Gastroenterology Flashcards
7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Gastroenterology flashcards as text
A 55-year-old male presents with dysphagia to solids only that has progressively worsened over 6 months along with a 15-pound weight loss. Which diagnosis is most concerning?
Answer: Esophageal carcinoma
Progressive dysphagia to solids with significant weight loss in an older male raises high concern for esophageal carcinoma.
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States?
Answer: Gallstones
Gallstones are the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the US, followed by alcohol as the second most common cause.
A 40-year-old woman with known Crohn's disease presents with right lower quadrant pain, fever, and a palpable mass. Which complication should be suspected?
Answer: Intra-abdominal abscess
A palpable mass with fever in Crohn's disease strongly suggests an intra-abdominal abscess, a known complication of transmural inflammation.
A 62-year-old man with cirrhosis develops confusion, asterixis, and an elevated ammonia level. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Answer: Lactulose
Lactulose is first-line therapy for hepatic encephalopathy as it reduces ammonia absorption by acidifying colonic contents.
A 70-year-old man with a history of NSAID use presents with epigastric pain and melena. Endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer with a visible vessel. What is the endoscopic treatment of choice?
Answer: Hemoclip or thermal coagulation plus epinephrine injection
Combination therapy with a mechanical method (hemoclip) or thermal coagulation plus epinephrine injection is the standard of care for high-risk ulcers with visible vessels.
Which lab finding is most characteristic of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)?
Answer: Elevated alkaline phosphatase with positive anti-mitochondrial antibody
PBC is characterized by elevated alkaline phosphatase (cholestatic pattern) and the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) in >90% of cases.
A patient with celiac disease continues to have diarrhea and weight loss despite strict gluten avoidance. What should be the next step in management?
Answer: Reassess dietary compliance and consider refractory celiac disease workup
Persistent symptoms despite gluten-free diet require reassessment of dietary adherence and consideration of refractory celiac disease, which may require biopsy and further evaluation.