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Emergency Medicine Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Emergency Medicine flashcards as text

  1. A 40-year-old male presents with a high-pressure injection injury to the index finger from a paint gun. The wound looks deceptively small. What is the correct management?

    Answer: Emergent hand surgery consultation for surgical debridement

    High-pressure injection injuries spread material along fascial planes and carry a high risk of tissue necrosis and amputation; emergent surgical debridement is mandatory.

  2. A 55-year-old presents with sudden-onset tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 180/100 in the right arm and 140/80 in the left arm. CT angiography is ordered. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Type A aortic dissection

    Tearing chest pain with inter-arm blood pressure differential strongly suggests aortic dissection; Type A involves the ascending aorta and requires emergent surgery.

  3. A 19-year-old presents with fever, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching petechial rash spreading rapidly. What pathogen is most likely responsible?

    Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

    Neisseria meningitidis causes meningococcemia, characterized by rapidly spreading petechiae or purpura that do not blanch, indicating a septicemic emergency.

  4. A 72-year-old woman on digoxin presents with nausea, yellow-green visual halos, and bradycardia with a heart rate of 40 bpm. Digoxin level is 3.2 ng/mL. What is the specific antidote?

    Answer: Digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind/DigiFab)

    Digoxin toxicity with life-threatening bradycardia is treated with digoxin-specific Fab antibody fragments, which rapidly bind and inactivate free digoxin.

  5. A 34-year-old female presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and dyspnea 5 days after knee surgery. D-dimer is elevated. CT-PA confirms pulmonary embolism. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the first-line treatment?

    Answer: Anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin or LMWH

    Hemodynamically stable pulmonary embolism is treated with therapeutic anticoagulation; thrombolytics are reserved for massive PE with hemodynamic compromise.

  6. A 6-year-old presents with wheezing, accessory muscle use, and an O2 saturation of 88%. After two doses of nebulized albuterol and one dose of ipratropium, the patient's condition is unchanged. What should be added?

    Answer: IV or oral corticosteroids and consider IV magnesium sulfate

    Severe acute asthma unresponsive to bronchodilators requires systemic corticosteroids and IV magnesium sulfate, which acts as a bronchodilator.

  7. A 25-year-old presents after ingesting unknown pills with pinpoint pupils, respiratory rate of 6, and a GCS of 6. What is the immediate pharmacologic intervention?

    Answer: Naloxone IV or IM

    The opioid toxidrome (miosis, respiratory depression, CNS depression) is reversed with naloxone, an opioid receptor antagonist.