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Infectious Disease Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Infectious Disease flashcards as text

  1. A 35-year-old patient with HIV (CD4 count 150 cells/µL) presents with painless white plaques on the lateral tongue that cannot be scraped off. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Oral hairy leukoplakia

    Oral hairy leukoplakia, caused by EBV reactivation, appears as non-removable white plaques on the lateral tongue and is an AIDS-defining condition marker in HIV patients.

  2. A 25-year-old woman presents with fever, bilateral joint pain (wrists, knees), skin lesions (pustules on erythematous base), and tenosynovitis of the right hand. Cervical cultures are positive. What is the most appropriate treatment?

    Answer: Ceftriaxone 1 g IV/IM daily × 7 days

    Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) causing septic arthritis-dermatitis syndrome is treated with ceftriaxone 1 g IV/IM daily for 7 days.

  3. A 45-year-old patient who received a renal transplant 6 months ago presents with fever, dyspnea, and non-productive cough. CT chest shows bilateral ground-glass opacities. BAL with Gomori methenamine silver stain reveals cysts. What is the treatment?

    Answer: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

    Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) in immunocompromised patients is treated with high-dose trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) as first-line therapy.

  4. A 28-year-old male presents with a painless scrotal swelling. Urethral culture is positive for an intracellular gram-negative diplococci. He also complains of urethral discharge. Which is the recommended dual therapy per current CDC guidelines?

    Answer: Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM + doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days

    Current CDC guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg IM (single dose) plus doxycycline 100 mg BID × 7 days for uncomplicated gonorrhea to cover co-infection with chlamydia.

  5. A 70-year-old woman presents with confusion, fever, and flank pain. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. Blood cultures are positive. She has a penicillin allergy (rash). Which antibiotic is most appropriate for gram-negative bacteremia?

    Answer: Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV

    Ciprofloxacin IV is an appropriate alternative for gram-negative bacteremia (urosepsis) in patients with penicillin allergy, as fluoroquinolones cover common urinary gram-negative pathogens.

  6. A patient exposed to a bat in their bedroom is brought to the ED. The bat was not captured for testing. The patient has no visible bite marks but was asleep. What is the appropriate management?

    Answer: Administer rabies immune globulin at wound site plus initiate rabies PEP vaccine series

    Bat exposure in a sleeping person (potential unrecognized bite) is considered a high-risk rabies exposure; post-exposure prophylaxis (RIG + 4-dose vaccine) is indicated.

  7. A 55-year-old diabetic presents with fever, crepitus, and rapidly spreading necrosis of the scrotum and perineum. CT shows subcutaneous gas. What is the immediate management priority?

    Answer: Emergent surgical debridement plus broad-spectrum IV antibiotics

    Fournier's gangrene (necrotizing fasciitis of the perineum) requires immediate surgical debridement as the cornerstone of treatment, combined with broad-spectrum IV antibiotics; delay increases mortality significantly.