Certified Nutrition Support Clinician (CNSC) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When using a combination of hearing protectors (earplugs and earmuffs together), how is the effective NRR calculated?

The higher NRR device is used alone and the other is ignored
The two NRR values are added together for a combined total
Multiply the two NRR values to determine combined protection
Add 5 dB to the higher NRR rather than adding both values together (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Add 5 dB to the higher NRR rather than adding both values together

When dual hearing protection is used, OSHA and NIOSH recommend adding only 5 dB to the higher NRR value, as the skull itself becomes a sound conduction path limiting additional attenuation.

Question 2: The following are the liver cirrhosis's clinical symptoms.

Abnormal swelling
Sleeping
Ascites and hypoalbuminemia (Correct answer)
Fat malabsorption

Correct answer: Ascites and hypoalbuminemia

Liver cirrhosis impairs the liver's ability to synthesize albumin, a critical protein for maintaining oncotic pressure, leading to hypoalbuminemia. This low albumin level causes fluid to leak from blood vessels into the abdominal cavity, resulting in ascites. Therefore, ascites and hypoalbuminemia are key clinical indications of liver cirrhosis.

Question 3: Which OSHA standard requires a written emergency action plan (EAP) for workplaces with more than 10 employees?

29 CFR 1910.38 (Correct answer)
29 CFR 1910.36
29 CFR 1910.165
29 CFR 1910.119

Correct answer: 29 CFR 1910.38

29 CFR 1910.38 requires covered employers with more than 10 employees to maintain a written emergency action plan.

Question 4: High-visibility safety apparel (HVSA) is classified under ANSI/ISEA 107. Which class is required for workers exposed to high-speed traffic environments such as highway construction zones?

Class 3 — highest visibility for high-risk environments (Correct answer)
Class 0 — reflective vest for low-light only
Class 2 — significant risk with moderate traffic
Class 1 — minimal risk environment

Correct answer: Class 3 — highest visibility for high-risk environments

ANSI/ISEA 107 Class 3 provides the greatest amount of high-visibility material and retroreflectivity, required where workers are exposed to high-speed vehicle traffic.

Question 5: What is the primary purpose of the 'space cushion' concept in defensive driving?

To reduce fuel consumption by drafting
To allow other drivers to merge more easily
To comply with minimum following distance laws
To provide time and space to react to unexpected hazards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide time and space to react to unexpected hazards

A space cushion gives you reaction time and maneuvering room to avoid crashes when hazards appear suddenly.

Question 6: A worker must enter a confined space with limited openings that may contain hazardous atmospheres. What is required?

Lockout/tagout authorization
Elevated work permit
Hot work permit
Confined space entry permit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Confined space entry permit

A confined space entry permit is required before entering permit-required confined spaces to document safety precautions.

Question 7: What is the danger zone around a school bus when it is stopped with flashing red lights?

The area within 10 feet of the bus on all sides (Correct answer)
5 feet on each side
10 feet in front and behind
Only the lane directly behind the bus

Correct answer: The area within 10 feet of the bus on all sides

The 10-foot danger zone surrounds all sides of the bus where children are most at risk of not being seen by the driver.

Question 8: Which step should IMMEDIATELY follow hazard recognition according to the NSC safety process?

Purchase new PPE for all workers
Notify OSHA of the finding
Evaluate the risk level of the hazard (Correct answer)
Document the hazard in the OSHA 300 log

Correct answer: Evaluate the risk level of the hazard

After recognizing a hazard, evaluating its risk—considering likelihood and severity—guides the selection of appropriate controls.

Question 9: Which of the following distractions is classified as 'cognitive' in NSC's distracted driving framework?

Adjusting the radio dial
Eating while driving
Looking at a map on the dashboard
Talking hands-free on a cell phone (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Talking hands-free on a cell phone

Hands-free calls are cognitive distractions because mental focus shifts away from driving even though hands remain on the wheel.

Question 10: When counseling workers about reducing cardiovascular risk through diet, which type of fat should be most limited?

Omega-3 fatty acids
Polyunsaturated fat
Trans fat (Correct answer)
Monounsaturated fat

Correct answer: Trans fat

Trans fats raise LDL (bad) cholesterol and lower HDL (good) cholesterol, significantly increasing cardiovascular disease risk.

Question 11: What should a worker do FIRST upon discovering an uncontrolled hazardous chemical spill?

Dilute the spill with water to reduce concentration
Evacuate the area and notify the supervisor or emergency response team (Correct answer)
Check the SDS before taking any action
Immediately begin cleaning the spill with absorbents

Correct answer: Evacuate the area and notify the supervisor or emergency response team

The first priority in an uncontrolled spill is to evacuate and alert emergency responders to prevent further injury.

Question 12: What should a rescuer do if they are unable or unwilling to give rescue breaths during CPR?

Perform CPR at half the normal rate
Give breaths only without compressions
Stop and wait for EMS
Perform hands-only (compression-only) CPR (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Perform hands-only (compression-only) CPR

Hands-only CPR (continuous chest compressions without rescue breaths) is effective and recommended when a rescuer cannot or will not give breaths.

Question 13: Which burn classification involves damage through all skin layers, possibly into muscle or bone?

Partial thickness (second-degree)
Full thickness (third-degree) (Correct answer)
Subdermal (fourth-degree)
Superficial (first-degree)

Correct answer: Full thickness (third-degree)

Full thickness (third-degree) burns destroy all layers of the skin and may involve underlying tissue, muscle, or bone.

Question 14: Under OSHA's Lockout/Tagout standard, which step must be performed FIRST in an energy control procedure?

Identify all energy sources (Correct answer)
Apply lockout/tagout devices
Notify affected employees
Verify zero energy state

Correct answer: Identify all energy sources

The first step in LOTO is to identify all energy sources (electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic, etc.) before any other action.

Question 15: How often should portable fire extinguishers in a workplace be visually inspected according to OSHA and NFPA 10?

Weekly
Monthly (Correct answer)
Annually
Quarterly

Correct answer: Monthly

NFPA 10 and OSHA 1910.157 require portable fire extinguishers to be visually inspected at least monthly.

Question 16: What is the maximum free-fall distance allowed by OSHA when using a personal fall arrest system?

10 feet
6 feet (Correct answer)
3.5 feet
12 feet

Correct answer: 6 feet

OSHA limits free fall to 6 feet or less when using a PFAS to cap the forces experienced during arrest.

Question 17: Per NSC recommendations, what is the first step in a fall protection hierarchy before selecting equipment?

Eliminate the fall hazard entirely (Correct answer)
Write a rescue plan
Install guardrails
Select appropriate PPE

Correct answer: Eliminate the fall hazard entirely

The hierarchy of controls places hazard elimination first — redesigning tasks or structures so the fall hazard no longer exists — before any protective measures.

Question 18: What is the purpose of a fire watch?

To guard fire extinguishers during a shift
To count the number of employees during evacuation
To monitor an area for fire after hot work is completed (Correct answer)
To inspect sprinkler heads quarterly

Correct answer: To monitor an area for fire after hot work is completed

A fire watch involves a designated person monitoring an area for fire hazards after hot work operations such as welding.

Question 19: What information must be documented in a fall protection plan for steel erection work?

Identification of fall hazards, selected methods, and rescue procedures (Correct answer)
Worker performance reviews
Cost estimates for fall protection equipment
Union labor agreements

Correct answer: Identification of fall hazards, selected methods, and rescue procedures

A fall protection plan must identify each fall hazard, specify the fall protection method selected, and include procedures for prompt rescue of fallen workers.

Question 20: Which type of anchorage must be used when a single worker is attached and requires the anchorage to support fall arrest forces?

Any fixed point approved by a supervisor
An anchorage capable of supporting 5,000 lbs per attached worker (Correct answer)
Any structural beam rated 1,000 lbs
A beam clamp attached to a 2-inch steel pipe

Correct answer: An anchorage capable of supporting 5,000 lbs per attached worker

OSHA requires fall arrest anchorages to support at least 5,000 pounds per worker attached, or be designed with a safety factor of 2 by a qualified engineer.

Question 21: Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action when a client discloses active suicidal ideation with a plan during a clinical evaluation?

Schedule a follow-up appointment for next week
Conduct a thorough risk assessment and initiate a safety plan or emergency referral (Correct answer)
Document and continue the evaluation
Notify the client's employer

Correct answer: Conduct a thorough risk assessment and initiate a safety plan or emergency referral

Active suicidal ideation with a plan requires immediate risk assessment and implementation of a safety plan or emergency intervention to protect the client's life.

Question 22: What is the purpose of establishing a 'chief complaint' at the start of a clinical evaluation?

To capture the client's primary concern in their own words (Correct answer)
To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis immediately
To determine treatment length
To satisfy billing requirements

Correct answer: To capture the client's primary concern in their own words

The chief complaint documents the client's own description of why they are seeking help, anchoring the evaluation in their perspective.

Question 23: At what minimum height above a lower level does OSHA require fall protection in general industry?

6 feet
4 feet (Correct answer)
10 feet
8 feet

Correct answer: 4 feet

OSHA's general industry standard (29 CFR 1910) requires fall protection when workers are exposed to falls of 4 feet or more.

Question 24: What is a Noise Reduction Rating (NRR) in the context of hearing protection?

The decibel level at which hearing protection is mandatory
A measure of how effectively a hearing protector reduces noise exposure (Correct answer)
The maximum noise level a hearing protector can withstand
The OSHA permissible exposure limit for noise

Correct answer: A measure of how effectively a hearing protector reduces noise exposure

NRR is a unit of measurement that quantifies the effectiveness of hearing protection devices in reducing sound exposure to the wearer.

