Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which law requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients?

HIPAA
OBRA '90 (Correct answer)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Kefauver-Harris Act

Correct answer: OBRA '90

OBRA '90 (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) mandated prospective drug use review and patient counseling for Medicaid patients.

Question 2: What does 'NKA' mean in a patient's allergy history?

Not Known to Allergy team
No Known Allergies (Correct answer)
No Known Adverse reactions
No Known Antibiotics

Correct answer: No Known Allergies

NKA stands for 'No Known Allergies,' indicating the patient has no documented drug or environmental allergies.

Question 3: What is the main therapeutic use of digoxin?

Heart failure and atrial fibrillation (Correct answer)
Hypertension treatment
Anticoagulation
Cholesterol reduction

Correct answer: Heart failure and atrial fibrillation

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to improve myocardial contractility in heart failure and control ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.

Question 4: What does 'prior authorization' (PA) mean in pharmacy processing?

Insurer approval required before a drug will be covered (Correct answer)
Patient consent for medication therapy
Pharmacist verification of a prescription
A prescriber's DEA registration

Correct answer: Insurer approval required before a drug will be covered

Prior authorization requires the prescriber to obtain approval from the insurance plan before the drug will be covered for that patient.

Question 5: A vial contains 500 mg/10 mL. How many mL are needed to prepare a 250 mg dose?

2.5 mL
10 mL
5 mL (Correct answer)
7.5 mL

Correct answer: 5 mL

500 mg/10 mL = 50 mg/mL; 250 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 5 mL needed.

Question 6: Which drug is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?

N-acetylcysteine (Correct answer)
Flumazenil
Activated charcoal
Naloxone

Correct answer: N-acetylcysteine

N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst, Acetadote) is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity, replenishing glutathione stores to prevent liver damage.

Question 7: Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?

Alprazolam (Correct answer)
Hydrocodone
Morphine
Codeine

Correct answer: Alprazolam

Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine classified as Schedule IV with lower abuse potential than Schedule III.

Question 8: What information is NOT required on a valid prescription?

Drug name and strength
Date written
Prescriber's DEA number (for non-controlled drugs) (Correct answer)
Patient's name

Correct answer: Prescriber's DEA number (for non-controlled drugs)

A prescriber's DEA number is only required on prescriptions for controlled substances, not for non-controlled medications.

Question 9: A pharmacy receives a drug recall notice. Which action should be taken FIRST?

Identify and quarantine the recalled lot numbers from dispensing stock (Correct answer)
Discard all recalled product immediately
Notify all patients who received the drug
Contact the state board of pharmacy

Correct answer: Identify and quarantine the recalled lot numbers from dispensing stock

The first step is to identify affected lot numbers and physically quarantine them so no further dispensing occurs while the recall is processed.

Question 10: Which drug is a Schedule II controlled substance?

Carisoprodol
Oxycodone (Correct answer)
Tramadol
Alprazolam

Correct answer: Oxycodone

Oxycodone is a Schedule II opioid with high abuse potential and accepted medical use.

Question 11: A root cause analysis (RCA) is performed after a medication error to:

Identify underlying system failures that contributed to the error (Correct answer)
Assign blame to the responsible party
Calculate financial liability
Determine the patient's legal rights

Correct answer: Identify underlying system failures that contributed to the error

RCA is a systematic process to identify the fundamental causes of a medication error to prevent recurrence — not to assign blame.

Question 12: What is a 'formulary' in the context of managed care and pharmacy?

A list of approved compounding recipes
A schedule of controlled substances
A list of preferred medications covered by an insurance plan (Correct answer)
A pharmacy's inventory ordering schedule

Correct answer: A list of preferred medications covered by an insurance plan

A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved for coverage by an insurance plan, often organized into tiers based on cost.

Question 13: A prescription for a controlled substance must include the prescriber's DEA number. A valid DEA number begins with which two characters?

Two numbers
A letter and a special character
AB or BC
Two letters where the second is the first letter of the prescriber's last name (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two letters where the second is the first letter of the prescriber's last name

A DEA number has two letters followed by seven digits; the second letter is always the first letter of the registrant's last name.

