Mixed Deck — All Physician Assistant Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All Physician Assistant Topics flashcards as text
A patient with frequent symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and evidence of erosive esophagitis on endoscopy has failed to respond to lifestyle changes. Which medication class is the most effective for providing symptom relief and promoting healing of the esophagus?
Answer: Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) are the most effective class of medications for treating GERD, providing superior symptom relief and healing of erosive esophagitis compared to other options. They work by potently suppressing gastric acid production. While H2-receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can be used for GERD, they are less effective than PPIs, especially in the presence of erosive disease.
A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes and established cardiovascular disease is started on an antidiabetic agent. Which class has demonstrated cardiovascular mortality benefit?
Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors (e.g., empagliflozin) have demonstrated significant reduction in major adverse cardiovascular events in large outcome trials.
In academic writing, which of the following BEST defines a thesis statement?
Answer: A concise claim that the essay will argue and support
A thesis statement presents the central argument the writer will develop and defend throughout the essay.
Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of which nerve?
Answer: Median nerve
Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel, causing numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger.
A patient with peripheral artery disease has an ABI of 0.55. What does this indicate?
Answer: Moderate-to-severe PAD
An ABI of 0.41–0.70 indicates moderate-to-severe peripheral arterial disease with significant hemodynamic compromise.
Which physical exam maneuver increases the intensity of the murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
Answer: Valsalva maneuver
Valsalva decreases preload and venous return, reducing LV size and worsening outflow obstruction in HOCM, increasing the murmur.
A 10-year-old presents with limping and dull hip pain for 3 weeks. X-ray shows flattening and fragmentation of the femoral head. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children aged 4–10, presenting with insidious hip pain and radiographic femoral head fragmentation.
A 70-year-old woman has a positive Romberg sign. This finding indicates dysfunction of which sensory system?
Answer: Proprioception and vestibular input
A positive Romberg sign (increased sway with eyes closed) indicates impaired proprioception or vestibular input, not cerebellar dysfunction.
During a pelvic exam, the PA notes a blue-gray discoloration of the cervix and vaginal walls in a patient with amenorrhea. This is known as:
Answer: Chadwick's sign
Chadwick's sign is the blue-violet discoloration of the vagina and cervix due to increased vascularity, appearing in early pregnancy.
A patient is prescribed doxycycline for Lyme disease. Which counseling point is most important?
Answer: Avoid prolonged sun exposure due to photosensitivity
Tetracyclines including doxycycline cause photosensitivity reactions; patients should use sunscreen and avoid prolonged UV exposure.
In genetics, incomplete dominance results in which pattern of inheritance?
Answer: Intermediate phenotype in heterozygotes
Incomplete dominance produces an intermediate phenotype in heterozygotes, as neither allele fully dominates the other (e.g., red × white = pink flowers).
A 45-year-old man presents with sudden severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 180/100 in the right arm and 140/80 in the left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Aortic dissection
Asymmetric blood pressures combined with tearing back pain are classic for aortic dissection.
Which of the following DON'T add to the causes of atrial fibrillation?
Answer: Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is generally associated with bradycardia and a *decreased* risk of atrial fibrillation (AFib), or at least is not a direct cause. In contrast, hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis) is a well-established cause of AFib due to increased adrenergic tone and myocardial excitability. Pulmonary disease, ischemia, and rheumatic heart disease are all recognized risk factors for developing AFib.
Which cell type produces surfactant in the lung?
Answer: Type II pneumocytes
Type II pneumocytes synthesize and secrete pulmonary surfactant, which reduces alveolar surface tension and prevents collapse.
A 30-year-old woman presents with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and bitemporal headaches. MRI shows a pituitary mass and prolactin is 160 ng/mL. What is the first-line treatment?
Answer: Dopamine agonist (cabergoline or bromocriptine)
Dopamine agonists are the first-line treatment for prolactinomas, as they suppress prolactin secretion and reduce tumor size.
What does the term 'opt-out' mean in the context of PA Medicare billing?
Answer: The PA privately contracts outside Medicare reimbursement rules
An opt-out provider enters private contracts with patients and cannot submit claims to Medicare for those services.
Do you want to work as a pediatric PA?
Answer: Yes, I love children!
This is a personal reflection question with no objectively right or wrong answer—'Yes, I love children!' reflects genuine interest in working with pediatric patients. The other responses simply indicate the role isn't a personal fit.
A PA is treating a patient with major depressive disorder who has failed two adequate SSRI trials. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Switch to an SNRI or augment with bupropion
After two failed SSRI trials, switching to a different class (SNRI) or augmentation strategies such as adding bupropion or an atypical antipsychotic are evidence-based next steps.
A 42-year-old woman presents with massive hemoptysis (>300 mL in 24 hours). She has a history of bronchiectasis from childhood tuberculosis. What is the MOST important immediate intervention?
Answer: Airway protection and positioning the bleeding lung in the dependent position
The bleeding lung should be placed dependent (affected side down) to prevent aspiration of blood into the healthy lung, which is the most immediate life-threatening risk.
A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks is found to have a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 185 mg/dL. She subsequently completes a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. How many abnormal values are needed to diagnose gestational diabetes?
Answer: Two or more abnormal values
Using the Carpenter-Coustan criteria, gestational diabetes is diagnosed when 2 or more values on the 3-hour OGTT meet or exceed threshold levels.