Question 25: When a patient consumes anti-HIV Zerit, it may result in:

Malnutrition
Malaria
Lipodystrophy (Correct answer)
Headache

Correct answer: Lipodystrophy

Zerit (stavudine) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that was commonly used in early HIV treatment regimens. A well-documented and significant side effect associated with Zerit, particularly among older generation NRTIs, is lipodystrophy. This condition involves an abnormal redistribution of body fat, often characterized by fat loss in the face and limbs (lipoatrophy) and fat accumulation in areas like the abdomen or neck.

Question 26: Which dietary component is the body's preferred fuel source during high-intensity physical labor?

Dietary fat
Alcohol
Protein
Carbohydrates (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Carbohydrates

Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is the preferred and most rapidly available fuel for high-intensity muscular work.

Question 27: Which element is NOT required to be included on a GHS-compliant hazard label?

Precautionary statements
Signal word
Manufacturer's annual revenue (Correct answer)
Hazard pictograms

Correct answer: Manufacturer's annual revenue

GHS labels must include product identifier, signal word, hazard statements, precautionary statements, pictograms, and supplier info — not financial data.

Question 28: What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for in patient assessment?

Signs, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events
Signs, Age, Medical history, Pulse, Level of consciousness, Environment
Symptoms, Assessment, Medications, Pain, Location, Examination
Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent history, Last meal, Events (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent history, Last meal, Events

SAMPLE stands for Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent history, Last oral intake, and Events leading to the emergency.

Question 29: For a worker managing type 2 diabetes, which meal strategy is most important during a work shift?

Consuming regular, balanced meals and snacks to stabilize blood glucose (Correct answer)
Avoiding all carbohydrates during the shift
Drinking juice frequently to prevent hypoglycemia
Eating one large meal to simplify scheduling

Correct answer: Consuming regular, balanced meals and snacks to stabilize blood glucose

Consistent meal timing with balanced macronutrients prevents dangerous blood glucose fluctuations in workers with type 2 diabetes.

Question 30: What is the NSC's primary concern regarding energy drink consumption in the workplace?

They are too expensive for workers
They are not regulated by any agency
High caffeine and sugar content may cause energy crashes and impaired alertness (Correct answer)
They increase worker productivity too much

Correct answer: High caffeine and sugar content may cause energy crashes and impaired alertness

Energy drinks with high caffeine and sugar can cause initial stimulation followed by a crash, ultimately impairing the alertness and reaction time needed for safe work.

Question 31: With one exception, all of these are mediated by the digestive hormone gastrin.

Reduced of pepsinogen production by the stomach (Correct answer)
Increased in pressure of esophageal sphincter
Increase of HCL
Increased gallbladder contraction

Correct answer: Reduced of pepsinogen production by the stomach

Gastrin is a digestive hormone primarily responsible for stimulating gastric acid (HCl) secretion by parietal cells and increasing pepsinogen secretion by chief cells. It also enhances gastric motility and increases the pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter. Therefore, reducing pepsinogen production is an untrue statement regarding gastrin's actions, as it actually increases it.

Question 32: What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute for CPR?

120–140 per minute
100–120 per minute (Correct answer)
60–80 per minute
80–100 per minute

Correct answer: 100–120 per minute

CPR should be performed at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute to optimize blood circulation.

Question 33: What is the value of continuing education in defensive driving for NSC professionals?

It is primarily a social activity
It is only needed for recertification
It replaces workplace experience
It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices

Continuing education ensures professionals stay current with the latest developments, standards, and best practices in their field.

Question 34: Which MSD is characterized by numbness, tingling, and pain in the thumb, index, and middle fingers due to nerve compression at the wrist?

Lateral epicondylitis
Trigger finger
Carpal tunnel syndrome (Correct answer)
De Quervain's tenosynovitis

Correct answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, causing symptoms in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.

Question 35: Which component of a personal fall arrest system (PFAS) absorbs energy and limits the force on the worker during a fall?

Full-body harness
Self-retracting lifeline
Shock-absorbing lanyard (Correct answer)
Anchorage connector

Correct answer: Shock-absorbing lanyard

A shock-absorbing lanyard contains a deceleration device that deploys during a fall, extending the stop distance and reducing peak arrest forces.

Question 36: In the context of NSC clinical evaluation, what does 'level of care' determination refer to?

The severity of the counselor's caseload
The number of sessions covered by a managed care plan
The client's insurance coverage tier
Matching a client to the appropriate treatment intensity based on assessment findings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Matching a client to the appropriate treatment intensity based on assessment findings

Level of care determination uses ASAM criteria to match clients to the least restrictive but most appropriate treatment setting based on their clinical needs.

Question 37: Which of the following is a key principle of the 'Run, Hide, Fight' response to an active shooter event?

Immediately call news media to broadcast your location
Always attempt to negotiate with the shooter first
Evacuate if safely possible; if not, hide; fight only as a last resort (Correct answer)
Remain visible so law enforcement can locate you

Correct answer: Evacuate if safely possible; if not, hide; fight only as a last resort

The Run, Hide, Fight protocol prioritizes escaping if possible, hiding if escape is not an option, and only fighting as an absolute last resort.

Question 38: What minimum tensile strength must a top rail of a guardrail system be able to withstand per OSHA construction standards?

200 lbs outward or downward (Correct answer)
100 lbs in any direction
350 lbs at any point
500 lbs at mid-span

Correct answer: 200 lbs outward or downward

OSHA requires construction guardrail top rails to withstand at least 200 pounds of force applied outward or downward at any point.

Question 39: Which approach best describes a 'nudge' in a workplace nutrition intervention?

Fining workers for poor dietary choices
Placing fruits and vegetables at eye level in the cafeteria (Correct answer)
Prohibiting unhealthy foods entirely
Requiring nutrition classes for all employees

Correct answer: Placing fruits and vegetables at eye level in the cafeteria

A nudge subtly changes the environment to make healthier choices easier without restricting freedom, such as positioning healthy foods prominently.

Question 40: What does SIPDE stand for in the defensive driving decision-making process?

Slow, Inspect, Position, Drive, Exit
Speed, Identify, Predict, Decide, Execute
See, Indicate, Proceed, Decelerate, Evaluate
Scan, Identify, Predict, Decide, Execute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scan, Identify, Predict, Decide, Execute

SIPDE — Scan, Identify, Predict, Decide, Execute — is a systematic process for managing driving hazards.

Question 41: Which of the following would be considered a biological hazard in a healthcare setting?

Loud alarm systems
Bloodborne pathogen exposure from needlestick injuries (Correct answer)
Heavy lifting of patients
Slippery floors from mopping

Correct answer: Bloodborne pathogen exposure from needlestick injuries

Bloodborne pathogens transmitted through needlestick injuries are a recognized biological hazard in healthcare.

Question 42: What role does collaboration play in defensive driving for NSC professionals?

It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise (Correct answer)
It reduces individual accountability
It is only needed in emergencies
It slows down work unnecessarily

Correct answer: It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise

Collaboration leverages diverse perspectives and combined expertise to achieve better outcomes than any individual could alone.

Question 43: At what current level (in milliamps) can electrical shock cause ventricular fibrillation in the human heart?

500 mA
1 mA
100 mA (Correct answer)
10 mA

Correct answer: 100 mA

Currents as low as 100 milliamps (0.1 ampere) passing through the chest region can cause ventricular fibrillation and death.

Question 44: What is the purpose of an Arc Flash Risk Assessment in the workplace?

To certify electricians for high-voltage work
To document the age of electrical equipment in the facility
To identify the incident energy levels of electrical equipment and determine required PPE (Correct answer)
To audit fire suppression systems near electrical panels

Correct answer: To identify the incident energy levels of electrical equipment and determine required PPE

An arc flash risk assessment determines the energy level of potential arc flash events and the appropriate PPE category required.

Question 45: Which professional attribute is most valued in emergency preparedness within the NSC field?

Avoiding challenging situations
Working in isolation
Prioritizing personal convenience
Accountability and commitment to standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Accountability and commitment to standards

Accountability and commitment to professional standards build trust and ensure consistent, high-quality practice.

Question 46: What does OSHA require employers to do within 24 hours of a work-related inpatient hospitalization, amputation, or eye loss?

Suspend all operations
Report the incident to OSHA (Correct answer)
File OSHA Form 301
Conduct a third-party investigation

Correct answer: Report the incident to OSHA

OSHA requires employers to report inpatient hospitalizations, amputations, or eye losses within 24 hours of learning about them.

Question 47: Scaly, dry skin may be an indicator of malnutrition when conducting a physical examination that focuses on nutrition.

Cholesterol deficieny
Essential fatty acid deficiency (Correct answer)
Protein deficiency
Vitamin A toxicity

Correct answer: Essential fatty acid deficiency

Essential fatty acids (EFAs) are crucial for maintaining the integrity and function of skin cell membranes and the skin's barrier function. A deficiency in EFAs, particularly linoleic acid, can lead to impaired skin health, manifesting as characteristic symptoms like scaly, dry, and flaky skin, often accompanied by dermatitis.

Question 48: What is the purpose of the 'head-tilt chin-lift' maneuver?

To open the airway by moving the tongue away from the throat (Correct answer)
To check for spinal injuries
To position the patient for chest compressions
To stimulate breathing in an unconscious patient

Correct answer: To open the airway by moving the tongue away from the throat

The head-tilt chin-lift opens the airway by lifting the chin, which moves the tongue away from the back of the throat.

Question 49: A newly hired worker is most at risk for workplace injury during which period?

After five years of service
During the first days and weeks on the job (Correct answer)
After returning from vacation
During mandatory overtime shifts

Correct answer: During the first days and weeks on the job

New workers lack familiarity with workplace hazards, equipment, and procedures, making the first weeks the highest-risk period.

Question 50: A victim has a suspected spinal injury. How should you open the airway?