Question 14: Which government program provides prescription drug coverage primarily for individuals aged 65 and older?

CHIP
Medicaid
Medicare Part D (Correct answer)
TRICARE

Correct answer: Medicare Part D

Medicare Part D is the federal prescription drug benefit designed for Medicare beneficiaries, primarily those aged 65 and older.

Question 15: How many milligrams are in 2 grams?

2000 mg (Correct answer)
200 mg
20 mg
20,000 mg

Correct answer: 2000 mg

There are 1,000 milligrams in 1 gram, so 2 grams = 2,000 mg.

Question 16: Which term describes a list of drugs known to cause serious harm if used incorrectly?

LASA Drug List
Tall Man Lettering List
High-Alert Medications List (Correct answer)
Black Box Warning List

Correct answer: High-Alert Medications List

The ISMP High-Alert Medications List identifies drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when misused.

Question 17: Albuterol is used primarily for which condition?

Hyperlipidemia
Hypertension
Asthma (Correct answer)
Diabetes

Correct answer: Asthma

Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator used for acute asthma relief.

Question 18: What does the term 'look-alike, sound-alike' (LASA) drugs refer to?

Drugs in the same therapeutic class
Drugs confused due to similar names or packaging (Correct answer)
Drugs with identical dosage forms
Generic and brand name pairs

Correct answer: Drugs confused due to similar names or packaging

LASA drugs are medications that can be confused with each other because their names look or sound similar, a major cause of medication errors.

Question 19: A prescription reads: 'Lisinopril 10 mg, i tab PO QD #30, Ref x3'. How many days' supply is authorized in total?

90 days
30 days
120 days (Correct answer)
60 days

Correct answer: 120 days

30 tablets per fill × 4 fills (1 original + 3 refills) = 120 tablets at 1/day = 120 days' supply total.

Question 20: What does 'UD' mean on a hospital medication order?

Unit Dose (Correct answer)
Usual Dose
Unspecified Drug
Undiluted

Correct answer: Unit Dose

UD (Unit Dose) refers to the system in which each dose is individually packaged and labeled for a single administration.

Question 21: Which of the following is an example of a 'near miss' in pharmacy?

An error is caught before reaching the patient (Correct answer)
A drug is dispensed to the wrong patient
A patient is harmed by the wrong drug
A prescription is filled with the wrong strength

Correct answer: An error is caught before reaching the patient

A near miss is an error or unsafe situation that was caught before causing harm to the patient.

Question 22: What PPE is required when handling hazardous drugs during compounding?

Gloves only
Standard lab coat and single gloves
Gown only
Double gloves, gown, eye protection, and respiratory protection as needed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Double gloves, gown, eye protection, and respiratory protection as needed

USP <800> requires double gloves, a chemotherapy-rated gown, eye/face protection, and respiratory protection when handling hazardous drugs.

Question 23: What does 'adjudication' mean in the context of pharmacy billing?

The DEA's review of controlled substance prescriptions
The process of compounding a non-sterile preparation
The electronic process of submitting a claim to insurance and receiving payment determination (Correct answer)
The pharmacist's review of a prescription for clinical appropriateness

Correct answer: The electronic process of submitting a claim to insurance and receiving payment determination

Adjudication is the real-time electronic process where the pharmacy submits a claim and the insurance plan returns a payment approval or rejection.

Question 24: Which federal agency oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs?

OIG
FDA
DEA
CMS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CMS

CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services) administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs in the US.

Question 25: Which USP chapter governs sterile compounding standards?

USP <1160>
USP <797> (Correct answer)
USP <800>
USP <795>

Correct answer: USP <797>

USP <797> provides standards for sterile compounding including beyond-use dating, environmental monitoring, and cleanroom requirements.

Question 26: An order requires 250 mg of a drug from a stock solution of 50 mg/5 mL. How many mL are needed?

50 mL
5 mL
10 mL
25 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 25 mL

50 mg/5 mL = 10 mg/mL; 250 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 25 mL needed.

