RCC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield RCC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In the context of radiology contrast safety, 'premedication' most specifically refers to: → Corticosteroids or antihistamines given to patients at risk for contrast reactions
2. Which entity provides guidance on coding compliance programs? → OIG
3. What is a Remittance Advice (RA) in the context of radiology billing? → A document from the payer explaining claim adjudication and payment details
4. What is the Medicare global period for most radiology procedures? → 0 days (XXX indicator)
5. A myocardial perfusion SPECT study at rest and stress is reported with which CPT code? → 78452
6. Upcoding in medical billing is considered: → Fraudulent behavior
7. A facility administers contrast media intravenously during a CT scan. Which separate CPT code should be reported for the IV injection of the contrast agent? → No additional injection code; contrast administration is bundled into the imaging CPT
8. Which ICD-10-CM code type is used when imaging is performed on a healthy patient for a preventive service? → Z codes
9. A radiologist interprets a CT of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast. Which CPT code should be reported? → 74178
10. Gadolinium-based contrast agents used in MRI are primarily reported using which HCPCS code series? → A9576-A9579 (gadolinium-based MRI contrast agents)
11. When should a global radiology code be reported without modifiers? → When both components are provided by same entity
12. CPT add-on code 76125 is used to report what radiology service? → Cineradiography/videoradiography
13. Which guideline applies when a patient has a malignancy as the reason for a radiology study? → Code the malignancy as the first-listed diagnosis
14. What is brachytherapy in radiation oncology? → Radiation from radioactive sources placed inside or adjacent to the tumor
15. When a patient presents for a follow-up imaging study after treatment for a fracture, which 7th character is used? → D – Subsequent encounter
16. Which character in ICD-10-CM typically indicates laterality? → 6th character
17. Which structure is responsible for filtering blood in the kidney? → Nephron
18. In nuclear medicine, what does the term 'planar imaging' refer to? → Two-dimensional images acquired from a gamma camera
19. Which ICD-10-CM code category is used for encounters for screening examinations? → Z00–Z99
20. A radiology coder reviews a CT chest order noting 'CT chest with and without contrast.' The correct CPT code to report is: → 71270 (CT thorax, without contrast followed by re-imaging with contrast)
21. Under Medicare, which component of a radiology service is billed by the radiologist personally? → Professional component (Modifier 26)
22. CT colonography for screening is reported with which CPT code? → 74263
23. A Medicare claim is flagged by a Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC). What is the RAC's primary function? → Identify and recover improper Medicare payments
24. A Medicare patient refuses to sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) before a non-covered radiology service. What should the provider do? → Do not bill Medicare and bill the patient for the service
25. When coding a contrast reaction during a radiology procedure, which ICD-10-CM category is used? → T80.6 series
26. Which term describes the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body? → Abduction
27. What is 'balance billing' in radiology billing practices? → Billing the patient for the difference between the provider's charge and insurer's payment
28. Medicare requires a written order for which imaging modality before services are rendered? → All advanced imaging under AUC program
29. Which Medicare program requires radiology providers to report quality measures for payment adjustments? → MIPS (Merit-based Incentive Payment System)
30. Which modifier is appended to indicate that a service was performed bilaterally? → Modifier 50