Tilt the head back as far as possible
Turn their head to the side
Jaw thrust maneuver without head movement (Correct answer)
Head-tilt chin-lift method

Correct answer: Jaw thrust maneuver without head movement

The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway while minimizing spinal movement, making it the preferred method when spinal injury is suspected.

Question 51: Which of the following is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Altered level of consciousness and severe headache (Correct answer)
Bradycardia with widened pulse pressure (Cushing's triad)
Bilateral fixed and dilated pupils
Hypotension and tachycardia

Correct answer: Altered level of consciousness and severe headache

Early signs of increased ICP include altered mental status and severe headache before progressing to Cushing's triad and herniation signs.

Question 52: According to NSC and OSHA guidelines, a written PPE program must include which of the following elements?

Environmental impact statements for PPE disposal
Employee medical records and fitness-for-duty evaluations
Hazard assessment, PPE selection, training, and program evaluation (Correct answer)
A list of PPE vendors and their pricing

Correct answer: Hazard assessment, PPE selection, training, and program evaluation

A complete PPE program must address hazard assessment, selection of appropriate PPE, employee training, and periodic evaluation of the program's effectiveness.

Question 53: In the early postburn phase, what is a tolerable protein level for a patient with a 50% TBSA?

2.0-2.5 grams per kg (Correct answer)
1.0-1.2 grams per kg
1.2-1.5 grams per kg
1.5-2.0 grams per kg

Correct answer: 2.0-2.5 grams per kg

Patients with severe burns, such as a 50% TBSA, experience a profound hypermetabolic and hypercatabolic response, leading to significant protein breakdown and increased nitrogen losses. To counteract this catabolism, support wound healing, and maintain immune function, very high protein intakes, typically in the range of 2.0-2.5 grams per kg of body weight, are required in the early postburn phase.

Question 54: What is the 'two-second rule' designed to measure?

Minimum following distance expressed in time (Correct answer)
Reaction time after seeing a hazard
Time allowed to clear an intersection
Time between checking mirrors

Correct answer: Minimum following distance expressed in time

The two-second rule ensures a minimum safe following distance expressed as time rather than feet, which adjusts automatically for speed.

Question 55: What role does documentation play in NSC compliance?

It provides evidence of adherence to standards (Correct answer)
It replaces practical competency
It is optional
It is only needed for audits

Correct answer: It provides evidence of adherence to standards

Documentation provides verifiable evidence that standards and regulations are being followed, serving as proof of compliance.

Question 56: A victim is choking and can still cough forcefully. What is the appropriate first response?

Encourage the victim to keep coughing (Correct answer)
Perform abdominal thrusts immediately
Call 9-1-1 and wait
Begin back blows

Correct answer: Encourage the victim to keep coughing

If a choking victim can cough forcefully, encourage them to continue coughing, as it is the most effective way to dislodge the object.

Question 57: Which of the following gastrointestinal procedures has the greatest negative impact on one's ability to eat?

Billroth I
Ileal resection (Correct answer)
Billroth II
Jejunal resection

Correct answer: Ileal resection

The ileum is the final and longest section of the small intestine, playing a critical role in the absorption of key nutrients, including vitamin B12, bile salts, and fat-soluble vitamins. An ileal resection (surgical removal of part of the ileum) can severely impair these absorptive functions, leading to significant malabsorption and a higher risk of nutritional deficiencies compared to resections in other gastrointestinal areas, thus having the greatest negative impact on one's ability to eat and utilize nutrients.

Question 58: Which ergonomic hazard category does 'whole-body vibration' (WBV) fall under?

Biological hazard
Chemical hazard
Psychosocial hazard
Physical ergonomic hazard (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Physical ergonomic hazard

Whole-body vibration is classified as a physical ergonomic hazard, commonly affecting forklift operators and truck drivers.

Question 59: When treating a patient in anaphylactic shock, which medication is the first-line treatment?

Albuterol inhaler
Aspirin
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Epinephrine (EpiPen) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Epinephrine (EpiPen)

Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses severe allergic reactions.

Question 60: What is the recommended action when you experience a tire blowout at highway speed?

Swerve toward the shoulder immediately
Shift to a lower gear right away
Brake hard immediately to stop quickly
Grip the wheel firmly, ease off the gas, and steer straight while gradually braking (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Grip the wheel firmly, ease off the gas, and steer straight while gradually braking

Hard braking after a blowout can cause a spin; maintaining control and gradually decelerating keeps the vehicle stable.

Question 61: What is the recommended daily fiber intake for adults, as generally supported by U.S. dietary guidelines?

25–38 grams per day (Correct answer)
5–10 grams per day
10–15 grams per day
50–60 grams per day

Correct answer: 25–38 grams per day

U.S. dietary guidelines recommend 25 grams of fiber per day for women and 38 grams for men to support digestive health and reduce chronic disease risk.

Question 62: Which NSC-recommended practice helps prevent fires caused by combustible dust accumulation?

Using only Class B extinguishers
Regular housekeeping and dust collection system maintenance (Correct answer)
Requiring PPE in all production areas
Installing additional smoke detectors

Correct answer: Regular housekeeping and dust collection system maintenance

Regular housekeeping to remove combustible dust and maintaining dust collection systems are key NSC-recommended fire prevention practices.

Question 63: Which NSC-recommended practice should be followed when working in wet or damp locations with electrical equipment?

Avoid using any electrical equipment in wet areas under all circumstances
Dry hands before touching equipment and proceed normally
Use GFCI-protected outlets and ensure all tools and cords are rated for wet locations (Correct answer)
Use only battery-operated tools regardless of voltage rating

Correct answer: Use GFCI-protected outlets and ensure all tools and cords are rated for wet locations

GFCI protection combined with wet-location-rated equipment is the NSC-recommended approach for safe electrical work in damp environments.

Question 64: What does a Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS) rating of '3' in the health category mean?

Slight health hazard — minor irritation possible
Serious health hazard — major injury possible with short-term exposure (Correct answer)
Minimal hazard — no significant risk
Severe health hazard — life-threatening with short-term exposure

Correct answer: Serious health hazard — major injury possible with short-term exposure

An HMIS health rating of 3 indicates a serious hazard where short-term exposure could cause serious, temporary or moderate residual injury.

Question 65: A victim is unresponsive and not breathing normally. After calling 911, what is the correct sequence to begin CPR?

Give 2 rescue breaths, then start chest compressions
Check for a pulse for at least 30 seconds before starting CPR
Place the victim in the recovery position and wait for EMS
Start chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Start chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute

Begin CPR immediately with chest compressions at 100-120 per minute before giving rescue breaths.

Question 66: Which of the following is an example of an administrative control for hazard reduction?

Substituting a less toxic chemical
Providing respirators to employees
Rotating workers to limit exposure time (Correct answer)
Installing machine guards

Correct answer: Rotating workers to limit exposure time

Administrative controls change work processes or schedules, such as job rotation to reduce cumulative hazardous exposure.

Question 67: What does the Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend as the daily limit for added sugars?

Less than 10% of total daily calories (Correct answer)
Less than 25% of total daily calories
Less than 5% of total daily calories
No specific limit is recommended

Correct answer: Less than 10% of total daily calories

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend limiting added sugars to less than 10% of total daily caloric intake.

Question 68: What is the recommended way to signal for help if trapped under debris?

Shout continuously until rescued
Attempt to dig yourself out immediately
Tap on pipes or walls using a steady pattern (Correct answer)
Wave your arms to attract attention

Correct answer: Tap on pipes or walls using a steady pattern

Tapping on pipes or solid surfaces conserves energy and travels farther than shouting, helping rescuers locate you.

Question 69: The phenylketonuria test that is used to identify

Guthrie test (Correct answer)
Blood sample
Genotype
VPR

Correct answer: Guthrie test

The Guthrie test is a widely recognized and utilized screening method for diagnosing Phenylketonuria (PKU) in newborns. This test detects elevated levels of phenylalanine in a blood sample, indicating the genetic disorder where the body cannot properly metabolize this amino acid. Early diagnosis through the Guthrie test is crucial for initiating treatment and preventing severe neurological damage.

Question 70: A score of 20 or higher on the AUDIT indicates what level of risk?

Hazardous drinking
Abstinent
Likely alcohol dependence (Correct answer)
Harmful drinking

Correct answer: Likely alcohol dependence

AUDIT scores of 20–40 suggest likely alcohol dependence and warrant referral to a specialist for diagnosis and treatment.

Question 71: What does a red-tagged fire extinguisher indicate during an inspection?

The extinguisher passed its annual inspection
The extinguisher was recently refilled
The extinguisher is out of service and must not be used (Correct answer)
The extinguisher is designated for Class B fires only

Correct answer: The extinguisher is out of service and must not be used

A red tag on a fire extinguisher indicates it is out of service and requires maintenance before use.

Question 72: Which nutrient is most critical for wound healing after a workplace injury?

Saturated fat
Caffeine
Protein (Correct answer)
Carbohydrates

Correct answer: Protein

Protein provides the amino acids needed to rebuild damaged tissue and support immune function during wound healing.

Question 73: In NSC practice, what is the best approach to quality improvement in defensive driving?

Make changes without measuring results
Copy what other organizations do without analysis
Use data-driven methods with measurable outcomes (Correct answer)
Wait for problems to occur before acting

Correct answer: Use data-driven methods with measurable outcomes

Data-driven quality improvement with measurable outcomes ensures that changes actually produce the intended improvements and can be verified.

Question 74: A construction worker exposed to lead should increase intake of which nutrient to help minimize lead absorption?

Vitamin D
Omega-6 fatty acids
Zinc
Calcium (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Calcium

Adequate calcium intake competes with lead for absorption in the gut, reducing the amount of lead that enters the bloodstream.

Question 75: Which approach best demonstrates mastery of hazard recognition in NSC practice?