Question 27: What does the Latin abbreviation 'QID' mean?

Every other day
Four times a day (Correct answer)
Three times a day
Every 12 hours

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID (quater in die) means four times a day, typically every 6 hours.

Question 28: What is the meaning of 'ii gtts AU TID' in a prescription?

2 tablets by mouth three times daily
2 drops in both ears three times daily (Correct answer)
2 drops in the right ear three times daily
2 drops in both eyes three times daily

Correct answer: 2 drops in both ears three times daily

AU = both ears, gtts = drops, TID = three times daily; so the sig means instill 2 drops in both ears three times daily.

Question 29: What does 'PAR level' stand for in pharmacy inventory management?

Periodic Automatic Replenishment (Correct answer)
Product Availability Review
Pharmacy Adjusted Rate
Purchase Allocation Record

Correct answer: Periodic Automatic Replenishment

PAR (Periodic Automatic Replenishment) level is the minimum quantity of a drug that must be on hand before reordering is triggered.

Question 30: What does 'DAW 0' indicate on a prescription claim?

Patient requests brand
Substitution not allowed by law
Brand only, no substitution
No product selection indicated — generic may be dispensed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No product selection indicated — generic may be dispensed

DAW 0 means no product selection is indicated, allowing the pharmacist to substitute a generic equivalent.

Question 31: Under DEA regulations, a pharmacy must take a complete physical inventory of all controlled substances at least once every how many years?

5 years
1 year
2 years (Correct answer)
3 years

Correct answer: 2 years

DEA regulations (21 CFR 1304.11) require pharmacies to conduct a complete biennial (every 2 years) inventory of all controlled substances on hand.

Question 32: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires child-resistant packaging for most:

OTC drugs only
Prescription drugs only
Both prescription and most OTC drugs (Correct answer)
All products

Correct answer: Both prescription and most OTC drugs

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) requires child-resistant containers for most prescription drugs and many OTC products.

Question 33: What does the term 'aseptic technique' refer to in sterile compounding?

Cleaning the pharmacy counter before compounding
Procedures that prevent contamination of sterile preparations with microorganisms (Correct answer)
Using only sterile equipment for non-sterile preparations
Autoclaving all compounding supplies

Correct answer: Procedures that prevent contamination of sterile preparations with microorganisms

Aseptic technique encompasses all practices used to prevent microbial contamination during the preparation of sterile products.

Question 34: A patient has both primary and secondary insurance. What is 'coordination of benefits' (COB)?

A requirement that both plans must authorize the same medications
A billing error that results in double payment to the pharmacy
The process of determining how two insurance plans share payment responsibility (Correct answer)
The process of splitting a prescription between two pharmacies

Correct answer: The process of determining how two insurance plans share payment responsibility

COB rules determine which insurance plan pays first (primary) and how the secondary plan covers remaining costs to prevent overpayment.

Question 35: What is the purpose of a drug recall?

To change the drug's schedule
To remove a product from the market due to safety, quality, or labeling issues (Correct answer)
To update the drug's label
To lower the drug's price

Correct answer: To remove a product from the market due to safety, quality, or labeling issues

A drug recall removes a product from the market or from patients' hands because it is defective, contaminated, mislabeled, or poses a health risk.

Question 36: How long must pharmacies keep Schedule II prescription records?

5 years
2 years (Correct answer)
7 years
1 year

Correct answer: 2 years

Federal law requires Schedule II controlled substance records to be maintained for a minimum of 2 years.

Question 37: A pharmacist can dispense a Schedule II drug in an emergency without a written prescription for up to how many days' supply?

3 days
5 days
7 days
72-hour supply (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 72-hour supply

In a bona fide emergency, a pharmacist may dispense a Schedule II drug based on an oral prescription sufficient to treat the patient for 72 hours.

Question 38: What does 'DAW' stand for on a prescription, and what does DAW 1 indicate?

