Mixed Deck — All PCP Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real PCP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All PCP Topics flashcards as text
A paramedic crew is involved in a motor vehicle accident while responding to a call. According to most protocols, what is the FIRST notification that must be made?
Answer: Notify dispatch and follow agency protocol for responder injuries
Dispatch must be notified immediately so another unit can respond to the original call and agency protocols for responder injury can be activated.
Which of the following best describes compensated shock in a pediatric patient?
Answer: Normal blood pressure with tachycardia and poor perfusion
Children compensate for shock by maintaining near-normal BP through tachycardia and vasoconstriction — hypotension is a late, ominous sign.
What is one thing you should NOT do when treating a patient with an acute abdomen?
Answer: Attempt to diagnose the cause of the problem.
Explanation: One thing you should NOT do when treating a patient with an acute abdomen is to attempt to diagnose the cause of the problem. Diagnosing the cause of an acute abdomen requires medical expertise and diagnostic tests that are beyond the scope of practice for a paramedic. Instead, focus on managing the patient's symptoms, providing supportive care, and promptly transporting the patient to a medical facility for further evaluation and treatment by a physician.
The 4 H's and 4 T's of PEA/asystole include Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypo/Hyperkalemia, Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins, and:
Answer: Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary)
The 4 T's are Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins, and Thrombosis (pulmonary embolism or AMI).
The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) evaluates which three components?
Answer: Appearance, Work of Breathing, Circulation to Skin
The PAT rapidly assesses Appearance (tone, interactiveness), Work of Breathing (effort, sounds), and Circulation to Skin (color, mottling).
Which of the following is the preferred site for intraosseous (IO) access in a pediatric patient?
Answer: Proximal tibia, anteromedial surface
The proximal tibia (anteromedial surface, 2 cm below the tibial tuberosity) is the primary IO site in pediatric patients.
A child presents with sudden onset of barking cough, stridor, and mild respiratory distress without drooling or toxic appearance. The most appropriate prehospital action is:
Answer: Calm the child, keep with caregiver, cool mist if available, transport
Croup management focuses on minimizing agitation — keep the child calm with the caregiver and provide cool humidified oxygen if available.
When ventilating a pediatric patient with a BVM, you should use:
Answer: Only enough volume to produce visible chest rise
Ventilate pediatric patients with only enough volume to produce visible chest rise to avoid barotrauma and gastric distension.
What is the appropriate oxygen flow rate when using a non-rebreather mask?
Answer: 10–15 L/min
A non-rebreather mask requires 10–15 L/min to keep the reservoir bag inflated and deliver ~90% oxygen.
Placental abruption (abruptio placentae) classically presents with:
Answer: Painful, dark vaginal bleeding with a rigid uterus
Placental abruption presents with painful uterine contractions, a rigid/board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding from premature placental separation.
At what gestational age is a fetus generally considered viable outside the womb?
Answer: 24–28 weeks
Viability is generally considered to begin at 24–28 weeks gestation with intensive neonatal care.
Which of the following is the correct joule setting for synchronized cardioversion of an unstable narrow-complex tachycardia?
Answer: 50–100 J biphasic
Synchronized cardioversion for narrow-complex tachycardia begins at 50–100 J biphasic and is escalated as needed.
During BVM ventilation, the mask should be held using which hand position?
Answer: E-C clamp technique
The E-C clamp technique uses the third, fourth, and fifth fingers to lift the jaw (E) while the thumb and index finger seal the mask (C).
Which route of administration provides the fastest onset of drug action?
Answer: Intravenous (IV)
Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, providing the fastest onset of action.
For a 10 kg child in cardiac arrest, what is the correct defibrillation dose?
Answer: 2 J/kg (20 J)
Initial pediatric defibrillation is 2 J/kg; subsequent shocks are 4 J/kg.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer infant CPR?
Answer: 15:2
Two-rescuer infant CPR uses a 15:2 ratio, allowing more frequent ventilations given the respiratory etiology of most pediatric arrests.
A patient is found in a structure fire with severe burns and singed facial hair. Which is the PRIORITY action before transport?
Answer: Secure a definitive airway due to risk of inhalation injury
Singed facial hair and eyebrows indicate potential inhalation injury with rapid airway edema; early intubation is the priority before swelling occludes the airway.
What is the first step you should take when you start to size up a scene?
Answer: Do a Body Substance Isolation (BSI).
Explanation: While ensuring scene safety is critical, so is protecting oneself from potential exposure to infectious materials. Before engaging further, paramedics should prioritize their safety by donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves, goggles, and masks, to prevent contact with bodily fluids or other hazardous substances.
The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
Answer: Flumazenil
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation.
A patient at 10 weeks gestation presents with unilateral pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding, and hypotension. You suspect:
Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
A ruptured ectopic pregnancy causes severe unilateral pain, vaginal bleeding, and hemodynamic instability in early pregnancy.