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Neurology Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Neurology flashcards as text

  1. A 68-year-old man presents with sudden onset of the worst headache of his life. CT head is negative. What is the next best step?

    Answer: Lumbar puncture

    A negative CT does not rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage; lumbar puncture is required to detect xanthochromia or RBCs that persist after centrifugation.

  2. Which medication is first-line for absence seizures in a 10-year-old child?

    Answer: Ethosuximide

    Ethosuximide is first-line for childhood absence epilepsy because it targets thalamic T-type calcium channels responsible for spike-and-wave discharges.

  3. A patient with multiple sclerosis develops painful, unilateral vision loss with a central scotoma. Which structure is most likely inflamed?

    Answer: Optic nerve

    Optic neuritis — inflammation of the optic nerve — is a common initial presentation of MS and causes monocular vision loss with pain on eye movement.

  4. A 55-year-old presents with resting tremor, bradykinesia, and cogwheel rigidity. Which neurotransmitter pathway is most affected?

    Answer: Nigrostriatal dopaminergic

    Parkinson disease results from degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, disrupting the nigrostriatal pathway.

  5. A 72-year-old woman on warfarin falls and loses consciousness. CT shows a lens-shaped hyperdense collection. Which vessel is most likely injured?

    Answer: Middle meningeal artery

    An epidural hematoma has a biconvex (lens-shaped) appearance and typically results from rupture of the middle meningeal artery after temporal bone fracture.

  6. Which finding on nerve conduction studies best distinguishes demyelinating neuropathy from axonal neuropathy?

    Answer: Slowed conduction velocity with conduction block

    Demyelinating neuropathies are characterized by markedly slowed conduction velocities and conduction block, reflecting impaired myelin function rather than axon loss.

  7. A patient presents with ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia. What is the immediate priority treatment?

    Answer: Thiamine (vitamin B1) administration

    This classic triad represents Wernicke encephalopathy; thiamine must be given before glucose to prevent worsening or precipitation of the syndrome.