Dispense As Written; the prescriber requires the brand-name drug (Correct answer)
Dispense Alternate Widely; generics are preferred
Drug Approval Waiver; the drug has prior authorization
Drug Availability Warning; the medication may be on shortage

Correct answer: Dispense As Written; the prescriber requires the brand-name drug

DAW (Dispense As Written) codes indicate substitution instructions; DAW 1 means the prescriber specifically requires the brand-name product.

Question 39: Insulin glargine is classified as which type of insulin?

Rapid-acting
Long-acting (basal) (Correct answer)
Intermediate-acting (NPH)
Short-acting (regular)

Correct answer: Long-acting (basal)

Insulin glargine (Lantus, Basaglar) is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration of approximately 24 hours.

Question 40: What does the abbreviation 'sig' mean on a prescription?

Strength in grams
Scheduled injection guide
Signature (label instructions) (Correct answer)
Supply interval guideline

Correct answer: Signature (label instructions)

The sig (from Latin signatura) is the prescriber's directions to the patient about how to take the medication.

Question 41: Which agency is responsible for approving new drugs before they can be marketed in the US?

CDC
CMS
FDA (Correct answer)
DEA

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) reviews and approves all new drug applications before a drug can be sold in the US.

Question 42: Pharmacy technicians are required to report medication errors primarily to:

The supervising pharmacist (Correct answer)
The state governor's office
The patient's insurance company
The prescribing physician only

Correct answer: The supervising pharmacist

Technicians must immediately report medication errors to the supervising pharmacist, who will assess the clinical impact and take corrective action.

Question 43: Which electrolyte imbalance is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide?

Hypokalemia (Correct answer)
Hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia
Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: Hypokalemia

Loop diuretics cause increased urinary excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia (low blood potassium levels).

Question 44: What is the primary purpose of an automatic dispensing cabinet (ADC) in a hospital setting?

To provide controlled access and tracking of medications at the point of care (Correct answer)
To compound sterile IV admixtures
To replace the central pharmacy entirely
To print prescription labels automatically

Correct answer: To provide controlled access and tracking of medications at the point of care

ADCs like Pyxis or Omnicell provide nurses with secure, controlled access to medications while electronically tracking every transaction.

Question 45: Which of the following is a potential side effect of long-term corticosteroid use?

Osteoporosis (Correct answer)
Hypoglycemia
Hypothyroidism
Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: Osteoporosis

Long-term corticosteroid use can cause osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoblast activity and increasing calcium excretion.

Question 46: Which organization runs the MedWatch program for adverse drug event reporting?

FDA (Correct answer)
ASHP
ISMP
DEA

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA's MedWatch program is the safety information and adverse event reporting system for healthcare professionals and patients.

Question 47: What is the primary adverse effect that limits the use of aminoglycoside antibiotics?

Pulmonary fibrosis
Hepatotoxicity
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (Correct answer)
Bone marrow suppression

Correct answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin) carry significant risk of nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss), requiring level monitoring.

Question 48: What is the process of comparing a new medication order against a patient's existing medication list called?

Formulary review
Prior authorization
Medication reconciliation (Correct answer)
Drug utilization review

Correct answer: Medication reconciliation

Medication reconciliation ensures the patient's medication list is accurate and complete during care transitions.

Question 49: Which quality assurance check helps verify that compounded preparations are prepared correctly?

Drug utilization review
Adverse event reporting
Prospective DUR
Final product verification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Final product verification

Final product verification is the pharmacist's check that a compounded preparation matches the formula, quantity, and appearance specified.

Question 50: What is a 'chargeback' in pharmaceutical distribution?

A penalty assessed by insurance for incorrect billing
A fee charged to patients for late prescription pickup
A refund given to a patient for a recalled medication
A credit issued by a manufacturer to a wholesaler when the wholesaler sells to a contracted customer at a discounted price (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A credit issued by a manufacturer to a wholesaler when the wholesaler sells to a contracted customer at a discounted price

A chargeback is a manufacturer reimbursement to a wholesaler for the difference between the wholesaler's cost and the contracted lower price charged to eligible customers.

Question 51: Which storage condition is required for most vaccines?

