Physician Assistant Neurological System Disorders Flashcards
6 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 6 Physician Assistant Neurological System Disorders flashcards as text
A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset right-sided facial droop, arm weakness, and aphasia that resolved completely within 45 minutes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) presents with stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours (typically minutes), with no infarction on imaging.
Which of the following is the most common type of stroke?
Answer: Ischemic stroke
Ischemic stroke accounts for approximately 87% of all strokes, caused by thrombotic or embolic occlusion of cerebral vessels.
A patient presents with thunderclap headache described as 'the worst headache of my life.' CT head is negative. What is the next most appropriate step?
Answer: Lumbar puncture to check for xanthochromia
When CT is negative in a patient with thunderclap headache, lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia is essential to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage, which may not appear on CT after several hours.
What is the time window for administration of IV alteplase (tPA) in acute ischemic stroke?
Answer: Within 3–4.5 hours of symptom onset
IV alteplase is approved for administration within 3 hours of symptom onset, with select patients eligible up to 4.5 hours based on AHA/ASA guidelines.
Which of the following is a contraindication to IV tPA in acute ischemic stroke?
Answer: Ischemic stroke or head trauma within the past 3 months
Recent ischemic stroke or serious head trauma within the prior 3 months is an absolute contraindication to IV tPA due to the risk of hemorrhagic transformation.
A 25-year-old woman presents with optic neuritis and new-onset sensory disturbances in her extremities. MRI shows periventricular white matter lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis classically presents in young women with relapsing-remitting neurological symptoms, optic neuritis, and periventricular demyelinating lesions on MRI.