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PANRE Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with a painless foot ulcer. ABI is 0.6. Which is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Refer for vascular surgery evaluation

    An ABI of 0.6 indicates significant peripheral arterial disease, requiring vascular surgery evaluation before wound healing can proceed.

  2. A 72-year-old woman on warfarin for atrial fibrillation is started on fluconazole. What is the expected effect?

    Answer: Increased INR due to CYP2C9 inhibition

    Fluconazole inhibits CYP2C9, which metabolizes warfarin's S-enantiomer, leading to elevated INR and bleeding risk.

  3. A 45-year-old woman presents with episodic hypertension, headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations. Which initial test is most appropriate?

    Answer: 24-hour urine catecholamines and metanephrines

    The classic triad of headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations with episodic hypertension suggests pheochromocytoma, best screened with 24-hour urine metanephrines.

  4. A 3-year-old child is brought in with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which pathogen is most likely responsible?

    Answer: Parainfluenza virus

    Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is most commonly caused by parainfluenza virus type 1 and presents with the characteristic barking cough and stridor.

  5. Which finding on ECG is most consistent with hyperkalemia?

    Answer: Peaked T waves with widened QRS

    Hyperkalemia classically produces peaked/tall T waves, followed by QRS widening, PR prolongation, and eventually a sine-wave pattern.

  6. A 65-year-old man with COPD is noted to have a hematocrit of 56%. Which mechanism best explains this finding?

    Answer: Secondary polycythemia from chronic hypoxemia

    Chronic hypoxemia in COPD stimulates erythropoietin release, causing secondary polycythemia as a compensatory response.

  7. A 28-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and weight loss of 8 pounds. Urine shows ketonuria. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

    Hyperemesis gravidarum is defined by intractable vomiting in pregnancy causing dehydration, ketonuria, and weight loss exceeding 5% of pre-pregnancy weight.