Relying entirely on technology
Avoiding complex scenarios
Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment (Correct answer)
Following procedures without understanding

Correct answer: Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment

True mastery involves understanding underlying principles well enough to apply them to new and unfamiliar situations with professional judgment.

Question 76: What is the minimum number of AED pads needed, and where are they placed on an adult?

Three pads in a triangular pattern
One pad on the center of the chest
Two pads — both on the left side of the chest
Two pads — one on the upper right chest and one on the lower left side (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two pads — one on the upper right chest and one on the lower left side

Two AED pads are placed in specific positions to deliver an electrical shock across the heart — one below the right collarbone and one below the left armpit.

Question 77: A forklift operator notices the floor in a warehouse aisle is uneven and cracked. Which hazard category does this MOST represent?

Ergonomic hazard
Surface/trip hazard (Correct answer)
Struck-by hazard
Radiation hazard

Correct answer: Surface/trip hazard

Uneven and cracked floors create trip and vehicle stability hazards in pedestrian and forklift traffic areas.

Question 78: A wellness coordinator wants to assess nutritional risk in workers. Which screening tool is most commonly used?

Grip strength test
Body Mass Index (BMI) combined with dietary history (Correct answer)
Blood pressure cuff reading
Urinalysis only

Correct answer: Body Mass Index (BMI) combined with dietary history

BMI combined with a dietary history provides a practical, evidence-based initial screen for nutritional risk factors in occupational health settings.

Question 79: What role does collaboration play in emergency preparedness for NSC professionals?

It slows down work unnecessarily
It is only needed in emergencies
It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise (Correct answer)
It reduces individual accountability

Correct answer: It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise

Collaboration leverages diverse perspectives and combined expertise to achieve better outcomes than any individual could alone.

Question 80: What is the NSC recommendation regarding electrical panel boxes that are missing knockout blanks or covers?

They can remain open as long as warning tape is applied
They require a work order within 30 days
They are only a concern in areas accessible to the public
They should be repaired immediately by installing appropriate covers to prevent exposure to energized parts (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They should be repaired immediately by installing appropriate covers to prevent exposure to energized parts

Open knockouts in electrical panels expose energized parts and must be covered immediately to prevent accidental contact and arc flash.

Question 81: A vehicle behind you is tailgating. What is the safest defensive response?

Speed up to create more space
Maintain your speed and ignore them
Gradually slow down to increase your own following distance ahead (Correct answer)
Tap your brakes to warn them

Correct answer: Gradually slow down to increase your own following distance ahead

Increasing your following distance to the car ahead gives you a larger buffer so any sudden stop won't result in a three-car crash.

Question 82: The largest negative impact gastrointestinal procedures have on a patient's nutritional state is

Ileal resection
All of these (Correct answer)
Billroth II
Billroth III

Correct answer: All of these

Billroth II and Billroth III procedures involve resecting parts of the stomach and rerouting the digestive tract, which can lead to dumping syndrome, malabsorption of iron, calcium, and fat-soluble vitamins due to bypassed duodenum. Ileal resection, on the other hand, specifically impairs the absorption of vitamin B12 and bile salts, crucial for fat digestion. All these gastrointestinal surgeries significantly disrupt normal digestive and absorptive processes, making them major contributors to negative nutritional impacts.

Question 83: Which approach best demonstrates mastery of ergonomics in NSC practice?

Following procedures without understanding
Relying entirely on technology
Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment (Correct answer)
Avoiding complex scenarios

Correct answer: Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment

True mastery involves understanding underlying principles well enough to apply them to new and unfamiliar situations with professional judgment.

Question 84: In NSC practice, what is the best approach to quality improvement in ergonomics?

Use data-driven methods with measurable outcomes (Correct answer)
Make changes without measuring results
Wait for problems to occur before acting
Copy what other organizations do without analysis

Correct answer: Use data-driven methods with measurable outcomes

Data-driven quality improvement with measurable outcomes ensures that changes actually produce the intended improvements and can be verified.

Question 85: Which withdrawal syndrome is considered the most medically dangerous and potentially life-threatening?

Opioid withdrawal
Cannabis withdrawal
Alcohol withdrawal (Correct answer)
Stimulant withdrawal

Correct answer: Alcohol withdrawal

Alcohol withdrawal can progress to delirium tremens with seizures and autonomic instability, making it the most life-threatening withdrawal syndrome.

Question 86: A child begins seizing. After the seizure ends, what is the most important first aid action?

Place the child in the recovery position and monitor breathing (Correct answer)
Restrain the child to prevent movement
Give the child water immediately
Insert something in the child's mouth

Correct answer: Place the child in the recovery position and monitor breathing

After a seizure, placing the child on their side in the recovery position protects the airway and allows monitoring until full recovery.

Question 87: A warehouse worker in a hot environment loses significant sweat. Beyond water, which electrolyte is most urgently needed?

Magnesium
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sodium

Sodium is the primary electrolyte lost in sweat and must be replaced to maintain fluid balance and prevent hyponatremia.

Question 88: Which stage of Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model describes a client actively making changes and seeking help?

Maintenance
Contemplation
Precontemplation
Action (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Action

The Action stage is when an individual is actively modifying their behavior and environment to overcome their substance use problem.

Question 89: Which NSC ergonomics concept describes redesigning a task so that the heaviest or most awkward part of the job is performed less frequently?

Job rotation
Task redesign (Correct answer)
Task enlargement
Work hardening

Correct answer: Task redesign

Task redesign permanently modifies how a job is performed to reduce exposure to ergonomic risk factors at the source.

Question 90: By using the Guthrie test, one can diagnose:

Phenylketonuria (Correct answer)
Galactosemia
Ornithine transcarboxylase deficiency
Glycogen storage disase

Correct answer: Phenylketonuria

Question 91: What is the LEAST likely cause of diarrhea in a hospitalized patient on enteral nutrition?

Soluble fiber
Malnutrition
Loss of blood
Difficile (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Difficile

While Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) is a common cause of diarrhea in hospitalized patients, it is an infectious cause often linked to antibiotic use, rather than a direct consequence of enteral nutrition (EN) itself. Diarrhea in patients on EN is more frequently attributed to factors like formula osmolarity, rapid infusion rates, medication side effects, or underlying malnutrition leading to gut atrophy. Therefore, when considering causes directly related to the feeding or the patient's nutritional state, C. difficile might be considered the least likely direct cause among the options, as it's an external pathogen.

Question 92: Which approach best describes risk-based compliance management in the NSC field?

Focusing only on past incidents
Eliminating all possible risks
Treating all risks equally
Prioritizing resources based on risk severity and likelihood (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prioritizing resources based on risk severity and likelihood

Risk-based compliance management involves assessing and prioritizing risks by their severity and likelihood to allocate resources effectively.

Question 93: Which type of hand tool design best reduces wrist deviation during repetitive tasks?

Pistol-grip or bent-handle tool (Correct answer)
Tools with smooth metal handles
Lightweight plastic tools
Straight-handled tool

Correct answer: Pistol-grip or bent-handle tool

Pistol-grip or bent-handle tools allow the wrist to remain in a neutral position, reducing ulnar or radial deviation stress.

Question 94: Which concept describes providing workers with accurate information to make their own informed dietary choices?

Health literacy and empowerment (Correct answer)
Nutrition surveillance
Punitive incentive design
Mandatory compliance

Correct answer: Health literacy and empowerment

Health literacy and empowerment-based approaches give workers the knowledge and skills to make autonomous, informed dietary decisions.

Question 95: Under OSHA's walking-working surfaces standard, what is the minimum width required for a fixed industrial stairway?

28 inches
36 inches
22 inches (Correct answer)
18 inches

Correct answer: 22 inches

OSHA's 29 CFR 1910.25 requires fixed industrial stairs to be at least 22 inches wide.

Question 96: Which PPE is required when handling chemicals that can cause severe skin burns?

Standard cotton work gloves
Safety glasses only
Chemical-resistant gloves and protective apron (Correct answer)
Latex examination gloves only

Correct answer: Chemical-resistant gloves and protective apron

Chemicals that cause burns require chemical-resistant gloves and a protective apron to prevent skin contact and serious injury.

Question 97: What is the purpose of an eyewash station in a chemical work area?

To flush chemical splashes from the eyes with water for at least 15 minutes (Correct answer)
To dilute chemicals before use
To rinse chemical containers before disposal
To test the pH of unknown liquids

Correct answer: To flush chemical splashes from the eyes with water for at least 15 minutes

ANSI standards require eyewash stations that deliver a continuous flow of water to flush chemical splashes from the eyes for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Question 98: What role does collaboration play in ergonomics for NSC professionals?

It slows down work unnecessarily
It reduces individual accountability
It is only needed in emergencies
It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise

Collaboration leverages diverse perspectives and combined expertise to achieve better outcomes than any individual could alone.

Question 99: A patient is having a severe asthma attack and is not responding to their rescue inhaler. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is critical?

Audible wheezing with each breath
Silent chest with no breath sounds on auscultation (Correct answer)
Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Use of neck muscles during inhalation

Correct answer: Silent chest with no breath sounds on auscultation

A 'silent chest' in a known asthmatic indicates near-complete airway obstruction with no air movement, signaling a life-threatening emergency.

Question 100: When is it acceptable to eat, drink, or apply cosmetics in an area where hazardous chemicals are used?

Only during designated break times away from the chemical area (Correct answer)
After washing hands but while still in the work area
Never, unless no food-contact chemicals are present
If gloves are worn

Correct answer: Only during designated break times away from the chemical area

Eating, drinking, and applying cosmetics should only occur in designated areas away from hazardous chemical zones to prevent accidental ingestion of contaminants.

Question 101: What does the NFPA 704 diamond's blue quadrant indicate?

Special hazard
Health hazard (Correct answer)
Reactivity hazard
Fire hazard

Correct answer: Health hazard

The blue (left) quadrant of the NFPA 704 diamond indicates health hazard on a scale of 0 to 4.