Room temperature (68–77°F)
Cool and dark (59–68°F)
Frozen (−4°F)
Refrigerated (36–46°F) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Refrigerated (36–46°F)

Most vaccines must be stored at 36–46°F (2–8°C) in a refrigerator to maintain potency and efficacy.

Question 52: What does the abbreviation 'PRN' mean?

At bedtime
As needed (Correct answer)
By mouth
Before meals

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (pro re nata) means 'as needed,' indicating the medication should be taken only when a specific condition (e.g., pain) warrants it.

Question 53: Patients taking MAOIs should avoid which food substance due to the risk of hypertensive crisis?

Gluten
Calcium
Tyramine (Correct answer)
Vitamin C

Correct answer: Tyramine

MAOIs inhibit the enzyme that breaks down tyramine; consuming tyramine-rich foods (aged cheeses, cured meats) can cause a dangerous hypertensive crisis.

Question 54: Amoxicillin is classified as which type of antibiotic?

Fluoroquinolone
Penicillin (Correct answer)
Cephalosporin
Macrolide

Correct answer: Penicillin

Amoxicillin is a broad-spectrum aminopenicillin antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Question 55: What does the 'five rights' of medication administration include?

Right drug, right dose, right frequency, right prescriber, right patient
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (Correct answer)
Right patient, right pharmacist, right drug, right time, right form
Right patient, right drug, right cost, right label, right storage

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time

The five rights are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time — the foundation of safe medication administration.

Question 56: Under HIPAA, a minimum necessary standard requires that disclosure of PHI be limited to:

All patient records
What the prescriber requests
Only what is needed for the purpose (Correct answer)
Information older than 10 years

Correct answer: Only what is needed for the purpose

The HIPAA minimum necessary standard requires limiting PHI disclosure to the least amount needed to accomplish the intended purpose.

Question 57: What is the generic name for Synthroid?

Methimazole
Levothyroxine (Correct answer)
Liothyronine
Propylthiouracil

Correct answer: Levothyroxine

Synthroid's generic name is levothyroxine, used to treat hypothyroidism by replacing T4.

Question 58: Which drug class does warfarin belong to?

Direct thrombin inhibitor
Factor Xa inhibitor
Antiplatelet agent
Vitamin K antagonist (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin K antagonist

Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant that inhibits clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

Question 59: Which drug recall class indicates the most serious risk, including situations that can cause serious adverse health consequences or death?

Class III
Class II
Class IV
Class I (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class I

Class I recall is the most serious, involving products that could cause serious health consequences or death if used.

Question 60: What does 'DAW 1' on a prescription mean?

Dispense as written — prescriber requests brand, no substitution (Correct answer)
Substitution allowed — patient's request
Generic substitution allowed
Dispense as written — patient requests brand

Correct answer: Dispense as written — prescriber requests brand, no substitution

DAW 1 (Dispense As Written) code 1 means the prescriber mandates brand-name dispensing and no generic substitution is permitted.

Question 61: What does 'BUD' stand for in pharmacy compounding?

Basic Utilization Data
Beyond-Use Date (Correct answer)
Best Use Date
Baseline Unit Dose

Correct answer: Beyond-Use Date

BUD (Beyond-Use Date) is the date after which a compounded preparation should not be used, assigned based on stability data and USP guidelines.

Question 62: What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III controlled substance?

3
0
12
5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5

Schedule III and IV controlled substances may be refilled a maximum of 5 times within 6 months of the original prescription date.

Question 63: What is the purpose of auxiliary labels on prescription bottles?

To indicate insurance coverage
To confirm the pharmacist's name
To replace the main label
To provide additional safety warnings or instructions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide additional safety warnings or instructions

Auxiliary labels (e.g., 'Take with food,' 'May cause drowsiness') provide supplemental safety information beyond the main prescription label.

Question 64: Which law requires pharmacies to maintain a medication error tracking system for Medicare Part D plans?

HIPAA
OBRA '90
Medicare Modernization Act (MMA) (Correct answer)
ACA

Correct answer: Medicare Modernization Act (MMA)

The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 established Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage and related compliance requirements.

Question 65: Which class of drugs is commonly associated with causing a dry cough as a side effect?

