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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden painless vaginal bleeding. Her uterus is soft and nontender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Placenta previa

    Painless vaginal bleeding with a soft, nontender uterus in the third trimester is the classic presentation of placenta previa.

  2. A 35-year-old woman with PCOS is anovulatory and desires conception. After lifestyle modification fails, what is the first-line pharmacologic ovulation induction agent?

    Answer: Letrozole

    Letrozole (an aromatase inhibitor) is now preferred over clomiphene as first-line ovulation induction in PCOS due to higher live birth rates.

  3. A 24-year-old presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. CA-125 is mildly elevated. What is the gold standard for diagnosis?

    Answer: Diagnostic laparoscopy

    Diagnostic laparoscopy with biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis, as imaging modalities cannot detect peritoneal implants reliably.

  4. Which fetal heart rate pattern is most concerning for uteroplacental insufficiency during labor?

    Answer: Late decelerations

    Late decelerations—nadir after the peak of a contraction—reflect uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxemia.

  5. A postmenopausal woman on tamoxifen for breast cancer presents with abnormal uterine bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Endometrial biopsy

    Any postmenopausal bleeding in a tamoxifen user warrants endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial carcinoma, given tamoxifen's uterotrophic effects.

  6. A 31-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks has a Bishop score of 4. She is being considered for labor induction. Which agent is appropriate for cervical ripening?

    Answer: Misoprostol or dinoprostone

    An unfavorable cervix (Bishop score <6) requires cervical ripening with prostaglandins such as misoprostol or dinoprostone before or alongside induction.

  7. A 26-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation is found to have a urine culture positive for asymptomatic bacteriuria with >100,000 CFU/mL of E. coli. What is the correct management?

    Answer: Treat with nitrofurantoin or cephalexin

    Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy requires antibiotic treatment to prevent progression to pyelonephritis and adverse fetal outcomes.