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Orthopedics Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Orthopedics flashcards as text

  1. A 30-year-old male presents with a 'dinner fork' deformity of the wrist after a fall on an outstretched hand. X-ray confirms a Colles fracture. What is the hallmark of this fracture?

    Answer: Dorsal angulation of the distal radius with radial shortening

    Colles fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation and radial shortening, classically causing the 'dinner fork' deformity.

  2. Which special test is used to evaluate for rotator cuff impingement?

    Answer: Neer impingement sign

    The Neer impingement sign is performed by passively forward-flexing the arm with the forearm pronated; pain indicates subacromial impingement.

  3. A 65-year-old male with a known history of gout is found to have chalky white deposits over his Achilles tendon and ear helices. What are these deposits called?

    Answer: Tophi

    Tophi are deposits of monosodium urate crystals that form in chronic tophaceous gout, commonly at pressure points and cooler areas like the ear helix.

  4. A 5-year-old boy presents with a limp and hip pain. X-ray shows flattening and increased density of the femoral head. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

    Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children aged 4–10, appearing as a flattened, sclerotic femoral head on X-ray.

  5. A patient sustains a proximal humerus fracture. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury?

    Answer: Axillary nerve

    The axillary nerve passes inferior to the glenohumeral joint and around the surgical neck of the humerus, making it vulnerable in proximal humerus fractures.

  6. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test for suspected osteomyelitis when X-rays are negative?

    Answer: MRI of the affected area

    MRI is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality for diagnosing osteomyelitis, capable of detecting early infection before changes are visible on plain radiographs.

  7. A PA who evaluates a construction worker with acute low back pain finds no neurological deficits and no red flags. What is the most appropriate initial management?

    Answer: NSAIDs, activity modification, and follow-up in 4–6 weeks

    Acute low back pain without red flags or neurologic deficits is managed conservatively with NSAIDs, staying active as tolerated, and reassessment at 4–6 weeks.