ARBs
ACE inhibitors (Correct answer)
Calcium channel blockers
Beta-blockers

Correct answer: ACE inhibitors

ACE inhibitors cause accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to a persistent dry cough in up to 15–20% of patients.

Question 66: Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor?

Valsartan
Lisinopril (Correct answer)
Diltiazem
Carvedilol

Correct answer: Lisinopril

Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Question 67: Which organization is responsible for scheduling controlled substances at the federal level?

CMS
CDC
DEA (Correct answer)
FDA

Correct answer: DEA

The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act and scheduling drugs.

Question 68: What is an NPI number?

Non-Preferred Item code
National Pharmacy Identifier
New Prescription Invoice
National Provider Identifier (Correct answer)

Correct answer: National Provider Identifier

An NPI (National Provider Identifier) is a unique 10-digit identification number for healthcare providers, required on all HIPAA transactions.

Question 69: Which of the following is an example of a pharmacist performing a prospective drug utilization review (DUR)?

Auditing past prescriptions for compliance
Checking for drug-drug interactions before dispensing (Correct answer)
Reviewing dispensing records for billing errors
Reporting adverse events to the FDA

Correct answer: Checking for drug-drug interactions before dispensing

Prospective DUR occurs before dispensing and involves checking for interactions, allergies, and therapeutic duplications.

Question 70: The Orange Book is used to identify:

Therapeutic equivalents (Correct answer)
Drug interactions
Orphan drug designations
Controlled substance schedules

Correct answer: Therapeutic equivalents

The FDA's Orange Book (Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations) identifies drugs rated as therapeutically equivalent to innovator products.

Question 71: A black box warning is the FDA's strongest warning about:

Drug storage requirements
Required dosage adjustments
Drug interactions only
Serious adverse effects or contraindications (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Serious adverse effects or contraindications

A black box warning (boxed warning) alerts prescribers to serious or life-threatening risks associated with a medication.

Question 72: What is the purpose of a DEA Form 106?

Report theft or significant loss of controlled substances (Correct answer)
Register a new pharmacy
Order Schedule II drugs
Transfer a Schedule II prescription

Correct answer: Report theft or significant loss of controlled substances

DEA Form 106 is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances to the DEA.

Question 73: A patient brings in a prescription for 30 tablets with 3 refills. What is the total quantity authorized?

120 tablets (Correct answer)
90 tablets
30 tablets
60 tablets

Correct answer: 120 tablets

The original fill (30 tablets) plus 3 refills (3 × 30 = 90) equals 120 tablets total authorized.

Question 74: Which drug is a direct-acting oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits Factor Xa?

Heparin
Rivaroxaban (Correct answer)
Dabigatran
Warfarin

Correct answer: Rivaroxaban

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is a direct Factor Xa inhibitor used for stroke prevention and DVT/PE treatment.

Question 75: Which error type occurs when a patient receives a drug intended for a different patient?

Wrong route error
Omission error
Wrong patient error (Correct answer)
Wrong dose error

Correct answer: Wrong patient error

A wrong patient error is a medication error in which the correct drug is dispensed but to the wrong individual.

Question 76: Which of the following best describes a 'drug shortage' and the pharmacy technician's appropriate response?

A medication recalled by the FDA; the technician should quarantine all stock
A drug that is permanently discontinued; the technician should remove it from the formulary
A temporary supply disruption; the technician should notify the pharmacist so alternatives can be identified (Correct answer)
A drug that requires prior authorization; the technician should contact insurance

Correct answer: A temporary supply disruption; the technician should notify the pharmacist so alternatives can be identified

Drug shortages are temporary supply disruptions; technicians should alert the pharmacist who can work with prescribers to identify therapeutic alternatives.

Question 77: What is the purpose of the NDC number on a drug package?

Indicate the drug's DEA schedule
Uniquely identify the drug manufacturer, product, and package size (Correct answer)
Identify the pharmacy dispensing the drug
Show the drug's expiration date

Correct answer: Uniquely identify the drug manufacturer, product, and package size

The NDC (National Drug Code) is a unique 10- or 11-digit number identifying the labeler, product, and package size of a drug.