Question 102: What action should you take FIRST when you discover a large chemical spill in your work area?

Call the chemical manufacturer
Open windows to ventilate the space
Begin cleanup using available absorbents
Alert coworkers and evacuate the area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Alert coworkers and evacuate the area

The first priority in a large spill is to alert others and evacuate to prevent exposure, then notify emergency response personnel.

Question 103: A self-retracting lifeline (SRL) differs from a standard lanyard primarily because it:

Requires no anchorage when attached to the harness
Has a longer maximum length of 12 feet
Automatically takes up slack and limits free fall (Correct answer)
Is only approved for horizontal lifeline use

Correct answer: Automatically takes up slack and limits free fall

An SRL continuously retracts to remove slack and, upon sensing a sudden increase in speed, locks and limits free fall to inches rather than feet.

Question 104: The patient is taking Zerit, an anti-HIV medication. This medication could lead to

Lipodystrophy (Correct answer)
Malnutrition
Metabolic syndrome
AIDS wasting syndrome

Correct answer: Lipodystrophy

Zerit (stavudine) is an anti-HIV medication, specifically a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI). A well-known side effect associated with long-term use of stavudine is lipodystrophy, which involves abnormal fat redistribution, such as fat loss in the face and limbs (lipoatrophy) and fat accumulation in the abdomen and neck (lipohypertrophy). This can lead to significant body image issues and metabolic complications.

Question 105: What is 'controlled access zone' (CAZ) fall protection, and who may enter it?

A zone requiring double lanyards at all times
An emergency evacuation corridor near roof edges
A fully barricaded area open to all workers
A designated area where only authorized workers doing leading edge or overhand bricklaying work may enter without PFAS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A designated area where only authorized workers doing leading edge or overhand bricklaying work may enter without PFAS

A CAZ is a work area bounded by control lines allowing only specifically authorized workers to perform certain tasks (e.g., leading edge work) without conventional fall protection in limited circumstances.

Question 106: What does the PASS acronym stand for when using a fire extinguisher?

Push, Activate, Spray, Stop
Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep (Correct answer)
Point, Aim, Shoot, Secure
Pull, Assess, Spray, Step back

Correct answer: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep side to side.

Question 107: What is the correct first step when applying lockout/tagout (LOTO) before servicing equipment?

Verify zero energy state
Notify affected employees of the shutdown (Correct answer)
Apply the lockout device immediately
Release all stored energy first

Correct answer: Notify affected employees of the shutdown

The first LOTO step is to notify all affected employees before beginning the energy isolation process.

Question 108: Which nutrient plays the most important role in supporting immune function for workers in high-exposure environments?

Saturated fat
Sodium
Refined sugar
Vitamin C (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin C

Vitamin C is an antioxidant that supports the immune system by stimulating the production and function of white blood cells.

Question 109: In ergonomics, 'duration' as a risk factor refers to:

The number of workers performing the same task
The length of time a worker is exposed to a hazardous condition or posture (Correct answer)
The total weight lifted during a shift
The speed at which a task is completed

Correct answer: The length of time a worker is exposed to a hazardous condition or posture

Duration measures how long a worker is continuously exposed to a risk factor, with longer exposures increasing injury risk.

Question 110: How often should NSC compliance training be conducted?

Only when violations occur
Every five years
Only during initial orientation
At regular intervals as required by regulations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At regular intervals as required by regulations

Compliance training must be conducted at regular intervals as specified by applicable regulations to keep practitioners current.

Question 111: What does a GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale) score of 8 or below indicate?

Severe brain injury requiring airway protection (Correct answer)
Normal neurological function in an anxious patient
Mild concussion requiring observation
Moderate impairment with no immediate danger

Correct answer: Severe brain injury requiring airway protection

A GCS of 8 or less indicates severe neurological impairment and the patient likely cannot protect their airway.

Question 112: Which type of wound is most at risk for tetanus infection?

Puncture wound contaminated with dirt (Correct answer)
Clean superficial cut
Paper cut
Minor abrasion

Correct answer: Puncture wound contaminated with dirt

Deep puncture wounds contaminated with soil, saliva, or feces carry the highest risk for tetanus because the bacteria thrive in low-oxygen environments.

Question 113: Which symptom is most characteristic of heat stroke, as opposed to heat exhaustion?

Hot, red, dry or minimally moist skin with altered mental status (Correct answer)
Pale, moist skin
Heavy sweating
Muscle cramps and weakness

Correct answer: Hot, red, dry or minimally moist skin with altered mental status

Heat stroke is distinguished by hot, flushed skin and confusion or loss of consciousness, indicating the body's cooling system has failed — it is a life-threatening emergency.

Question 114: DASH diets are frequently used to treat:

Hypertension (Correct answer)
Nephritis
Diabetes mellitus
Hepatitis

Correct answer: Hypertension

DASH stands for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension. As its name explicitly indicates, the DASH diet was specifically developed to help prevent and manage high blood pressure (hypertension). It achieves this by promoting a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean protein, while limiting sodium, saturated fat, and cholesterol.

Question 115: A worker must be rescued or self-rescue within how many minutes after a fall arrest to prevent suspension trauma?

30 minutes (Correct answer)
60 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes

Correct answer: 30 minutes

OSHA recommends that suspended workers be rescued within approximately 30 minutes to prevent orthostatic intolerance (suspension trauma).

Question 116: What is the role of collateral information sources in a clinical evaluation?

They are only used in forensic evaluations
They are optional and rarely used
They provide additional perspectives to corroborate or supplement the client's history (Correct answer)
They replace the need for client self-report

Correct answer: They provide additional perspectives to corroborate or supplement the client's history

Collateral sources such as family members or prior treatment records add context and help verify or clarify the client's self-reported history.

Question 117: Which of the following is a 'leading indicator' of workplace safety performance?

Days away from work due to injuries
Total workers' compensation costs year-to-date
Percentage of safety training completed on schedule (Correct answer)
Number of recordable injuries in the past year

Correct answer: Percentage of safety training completed on schedule

Leading indicators measure proactive safety activities — like training completion — that predict future injury prevention, unlike lagging indicators that count past incidents.

Question 118: Which federal agency coordinates the national response to disasters in the United States?

CDC
DHS
FEMA (Correct answer)
OSHA

Correct answer: FEMA

FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Agency) is the primary federal agency responsible for coordinating disaster response and recovery.

Question 119: During a clinical evaluation, a client denies substance use but shows constricted pupils and track marks. What is this discrepancy called?

Incongruence between self-report and clinical signs (Correct answer)
Confirmation bias
Secondary gain
Transference

Correct answer: Incongruence between self-report and clinical signs

When objective physical findings contradict a client's self-report, this is documented as incongruence and requires further assessment.

Question 120: What is the correct depth of chest compressions for an average adult during CPR?

1 to 1.5 inches
At least 3 inches
3 to 3.5 inches
2 to 2.4 inches (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 to 2.4 inches

AHA guidelines specify chest compressions should be at least 2 inches but no more than 2.4 inches deep for adults.

Question 121: An employee working outdoors in summer heat begins to experience dizziness and excessive sweating. What hazard is involved?

Ergonomic hazard from heavy lifting
Biological hazard from insect exposure
Radiation hazard from UV exposure
Environmental physical hazard from heat stress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Environmental physical hazard from heat stress

Heat stress is a physical environmental hazard that can progress to heat exhaustion or heat stroke if unrecognized.

Question 122: What information is required on every container of a hazardous chemical in the workplace under HazCom?

Chemical formula, CAS number, and expiration date
Supplier's phone number, price per unit, and storage code
Product identifier, hazard pictograms, signal word, and hazard statements (Correct answer)
Employee signature, date received, and quantity used

Correct answer: Product identifier, hazard pictograms, signal word, and hazard statements

OSHA's HazCom standard requires labels to include a product identifier, GHS pictograms, signal word, hazard statements, precautionary statements, and supplier information.

Question 123: Which of the following is a classic sign of hypoglycemia?

Slow onset with frequent urination and fruity breath
Sudden onset with hypertension and flushed skin
Gradual onset with excessive thirst and blurred vision
Rapid onset with confusion, sweating, and shakiness (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rapid onset with confusion, sweating, and shakiness

Hypoglycemia presents rapidly with altered mental status, diaphoresis, shakiness, and pallor due to low blood sugar.

Question 124: Which section of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) contains first-aid measures?

Section 3
Section 2
Section 4 (Correct answer)
Section 6

Correct answer: Section 4

Section 4 of the GHS-aligned SDS provides first-aid measures for inhalation, skin contact, eye contact, and ingestion.

Question 125: Under the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard, what symbol on a GHS label warns of a health hazard such as carcinogenicity?

Flame
Skull and crossbones
Health hazard (person with starburst) (Correct answer)
Exclamation mark

Correct answer: Health hazard (person with starburst)

The health hazard pictogram (silhouette of a person with a starburst) indicates serious health hazards like carcinogens or reproductive toxins.

Question 126: In construction, OSHA's fall protection standard (29 CFR 1926.502) requires fall protection at heights of:

4 feet
12 feet
6 feet (Correct answer)
10 feet

Correct answer: 6 feet

OSHA's construction fall protection standard requires fall protection when workers are exposed to falls of 6 feet or more.

Question 127: Which term describes an OSHA violation where the employer knew or should have known of the hazard but made no reasonable effort to eliminate it?

Repeat
Willful (Correct answer)
Other-than-serious
Serious

Correct answer: Willful

A willful violation is one where the employer intentionally and knowingly commits a violation or is plainly indifferent to employee safety.

Question 128: A worker consuming a high-sodium diet is at greatest risk for which occupational health condition?

