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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 25-year-old woman presents with 7 weeks of amenorrhea, left lower quadrant pain, and vaginal spotting. Serum hCG is 2,200 mIU/mL and transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Methotrexate 50 mg/m² IM

    A hemodynamically stable patient with a presumed unruptured ectopic pregnancy, hCG <5,000, and no contraindications is a candidate for medical management with methotrexate.

  2. Which maternal serum marker is characteristically low in trisomy 21 on second-trimester quad screening?

    Answer: Unconjugated estriol

    In Down syndrome, unconjugated estriol (uE3) is low, while hCG and inhibin A are elevated and AFP is low on quad screen.

  3. A 32-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks is diagnosed with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). She is GBS-negative and has no signs of infection. What is the standard of care?

    Answer: Expectant management with latency antibiotics and antenatal corticosteroids

    PPROM between 34 and 36+6 weeks is managed expectantly with latency antibiotics and corticosteroids until delivery is indicated or spontaneous labor occurs.

  4. A 40-year-old woman has menorrhagia and a uterus enlarged to 12 weeks size with multiple fibroids. She has completed childbearing. She wants a definitive solution. What is the most appropriate option?

    Answer: Hysterectomy

    Hysterectomy is the definitive treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids in a woman who has completed childbearing and wants no further pregnancies.

  5. A 19-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first gynecologic visit. According to current USPSTF guidelines, at what age should cervical cancer screening (Pap smear) begin?

    Answer: Age 21

    Current guidelines recommend beginning cervical cancer screening with cytology alone at age 21, regardless of sexual activity onset.

  6. A 34-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 158 mg/dL. A subsequent 3-hour 100g OGTT shows: fasting 92, 1-hr 182, 2-hr 154, 3-hr 138 mg/dL. How many values are abnormal?

    Answer: Two abnormal values — gestational diabetes diagnosed

    Using Carpenter-Coustan criteria (fasting ≥95, 1-hr ≥180, 2-hr ≥155, 3-hr ≥140), the 1-hr (182) and 2-hr (154) values are abnormal, diagnosing GDM with ≥2 abnormal values.

  7. A 62-year-old woman presents with a pelvic organ prolapse bulging beyond the introitus, bladder symptoms, and significant quality-of-life impairment. She fails pessary management. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Surgical repair

    Symptomatic prolapse that fails conservative management (pessary, pelvic PT) with significant quality-of-life impact is an indication for surgical repair.