Question 78: Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

Famotidine
Pantoprazole (Correct answer)
Sucralfate
Ranitidine

Correct answer: Pantoprazole

Pantoprazole (Protonix) irreversibly inhibits the gastric proton pump to reduce acid secretion.

Question 79: Which type of drug interaction can significantly reduce the effectiveness of a medication?

Additive interaction
Antagonistic interaction (Correct answer)
Potentiation
Synergistic interaction

Correct answer: Antagonistic interaction

An antagonistic interaction occurs when one drug reduces or blocks the effect of another, potentially making the medication less effective.

Question 80: What does the abbreviation 'ISMP' stand for?

International Society of Medical Pharmacists
Institute for Safe Medication Practices (Correct answer)
Integrated Safety Monitoring Program
Institute for Standard Medical Protocols

Correct answer: Institute for Safe Medication Practices

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) is a nonprofit organization dedicated to preventing medication errors.

Question 81: What is the primary purpose of conducting a periodic physical inventory count in a pharmacy?

To satisfy DEA requirements for all medications
To calculate the pharmacy's daily revenue
To reconcile actual stock on hand with perpetual inventory records and identify discrepancies (Correct answer)
To determine which medications should be added to the formulary

Correct answer: To reconcile actual stock on hand with perpetual inventory records and identify discrepancies

Physical inventory counts verify that the actual quantity on hand matches recorded inventory levels, helping identify theft, waste, expired product, or data entry errors.

Question 82: Prednisone belongs to which drug class?

Antihistamine
Opioid
NSAID
Corticosteroid (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Corticosteroid

Prednisone is a synthetic corticosteroid with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties.

Question 83: What does NDA stand for in the drug approval process?

New Drug Application (Correct answer)
New Drug Authorization
Nonprescription Drug Amendment
National Drug Administration

Correct answer: New Drug Application

An NDA (New Drug Application) is submitted to the FDA to request approval for a new drug product for sale in the US.

Question 84: What strategy does 'Tall Man Lettering' help prevent?

Calculation errors
Wrong route errors
Allergy-related errors
Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug mix-ups (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug mix-ups

Tall Man Lettering uses mixed case (e.g., hydrALAZINE vs. hydrOXYzine) to visually differentiate LASA drug names.

Question 85: How many schedules exist in the federal controlled substance classification system?

5 (Correct answer)
4
6
3

Correct answer: 5

The Controlled Substances Act establishes five schedules (I–V) based on abuse potential, accepted medical use, and safety.

Question 86: What is the primary purpose of a medication reconciliation process?

Billing accuracy
Ensure formulary compliance
Verify drug pricing
Prevent medication errors during care transitions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prevent medication errors during care transitions

Medication reconciliation compares a patient's medication list across care settings to prevent omissions, duplications, and harmful interactions.

Question 87: A DEA Form 222 is required for ordering which type of drugs?

Schedule III–V only
Schedule II only (Correct answer)
All prescription drugs
All controlled substances

Correct answer: Schedule II only

DEA Form 222 (or the electronic CSOS equivalent) is required for ordering Schedule II controlled substances.

Question 88: What is the term for the time it takes for a drug's plasma concentration to decrease by 50%?

Duration of action
Onset of action
Half-life (Correct answer)
Peak time

Correct answer: Half-life

The half-life (t½) is the time required for the drug concentration in the plasma to decrease by half, determining dosing intervals.

Question 89: What is the primary indication for furosemide?

Osteoporosis
Edema and hypertension (Correct answer)
Type 2 diabetes
Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: Edema and hypertension

Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic primarily used to reduce fluid retention in edema and treat hypertension.

Question 90: When using dimensional analysis to convert 2.5 kg to grams, the answer is:

25 g
25,000 g
250 g
2500 g (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2500 g

2.5 kg × 1,000 g/kg = 2,500 g.

Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

The PTCE certifies pharmacy technicians, assessing competency in medications, federal requirements, patient safety, and order entry and processing.

Questions

110 min

Time Limit

70%

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