Osteoporosis
Iron-deficiency anemia
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Hypertension, which increases risk for cardiovascular events (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypertension, which increases risk for cardiovascular events

Chronic high sodium intake raises blood pressure, increasing the risk of heart attack and stroke, which are leading causes of work-related mortality.

Question 129: What is the recommended maximum angle of wrist extension or flexion during repetitive tasks to reduce MSD risk?

45 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees
15 degrees (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15 degrees

NSC and ergonomic guidelines recommend keeping wrist deviation below 15 degrees from neutral to minimize injury risk during repetitive work.

Question 130: Regarding the low amount of serum albumin, which of these is untrue?

It can be mostly found in nephrotic syndrome
It might be a sign of kwashiorkor
It may be locate with ascites
It can be used to identify esophageal reflux (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It can be used to identify esophageal reflux

Low serum albumin is a common finding in conditions like nephrotic syndrome (due to protein loss), kwashiorkor (severe protein malnutrition), and ascites (due to reduced oncotic pressure). However, serum albumin levels are not a diagnostic marker for esophageal reflux. Esophageal reflux is typically diagnosed based on symptoms, endoscopy, or pH monitoring.

Question 131: What does an electrical panel's 'arc flash label' required by NFPA 70E indicate?

The panel's installation date and installer name
The color code for each circuit breaker
The incident energy level, PPE category, and working distance for safe maintenance (Correct answer)
The maximum amperage the panel can carry

Correct answer: The incident energy level, PPE category, and working distance for safe maintenance

NFPA 70E arc flash labels provide workers with the incident energy, PPE category, and safe working distance for each piece of equipment.

Question 132: What is the recommended first step when a NSC professional identifies a compliance violation?

Document and report through proper channels (Correct answer)
Ignore it if minor
Discuss on social media
Wait for someone else to report it

Correct answer: Document and report through proper channels

All compliance violations should be documented and reported through established channels to ensure proper investigation and resolution.

Question 133: A company wants to evaluate the effectiveness of its nutrition intervention program. Which outcome measure is most relevant?

Number of vending machine purchases
Number of nutrition pamphlets distributed
Total cafeteria revenue
Changes in worker biometric data such as BMI, blood pressure, and cholesterol levels (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Changes in worker biometric data such as BMI, blood pressure, and cholesterol levels

Biometric outcomes like BMI, blood pressure, and cholesterol directly measure the health impact of a nutrition intervention program.

Question 134: During clinical evaluation, a client describes continuing to use opioids despite losing their job and family. This pattern reflects which DSM-5 criterion?

Tolerance
Withdrawal
Unsuccessful efforts to cut down
Continued use despite negative consequences (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continued use despite negative consequences

Persistent use despite significant adverse consequences — occupational, familial, or social — is a core DSM-5 criterion for substance use disorder.

Question 135: A worker notices a colleague using an angle grinder without a face shield. What type of hazard does this represent?

Ergonomic hazard
Physical hazard from flying debris (Correct answer)
Chemical hazard
Biological hazard

Correct answer: Physical hazard from flying debris

Angle grinders produce sparks and flying debris that pose a physical hazard to unprotected eyes and face.

Question 136: What is the maximum time an AED should be used to analyze rhythm and deliver a shock before resuming CPR?

No more than 10 seconds (Correct answer)
Up to 5 minutes
No more than 30 seconds
Up to 2 minutes

Correct answer: No more than 10 seconds

Interruptions to chest compressions should be minimized and limited to no more than 10 seconds for AED analysis and shock delivery.

Question 137: What color is the ground wire in a standard US three-prong electrical cord?

Black
Red
White or gray
Green or bare copper (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Green or bare copper

In US wiring, the ground wire is green or bare copper, the neutral is white, and the hot wire is black.

Question 138: If your vehicle's ABS activates during emergency braking, you should:

Press harder, then release in pulses
Maintain firm brake pressure and steer around the hazard (Correct answer)
Release the brake pedal to reset the system
Pump the brake pedal to help the system

Correct answer: Maintain firm brake pressure and steer around the hazard

ABS does the pumping for you; keeping steady firm pressure lets ABS maintain maximum braking force while you steer to avoid the hazard.

Question 139: When assessing suicidal ideation during a clinical evaluation, which factor increases lethality risk?

Passive ideation with no plan
History of therapy
Strong social support
Active plan with access to means (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Active plan with access to means

Active suicidal ideation combined with a specific plan and access to lethal means significantly increases the risk of a completed suicide attempt.

Question 140: Which condition is a common nutritional consequence of prolonged night-shift work?

Vitamin D deficiency (Correct answer)
Iron toxicity
Hyperkalemia
Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: Vitamin D deficiency

Night-shift workers have reduced sun exposure, which limits the skin's production of vitamin D, increasing deficiency risk.

Question 141: According to NSC guidelines, at what point should an employee attempt to fight a fire rather than evacuate?

Only if they are a trained firefighter
Only when the fire is small, contained, and the exit is clear behind them (Correct answer)
When the fire alarm has not yet sounded
Whenever a fire extinguisher is nearby

Correct answer: Only when the fire is small, contained, and the exit is clear behind them

NSC recommends fighting a fire only if it is small and contained and your escape route remains clear behind you.

Question 142: What does the acronym 'ABC' stand for in the context of fall protection planning?

Anchor Bolt Certification
Arrest, Brake, Control
Always Be Careful
Anchorage, Body wear, Connector (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anchorage, Body wear, Connector

The ABC hierarchy of a personal fall arrest system refers to Anchorage, Body wear (harness), and Connector (lanyard or SRL) — the three essential components.

Question 143: During a safety walkthrough, you see extension cords running under a rug in a high-traffic area. What is the PRIMARY hazard?

Biological contamination from the rug material
Ergonomic strain from reaching over the cord
Chemical exposure from the cord insulation
Fire hazard from heat buildup and potential overload (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fire hazard from heat buildup and potential overload

Extension cords under rugs can overheat due to trapped heat, creating a fire hazard and also a hidden trip hazard.

Question 144: When should PPE be permanently removed from service and disposed of?

When it has been damaged, failed to pass inspection, or reached its manufacturer's service life (Correct answer)
After exactly 12 months of use, regardless of condition
Only when a safety inspector specifically directs its removal
After it has been used by more than one employee

Correct answer: When it has been damaged, failed to pass inspection, or reached its manufacturer's service life

PPE should be removed from service when it shows signs of damage, fails inspection, or when the manufacturer's service life has been reached, since compromised PPE provides unreliable protection.

Question 145: Which technique involves workers systematically walking through their work area to identify hazards before starting a task?

Root cause analysis
Incident investigation
Job hazard analysis (JHA)
Pre-task hazard assessment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pre-task hazard assessment

A pre-task hazard assessment is performed before beginning work to identify and control hazards specific to that task.

Question 146: What is the value of continuing education in hazard recognition for NSC professionals?

It is only needed for recertification
It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)
It replaces workplace experience
It is primarily a social activity

Correct answer: It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices

Continuing education ensures professionals stay current with the latest developments, standards, and best practices in their field.

Question 147: The DAST-10 is a clinical screening tool designed to assess use of which substances?

Alcohol only
Prescription medications only
Drugs other than alcohol (Correct answer)
Tobacco products

Correct answer: Drugs other than alcohol

The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) assesses consequences and patterns of drug use excluding alcohol, which is separately evaluated with the AUDIT.

Question 148: Which behavioral strategy is most effective for helping workers adopt long-term healthy eating habits?

Replacing all meals with supplements
Setting strict short-term elimination diets
Small, incremental changes paired with positive reinforcement (Correct answer)
Weekly mandatory nutritional audits

Correct answer: Small, incremental changes paired with positive reinforcement

Small, sustainable changes reinforced with positive feedback are more likely to become permanent habits compared to extreme or restrictive approaches.

Question 149: During a power outage lasting more than four hours, which of the following refrigerated foods should be discarded?

Unopened condiments
Whole fruits
Hard cheeses
Meat, poultry, and seafood (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Meat, poultry, and seafood

Meat, poultry, and seafood should be discarded after a power outage of four hours or more because they reach unsafe temperatures quickly.

Question 150: The purpose of cystic fibrosis treatment is to:

Replacement of Pancreatic enzyme
To increase fat and protein
To increase fat and protein & Replacement of Pancreatic enzyme (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To increase fat and protein & Replacement of Pancreatic enzyme

Cystic fibrosis causes pancreatic insufficiency, leading to malabsorption of fats, proteins, and fat-soluble vitamins. Therefore, pancreatic enzyme replacement is essential to improve digestion and nutrient absorption. Additionally, patients with cystic fibrosis have increased energy needs due to chronic infection and malabsorption, requiring significantly higher intakes of energy, protein, and fat to maintain nutritional status and support growth.

Question 151: A yellow diamond on a DOT hazard placard typically indicates which class of material?

Explosive
Oxidizer or organic peroxide (Correct answer)
Flammable liquid
Corrosive material

Correct answer: Oxidizer or organic peroxide

Yellow DOT placards signify oxidizers or organic peroxides, which can intensify fires by supplying additional oxygen.

Question 152: According to NSC guidelines, what is the leading cause of death in the construction industry?

Falls from elevation (Correct answer)
Electrocution
Being struck by objects
Caught-in/between incidents

Correct answer: Falls from elevation

Falls from elevation are consistently the number-one cause of construction fatalities, accounting for roughly one-third of all construction deaths annually.

Question 153: What is the most important professional competency for NSC certification in ergonomics?

Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills (Correct answer)
Ability to work alone exclusively
Speed of task completion
Memorization of all reference materials

Correct answer: Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills

Professional competency requires both deep knowledge of the subject matter and the ability to apply that knowledge in practical situations.

Question 154: How long should you check for breathing before beginning CPR on an unresponsive adult?

Up to 10 seconds (Correct answer)
30 seconds
1 minute
2 minutes

Correct answer: Up to 10 seconds

Check for breathing for no more than 10 seconds; if absent or only gasping, begin CPR immediately.

