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Emergency Medicine Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Emergency Medicine flashcards as text

  1. A 55-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows ST elevations in leads V1-V4. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

    Answer: Administer IV heparin and arrange emergent PCI

    STEMI with anterior wall involvement requires immediate reperfusion via primary PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact, with anticoagulation.

  2. A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life.' CT head is negative. What is the next best step?

    Answer: Perform lumbar puncture to evaluate for xanthochromia

    A thunderclap headache with negative CT requires lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia, which indicates subarachnoid hemorrhage.

  3. An 8-year-old child presents with inspiratory stridor, drooling, and prefers to sit in a tripod position. Temperature is 39.5°C. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Epiglottitis

    Epiglottitis presents with the classic triad of drooling, dysphagia, and distress along with high fever and a tripod posture to maintain airway patency.

  4. A 70-year-old man on warfarin presents after a fall with a GCS of 12 and INR of 3.8. CT shows a subdural hematoma. What reversal agent should be administered?

    Answer: 4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC)

    4F-PCC provides rapid reversal of warfarin anticoagulation and is preferred over FFP for emergent reversal due to faster onset and lower volume.

  5. A 45-year-old presents with acute scrotal pain of 2 hours duration. The testicle is tender, elevated, and the cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the priority action?

    Answer: Arrange immediate surgical exploration

    Absent cremasteric reflex with acute scrotal pain is testicular torsion until proven otherwise; surgical detorsion within 6 hours is critical to salvage the testicle.

  6. A patient presents with altered mental status, fever of 40°C, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability after starting a new antipsychotic. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered consciousness following antipsychotic use.

  7. A 25-year-old presents with a deep laceration over the MCP joint after punching someone in the mouth. How should this wound be managed?

    Answer: Irrigate, leave open, splint, and prescribe antibiotics covering oral flora

    Fight bites over the MCP joint carry a high risk of septic arthritis from oral flora; the wound must be left open, irrigated, splinted, and treated with antibiotics such as amoxicillin-clavulanate.