Endocrine System Disorders Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Endocrine System Disorders flashcards as text
A 60-year-old woman is incidentally found to have calcium of 11.2 mg/dL, low phosphate, and PTH three times the upper limit of normal. She is largely asymptomatic. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and elevated PTH, most commonly from a parathyroid adenoma.
A 45-year-old man with kidney stones, bone pain, and depression has calcium of 11.9 mg/dL and PTH four times normal. What is the definitive treatment?
Answer: Parathyroidectomy
Parathyroidectomy is the definitive treatment for symptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism, providing a surgical cure.
Which of the following is the most common type of thyroid cancer, accounting for approximately 80% of cases?
Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer with the best prognosis; it spreads via lymphatics and is associated with radiation exposure.
A patient with medullary thyroid carcinoma is found to have a RET proto-oncogene mutation. Which familial syndrome should be investigated?
Answer: Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2)
Medullary thyroid carcinoma is a component of MEN2, which is caused by RET proto-oncogene mutations and also includes pheochromocytoma.
A 55-year-old man with Type 2 DM, HbA1c 9.5%, BMI 34, and established cardiovascular disease is on metformin and a sulfonylurea. Which additional agent provides the most proven cardiovascular mortality benefit?
Answer: Empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor)
SGLT2 inhibitors such as empagliflozin have demonstrated significant cardiovascular mortality reduction in patients with established cardiovascular disease and Type 2 DM.
A 28-year-old woman with Type 1 DM is found unresponsive with fingerstick glucose of 28 mg/dL. No IV access is available. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
Answer: Intramuscular glucagon injection
IM glucagon is the correct treatment for an unconscious hypoglycemic patient without IV access, as oral agents cannot be safely administered.
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
Answer: Peripheral insulin resistance combined with progressive beta-cell dysfunction
Type 2 DM involves both peripheral insulin resistance and progressive pancreatic beta-cell dysfunction, leading to relative insulin deficiency over time.