Ultimate PANRE Flashcards
7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Ultimate PANRE flashcards as text
A 62-year-old male with a history of chronic liver disease presents with confusion, asterixis, and elevated ammonia. Which medication is first-line to reduce ammonia production in the gut?
Answer: Lactulose
Lactulose is first-line for hepatic encephalopathy; it acidifies the colon, trapping ammonia as ammonium (NH4+) and promoting its excretion.
A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with stage IIIa non-small cell lung cancer. She has no druggable mutations. What is the standard of care?
Answer: Concurrent chemoradiation followed by durvalumab
Stage III NSCLC without resectable disease is treated with concurrent chemoradiation followed by consolidation durvalumab (anti-PD-L1) per the PACIFIC trial.
A 4-year-old presents with a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower extremities, colicky abdominal pain, arthritis, and hematuria. Labs show normal platelet count. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein purpura)
IgA vasculitis (HSP) is characterized by palpable purpura on buttocks/lower extremities, arthritis, abdominal pain, and renal involvement with normal platelet count.
A 48-year-old male with a history of alcoholism presents with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. What is the immediate treatment?
Answer: Thiamine followed by glucose
Thiamine must be administered before glucose in alcoholic patients to prevent precipitating or worsening Wernicke encephalopathy; then glucose is given.
A 35-year-old woman presents with severe, unilateral periorbital pain occurring nightly for 3 weeks, lasting 45 minutes, with ipsilateral lacrimation and rhinorrhea. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Cluster headache
Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral periorbital pain with ipsilateral autonomic features (lacrimation, rhinorrhea) occurring in clusters, often nocturnally.
Which medication used for type 2 diabetes has the most evidence for reducing cardiovascular mortality in patients with established cardiovascular disease?
Answer: Empagliflozin
SGLT-2 inhibitors like empagliflozin have demonstrated significant reduction in cardiovascular death and hospitalization for heart failure in the EMPA-REG OUTCOME trial.
A 68-year-old man with a 40 pack-year history presents with a 2.5 cm solitary pulmonary nodule. PET scan shows no FDG uptake. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: CT surveillance at 3-month intervals
A solid pulmonary nodule ≥6 mm in a high-risk patient with no PET activity warrants serial CT surveillance per Fleischner Society guidelines rather than immediate biopsy.