically governs the security of electronic protected health information (ePHI)?

• HIPAA Enforcement Rule
• HIPAA Privacy Rule
• HIPAA Security Rule (Correct answer)
• HIPAA Breach Notification Rule

Correct answer: HIPAA Security Rule

The HIPAA Security Rule establishes national standards for protecting ePHI through administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.

Question 115: Which federal agency has primary authority to investigate and prosecute healthcare fraud and abuse?

• CMS directly
• The American Hospital Association
• The Office of Inspector General (OIG) of HHS (Correct answer)
• The Joint Commission

Correct answer: The Office of Inspector General (OIG) of HHS

The OIG of HHS has primary authority to investigate healthcare fraud, issue exclusions from federal programs, and impose civil monetary penalties on violators.

Question 116: Which code set is used to report physician and outpatient procedures for reimbursement?

• CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) (Correct answer)
• ICD-10-PCS
• ICD-10-CM
• SNOMED CT

Correct answer: CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)

CPT codes, maintained by the AMA, are used to report physician services and outpatient procedures for billing and reimbursement purposes.

Question 117: Which data element in a health record is used to link all encounters for a single patient within a facility?

• Social Security Number
• Medical record number (MRN) (Correct answer)
• Account number
• Encounter number

Correct answer: Medical record number (MRN)

The medical record number (MRN) is the permanent identifier assigned to a patient that links all encounters within a facility.

Question 118: Which form is used by hospitals to submit inpatient Medicare claims?

• HCFA-1450
• UB-04 (CMS-1450) (Correct answer)
• ADA dental claim form
• CMS-1500

Correct answer: UB-04 (CMS-1450)

The UB-04 (also called CMS-1450) is the standardized claim form used by hospitals and other institutional providers to bill Medicare and most other payers.

Question 119: What is the function of a PACS (Picture Archiving and Communication System) in healthcare?

• Track medication administration
• Manage patient billing accounts
• Schedule surgical procedures
• Store, retrieve, and display medical images such as X-rays and MRIs digitally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Store, retrieve, and display medical images such as X-rays and MRIs digitally

PACS stores and manages digital medical images (X-rays, CT scans, MRIs) and allows radiologists and clinicians to access them electronically from any authorized workstation.

Question 120: Who is responsible for creating and updating the data in a patient's progress note?

• Registration staff
• Administrator
• Provider (Correct answer)
• Health information management (HIM) professional

Correct answer: Provider

The provider (e.g., physician, nurse practitioner, physician assistant) is directly responsible for creating and updating a patient's progress notes. These notes document the patient's clinical course, treatment, and response to care, reflecting the provider's ongoing assessment and plans. They are a critical part of the legal health record and are generated by the clinicians directly involved in patient care.

Question 121: In ICD-10-CM, what is the maximum number of characters a code can have?

• 8
• 7 (Correct answer)
• 6
• 5

Correct answer: 7

ICD-10-CM codes can have up to 7 characters, with the first three characters identifying the category and additional characters providing specificity.

Question 122: What is the primary difference between Medicare Part A and Medicare Part B coverage?

• Part A covers inpatient hospital and facility services; Part B covers physician and outpatient services (Correct answer)
• Part A covers prescriptions; Part B covers preventive care
• Part A is voluntary; Part B is mandatory
• Part A covers physician services; Part B covers hospital stays

Correct answer: Part A covers inpatient hospital and facility services; Part B covers physician and outpatient services

Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital stays, skilled nursing facilities, and hospice care, while Part B covers physician services, outpatient care, and durable medical equipment.

Question 123: Which federal certification program evaluates whether EHR technology meets standards for meaningful use and interoperability?

• Joint Commission EHR accreditation
• CMS EHR Incentive Audit Program
• ONC Health IT Certification Program (Correct answer)
• HIPAA Security Rule compliance program

Correct answer: ONC Health IT Certification Program

The ONC (Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology) Health IT Certification Program certifies that EHR products meet federal standards for functionality and interoperability.

Question 124: In health information management, what is the purpose of a workforce development plan?

• Reduce departmental headcount over time
• Document disciplinary actions for employees
• Manage employee vacation and leave scheduling
• Identify training, education, and career development needs to build staff competencies for current and future roles (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify training, education, and career development needs to build staff competencies for current and future roles

A workforce development plan identifies competency gaps and outlines training, education, and development activities to prepare staff for current responsibilities and future organizational needs.

Question 125: What is the primary goal of a health information system implementation project's go-live phase?

• Finalize system configuration and customization
• Conduct user acceptance testing
• Transition from the old system to the new system in the live production environment (Correct answer)
• Complete staff training

Correct answer: Transition from the old system to the new system in the live production environment

The go-live phase is when the new system transitions from a test/training environment to the live production environment where it handles real patient data and operations.

Question 126: What is the purpose of a Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) under HIPAA?

• Disclose information to insurers about patient conditions
• Inform patients about their billing rights
• Notify patients of a data breach
• Inform patients of their privacy rights and how their PHI may be used and disclosed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inform patients of their privacy rights and how their PHI may be used and disclosed

The NPP informs patients of their HIPAA privacy rights and how the covered entity may use and disclose their PHI, and must be provided at first contact.

Question 127: What is the purpose of a healthcare compliance program?

• Oversee physician credentialing
• Prevent, detect, and correct violations of laws, regulations, and internal policies (Correct answer)
• Manage patient satisfaction scores
• Maximize reimbursement by selecting optimal DRGs

Correct answer: Prevent, detect, and correct violations of laws, regulations, and internal policies

A healthcare compliance program establishes policies, training, and monitoring mechanisms to prevent, detect, and correct legal and regulatory violations.

Question 128: What is the minimum necessary standard under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

• Covered entities must disclose only the minimum PHI needed to accomplish the intended purpose (Correct answer)
• Providers must maintain the minimum number of health records
• Patients must be notified of the minimum rights they have
• Facilities must implement the minimum required security controls

Correct answer: Covered entities must disclose only the minimum PHI needed to accomplish the intended purpose

The minimum necessary standard requires covered entities to limit PHI use and disclosure to only what is needed to accomplish the purpose of the use or disclosure.

Question 129: In data governance, what is a data steward responsible for?

• Managing physical server infrastructure
• Auditing financial statements
• Programming database queries
• Overseeing the quality, integrity, and appropriate use of specific data domains (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Overseeing the quality, integrity, and appropriate use of specific data domains

A data steward oversees the quality, completeness, and appropriate use of assigned data domains within an organization's information systems.

Question 130: Which component of the problem-oriented medical record (POMR) lists all active diagnoses and conditions?

• Database
• Problem list (Correct answer)
• Initial plan
• SOAP note

Correct answer: Problem list

The problem list is a central component of the POMR that catalogs all active diagnoses, chronic conditions, and significant past problems for ongoing reference.

Question 131: Under ICD-10-PCS, all procedure codes have exactly how many characters?

• 6
• 5
• 7 (Correct answer)
• 8

Correct answer: 7

Every ICD-10-PCS code is exactly 7 characters long, with each character representing a specific axis of classification such as section, body system, root operation, body part, approach, device, and qualifier.

Question 132: Under UHDDS guidelines, which diagnosis must be identified as the principal diagnosis for inpatient coding?

• The first diagnosis listed on the physician's orders
• The diagnosis associated with the highest DRG weight
• The most serious condition treated
• The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for admission (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for admission

Per Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) guidelines, the principal diagnosis is the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for causing the admission.