Question 155: Treatment for hypertension frequently involves the use of:

Chlorophenamine
DASH diet (Correct answer)
Bondoment
Anti-malarial

Correct answer: DASH diet

The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet is an evidence-based eating plan specifically designed to lower blood pressure and is a primary non-pharmacological treatment for hypertension. It emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean protein, and low-fat dairy, while limiting saturated and total fat, cholesterol, and sodium, making it highly effective for blood pressure management.

Question 156: A 'sensitizer' chemical is hazardous because it can:

Explode when exposed to heat
React with skin oils to produce toxins
Cause an allergic reaction in subsequent exposures after initial sensitization (Correct answer)
Deplete oxygen in confined spaces

Correct answer: Cause an allergic reaction in subsequent exposures after initial sensitization

Sensitizers cause an allergic immune response; after initial exposure sensitizes a person, even tiny future doses can trigger severe reactions.

Question 157: A patient presents with sudden severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, sweating, and nausea. What condition should you suspect?

Pulmonary embolism
Acute myocardial infarction (Correct answer)
Panic attack
Aortic dissection

Correct answer: Acute myocardial infarction

Chest pain radiating to the left arm with diaphoresis and nausea are classic signs of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack).

Question 158: What is the role of the 'attendant' in a confined space entry operation?

To perform atmospheric testing inside the space
To document work completed inside the space
To remain outside and monitor the entrant, summoning rescue if needed (Correct answer)
To supply breathing air to workers inside

Correct answer: To remain outside and monitor the entrant, summoning rescue if needed

The attendant stays outside the permit space, monitors entrants continuously, and initiates rescue procedures if an emergency occurs.

Question 159: What is the most reliable way to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement?

Checking the tube depth marking at the teeth
Waveform capnography showing continuous CO2 detection (Correct answer)
Observing chest rise during ventilation
Listening for breath sounds bilaterally over the lungs

Correct answer: Waveform capnography showing continuous CO2 detection

Waveform capnography is the gold standard for confirming ET tube placement because it continuously detects exhaled CO2 from the lungs.

Question 160: In a multiple-casualty incident, what does triaging victims help responders determine?

The cause of the emergency
Who needs immediate treatment versus who can wait (Correct answer)
Which hospital to transport all patients to
The number of emergency vehicles needed

Correct answer: Who needs immediate treatment versus who can wait

Triage helps responders prioritize treatment by quickly categorizing casualties according to the severity of their injuries.

Question 161: What is the value of continuing education in emergency preparedness for NSC professionals?

It is primarily a social activity
It is only needed for recertification
It replaces workplace experience
It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices

Continuing education ensures professionals stay current with the latest developments, standards, and best practices in their field.

Question 162: What is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a toolbox talk before a work shift?

To complete OSHA documentation requirements
To assign overtime responsibilities
To identify and communicate job-specific hazards workers may encounter (Correct answer)
To review employee performance records

Correct answer: To identify and communicate job-specific hazards workers may encounter

Toolbox talks raise hazard awareness by discussing safety topics relevant to the specific work being performed that day.

Question 163: What is the primary role of iron in occupational health nutrition?

Building bone density
Supporting oxygen transport in the blood (Correct answer)
Regulating blood pressure
Metabolizing alcohol

Correct answer: Supporting oxygen transport in the blood

Iron is a core component of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen from the lungs to working muscles and organs.

Question 164: What does the 'D' stand for in the NSC's emergency action steps (Check-Call-Care)?

Documentation
Diagnosis
Defibrillation
Danger (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Danger

Before providing care, you must Check the scene for Danger to ensure it is safe for both the rescuer and the victim.

Question 165: Which of the following represents a key limitation of PPE that workers and safety professionals must understand?

PPE is only needed for tasks lasting longer than 30 minutes
PPE is infallible when used correctly and provides 100% protection
PPE eliminates the hazard at its source, making the workplace safer for everyone
PPE only protects the wearer and does not reduce or control the hazard itself (Correct answer)

Correct answer: PPE only protects the wearer and does not reduce or control the hazard itself

PPE does not eliminate or reduce the hazard — it only creates a barrier between the worker and the hazard, which is why it is considered the last resort in the hierarchy of controls.

Question 166: What does an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) do?

Delivers an electric shock to restore a normal heart rhythm (Correct answer)
Provides oxygen to a cardiac arrest victim
Monitors blood pressure during cardiac events
Administers emergency medications automatically

Correct answer: Delivers an electric shock to restore a normal heart rhythm

An AED analyzes a victim's heart rhythm and delivers a controlled electric shock to restore normal rhythm in cases of ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Question 167: How often should NSC compliance training be conducted?

Only when violations occur
Every five years
Only during initial orientation
At regular intervals as required by regulations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At regular intervals as required by regulations

Compliance training must be conducted at regular intervals as specified by applicable regulations to keep practitioners current.

Question 168: What is the value of continuing education in first aid and cpr for NSC professionals?

It replaces workplace experience
It is only needed for recertification
It is primarily a social activity
It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It keeps professionals current with evolving standards and practices

Continuing education ensures professionals stay current with the latest developments, standards, and best practices in their field.

Question 169: What is a 'near-miss' in workplace safety terminology?

A minor injury requiring first aid only
A safety violation cited by an inspector
An incident that could have caused injury but did not (Correct answer)
An equipment malfunction during normal operation

Correct answer: An incident that could have caused injury but did not

A near-miss is an unplanned event with no injury or damage but with the potential to cause harm.

Question 170: When treating a victim for shock, which position is generally recommended if no spinal injury is suspected?

Head elevated on pillows
Sitting upright at 90 degrees
Rolled to the left side
Legs elevated about 12 inches, lying flat (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Legs elevated about 12 inches, lying flat

Elevating the legs about 12 inches helps return blood flow to vital organs unless the victim has a head, neck, spine, or leg injury.

Question 171: What does the hierarchy of hazard controls prioritize as the MOST effective control method?

Administrative controls
Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Engineering controls
Elimination of the hazard (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Elimination of the hazard

Elimination removes the hazard entirely and is the most effective control because it prevents exposure completely.

Question 172: Which ergonomic guideline addresses the risk of awkward posture by specifying elbow height for work surface placement?

Work surfaces should always be at shoulder height
All work surfaces should be adjustable only for standing tasks
Work surfaces for precision tasks should be slightly above elbow height (Correct answer)
Work surfaces should be set at wrist height while seated

Correct answer: Work surfaces for precision tasks should be slightly above elbow height

Precision tasks benefit from a surface slightly above elbow height to support the forearms and provide close visual access without neck flexion.

Question 173: The following are indications of liver cirrhosis:

Ascites and hypoalbuminemia (Correct answer)
Decreased hepatic plasma volume and high osmolality
Portal hypotension and constriction of esophageal veins
Fat malabsorption and hyponatremia

Correct answer: Ascites and hypoalbuminemia

Question 174: What is the OSHA permissible exposure limit (PEL) for noise over an 8-hour time-weighted average?

85 dBA
80 dBA
90 dBA (Correct answer)
95 dBA

Correct answer: 90 dBA

OSHA's noise standard (29 CFR 1910.95) sets the PEL at 90 dBA as an 8-hour time-weighted average.

Question 175: What is OSHA's SHARP (Safety and Health Achievement Recognition Program) designed to recognize?

OSHA-approved third-party safety consultants
Small businesses that have achieved exemplary safety and health management (Correct answer)
Companies with zero fatalities for 10 years
Employers that contribute to OSHA rulemaking

Correct answer: Small businesses that have achieved exemplary safety and health management

SHARP recognizes small and medium-sized employers who have demonstrated exemplary safety programs through OSHA On-Site Consultation.

Question 176: What class of fire extinguisher is rated for use on ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, and cloth?

Class A (Correct answer)
Class B
Class D
Class C

Correct answer: Class A

Class A extinguishers are designed for ordinary combustibles like wood, paper, and cloth.

Question 177: Which approach best demonstrates mastery of defensive driving in NSC practice?

Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment (Correct answer)
Relying entirely on technology
Following procedures without understanding
Avoiding complex scenarios

Correct answer: Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment

True mastery involves understanding underlying principles well enough to apply them to new and unfamiliar situations with professional judgment.

Question 178: Which ergonomic risk factor is defined as the number of times a motion or exertion is performed within a given time period?

Duration
Repetition (Correct answer)
Posture
Force

Correct answer: Repetition

Repetition refers to how frequently a motion or exertion is performed, and high repetition rates are a primary ergonomic risk factor for MSDs.

Question 179: A health promotion program wants to reduce obesity-related absenteeism. Which intervention is most evidence-based?

Banning vending machines only
Providing nutrition education combined with healthy food access (Correct answer)
Issuing mandatory diet plans
Requiring daily weigh-ins

Correct answer: Providing nutrition education combined with healthy food access

Combining nutrition education with improved access to healthy food options is the most evidence-based approach to reducing obesity in workplace settings.

Question 180: A worker in a printing facility is exposed to isopropyl alcohol vapors throughout the day. This is BEST categorized as which type of hazard?

Chemical hazard (Correct answer)
Biological hazard
Physical hazard
Ergonomic hazard

Correct answer: Chemical hazard

Isopropyl alcohol vapor is a chemical hazard that can cause respiratory irritation, headaches, and central nervous system effects.

Question 181: What is the minimum D-ring breaking strength required for a full-body harness used in a personal fall arrest system?

2,500 lbs
3,600 lbs
5,000 lbs (Correct answer)
7,500 lbs

Correct answer: 5,000 lbs

OSHA requires all PFAS hardware, including D-rings, to have a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds.

Question 182: What does the term 'shelter-in-place' mean during an emergency?

