Endocrinology Flashcards
7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Endocrinology flashcards as text
A 60-year-old woman on bisphosphonate therapy for osteoporosis has a 'drug holiday' recommended after 5 years. Which bisphosphonate characteristic makes this most appropriate?
Answer: Prolonged skeletal retention and residual effect after discontinuation
Bisphosphonates have a prolonged half-life in bone (years), providing continued fracture protection after discontinuation, which supports a drug holiday to minimize risks like atypical femur fractures.
Which HbA1c threshold is used to diagnose diabetes mellitus?
Answer: ≥ 6.5%
An HbA1c ≥ 6.5% on two separate occasions (or once with confirmatory testing) meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus per ADA guidelines.
A patient with Hashimoto thyroiditis is euthyroid. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Monitor TSH periodically
Euthyroid Hashimoto thyroiditis requires no treatment; TSH should be monitored annually (or sooner if symptomatic) since hypothyroidism may develop over time.
A 70-year-old man has a serum calcium of 11.4 mg/dL, PTH of 85 pg/mL (elevated), and eGFR of 72. He is asymptomatic. What is the best management?
Answer: Observation with monitoring of calcium, BMD, and renal function
Asymptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism with mild hypercalcemia and preserved renal function can be managed with watchful observation using periodic monitoring of calcium, BMD, and renal function per surgical guidelines.
Which GLP-1 receptor agonist is approved for weight management in non-diabetic obese patients?
Answer: Semaglutide (2.4 mg subcutaneous weekly)
Semaglutide 2.4 mg weekly (Wegovy) is FDA-approved for chronic weight management in adults with obesity or overweight with at least one weight-related comorbidity.
A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with blood glucose of 650 mg/dL, pH 7.20, bicarbonate 12 mEq/L, and large ketones. What is the hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis that distinguishes it from hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state?
Answer: Significant ketonemia and anion gap metabolic acidosis
DKA is defined by the triad of hyperglycemia, ketonemia/ketonuria, and anion gap metabolic acidosis, which distinguishes it from HHS where ketosis and acidosis are absent or minimal.
A thyroid nodule biopsy returns as Bethesda Category IV (follicular neoplasm). What is the next step?
Answer: Diagnostic thyroid lobectomy
Bethesda IV (follicular neoplasm) carries a 15-30% malignancy risk; diagnostic lobectomy is recommended as FNA cannot distinguish follicular adenoma from carcinoma (capsular/vascular invasion requires histology).