Stay indoors and seal the building from outside air (Correct answer)
Gather at a pre-designated community meeting point
Evacuate to a nearby shelter immediately
Move to a basement or interior room for tornado protection

Correct answer: Stay indoors and seal the building from outside air

Shelter-in-place means remaining inside a building and sealing it from outside air, typically used during hazardous material incidents.

Question 183: What is the most important professional competency for NSC certification in emergency preparedness?

Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills (Correct answer)
Memorization of all reference materials
Speed of task completion
Ability to work alone exclusively

Correct answer: Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills

Professional competency requires both deep knowledge of the subject matter and the ability to apply that knowledge in practical situations.

Question 184: Moreover, impaired glucose tolerance is distinguished by:

A fasting plasma glucose of 100-125 mg/dl (Correct answer)
Fasting plasma glucose (FPG)> 140 mg/dl
HbA1c level of 7 or more
Casual plasma glucose of 400mg

Correct answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 100-125 mg/dl

Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is a prediabetic state characterized by a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level between 100-125 mg/dL (5.6-6.9 mmol/L), also known as impaired fasting glucose (IFG). This indicates that blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not yet high enough for a diabetes diagnosis, signifying an increased risk for developing type 2 diabetes.

Question 185: What is the correct treatment for a minor (superficial) burn?

Break blisters and apply antibiotic ointment
Cover tightly with an adhesive bandage
Apply butter or oil to soothe the skin
Cool the burn with cool (not ice cold) running water for 10–20 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cool the burn with cool (not ice cold) running water for 10–20 minutes

Cool running water reduces heat in the tissue, relieves pain, and limits damage; ice, butter, or oil should never be applied to burns.

Question 186: Which food preparation method best preserves the vitamin content of vegetables served in a workplace cafeteria?

Microwaving until fully browned
Steaming or light stir-frying (Correct answer)
Deep frying
Boiling for extended periods

Correct answer: Steaming or light stir-frying

Steaming and light stir-frying use minimal water and lower heat, which best preserves heat-sensitive and water-soluble vitamins like vitamin C and B vitamins.

Question 187: A safety professional notices workers are drowsy after eating at the cafeteria. Which cafeteria change would best address post-meal drowsiness?

Serving meals faster
Offering larger portion sizes
Reducing refined carbohydrates and increasing fiber and protein (Correct answer)
Adding more dessert options

Correct answer: Reducing refined carbohydrates and increasing fiber and protein

High-glycemic refined carbohydrates cause rapid blood sugar spikes followed by crashes; replacing them with fiber and protein promotes steadier energy levels.

Question 188: A horizontal lifeline system must be designed by a qualified person and should have a safety factor of at least:

1.5
2 (Correct answer)
5
3

Correct answer: 2

OSHA requires horizontal lifeline systems to be designed, installed, and used under the supervision of a qualified person with a minimum safety factor of 2.

Question 189: Under OSHA's Fall Protection standard for general industry, at what height must employers provide fall protection?

6 feet
As determined by employer
4 feet (Correct answer)
10 feet

Correct answer: 4 feet

OSHA's general industry walking-working surfaces standard (29 CFR 1910.28) requires fall protection at heights of 4 feet or more.

Question 190: A responsive adult is choking and cannot speak or cough effectively. What is the correct immediate action?

Encourage the victim to cough harder
Perform 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts
Sweep the mouth with your finger to remove the obstruction
Perform the Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts) immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Perform the Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts) immediately

For a conscious adult with a severe airway obstruction who cannot speak or cough, perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) immediately.

Question 191: Which type of fire detector is most effective at detecting slow, smoldering fires?

Flame detector
Heat detector
Photoelectric smoke detector (Correct answer)
Ionization smoke detector

Correct answer: Photoelectric smoke detector

Photoelectric smoke detectors are better at detecting slow, smoldering fires that produce large smoke particles.

Question 192: What should you do if your accelerator pedal sticks while driving?

Shift to neutral, brake firmly, and pull off the road (Correct answer)
Pump the brake pedal rapidly
Open the door to slow the vehicle
Immediately turn off the ignition

Correct answer: Shift to neutral, brake firmly, and pull off the road

Shifting to neutral cuts engine power to the wheels, allowing you to brake and steer to safety without killing the engine.

Question 193: An 'incompatible chemicals' scenario occurs when:

A chemical exceeds its shelf-life date
A chemical is used in a poorly ventilated area
Two chemicals react dangerously when combined (Correct answer)
Two chemicals are stored at different temperatures

Correct answer: Two chemicals react dangerously when combined

Incompatible chemicals are substances that, when mixed or stored together, can cause dangerous reactions such as fire, explosion, or toxic gas release.

Question 194: Which DSM-5 dimension is evaluated when a clinician assesses a client's insight during a clinical evaluation?

Mental status examination (Correct answer)
Substance use severity
Medical history
Psychosocial stressors

Correct answer: Mental status examination

Insight — a client's awareness and understanding of their condition — is a component assessed within the mental status examination.

Question 195: When performing CPR on an adult, what is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio?

10:2
5:1
30:2 (Correct answer)
15:2

Correct answer: 30:2

The American Heart Association and NSC recommend a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR.

Question 196: Which dietary pattern is most strongly associated with reduced risk of chronic disease, as recommended in occupational health programs?

Mediterranean-style diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and healthy fats (Correct answer)
A liquid-only diet for digestive rest
High-protein, zero-carbohydrate diet
High-calorie diet for energy maintenance

Correct answer: Mediterranean-style diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and healthy fats

The Mediterranean diet is backed by extensive research showing significant reductions in cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and inflammation.

Question 197: Which government-issued system assigns severity levels to weather threats using a five-tier color-coded scale?

NOAA Storm Prediction Center Outlook (Correct answer)
Emergency Alert System Threat Matrix
National Weather Service Hazard Scale
National Terrorism Advisory System

Correct answer: NOAA Storm Prediction Center Outlook

The NOAA Storm Prediction Center uses a five-tier color-coded outlook (marginal through high) to communicate severe weather threat levels to the public.

Question 198: Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.132, who bears primary responsibility for providing and paying for required PPE in the workplace?

A third-party safety vendor must supply all PPE
The employer must provide and pay for necessary PPE (Correct answer)
The employee must purchase their own PPE
Costs are split equally between employer and employee

Correct answer: The employer must provide and pay for necessary PPE

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.132 requires employers to provide and pay for PPE that is necessary to protect workers from job-related hazards.

Question 199: According to NSC guidelines, which eating pattern best supports sustained energy for shift workers?

Frequent small meals and snacks throughout the shift (Correct answer)
One large meal at the end of the shift
High-sugar snacks every hour
Fasting until the shift is complete

Correct answer: Frequent small meals and snacks throughout the shift

Frequent small meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels, preventing energy crashes during extended work periods.

Question 200: Which class of hard hat is designed to reduce the danger of contact with low-voltage conductors and provides impact and penetration resistance?

Class D
Class A (Correct answer)
Class C
Class B

Correct answer: Class A

Class A hard hats provide impact and penetration resistance along with limited voltage protection up to 2,200 volts.

Question 201: How does dehydration primarily affect worker safety, according to NSC guidance?

It increases muscle size
It impairs cognitive function, reaction time, and physical performance (Correct answer)
It reduces caloric needs
It has no effect on safety if food is consumed

Correct answer: It impairs cognitive function, reaction time, and physical performance

Even mild dehydration of 1–2% body weight loss can impair concentration, decision-making, and reaction time, elevating the risk of workplace accidents.

Question 202: Which approach best demonstrates mastery of first aid and cpr in NSC practice?

Avoiding complex scenarios
Following procedures without understanding
Relying entirely on technology
Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment

True mastery involves understanding underlying principles well enough to apply them to new and unfamiliar situations with professional judgment.

Question 203: When completing an intake clinical evaluation, which aspect of trauma history is most important to document?

Whether the trauma has been processed in prior therapy
The exact dates of traumatic events
Whether the trauma was witnessed or directly experienced
Types of trauma experienced and current trauma-related symptoms (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Types of trauma experienced and current trauma-related symptoms

Documenting trauma types and current symptoms helps identify co-occurring PTSD and informs trauma-informed treatment planning.

Question 204: Which of the following best describes distributive shock?

Abnormal vasodilation causing relative hypovolemia (Correct answer)
Decreased cardiac output due to heart muscle failure
Blood loss reducing circulating volume
Obstruction preventing blood flow from the heart

Correct answer: Abnormal vasodilation causing relative hypovolemia

Distributive shock (including septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock) occurs when widespread vasodilation causes blood to pool away from vital organs.

Question 205: How much water per person per day should you store for an emergency supply kit?

Three gallons
Half a gallon
One gallon (Correct answer)
Two gallons

Correct answer: One gallon

FEMA and NSC recommend storing at least one gallon of water per person per day for at least three days.

Question 206: Which OSHA standard requires that employees who use tight-fitting respirators pass a fit test before using the respirator in the workplace?

29 CFR 1910.132 – General PPE Requirements
29 CFR 1910.134 – Respiratory Protection (Correct answer)
29 CFR 1910.138 – Hand Protection
29 CFR 1910.95 – Occupational Noise Exposure

Correct answer: 29 CFR 1910.134 – Respiratory Protection

29 CFR 1910.134 requires fit testing for all tight-fitting respirators to ensure an adequate seal is achieved, protecting the wearer from airborne hazards.

Question 207: Which roofing work scenario requires fall protection under OSHA's low-slope roof rules when the roof is less than 4:12 pitch?

Work within 15 feet of the edge
Work only at the roof perimeter
Any work anywhere on the roof (Correct answer)
Work within 6 feet of the edge

Correct answer: Any work anywhere on the roof

On low-slope roofs, OSHA requires fall protection (guardrails, safety nets, or PFAS) for any work anywhere on the roof surface, not just near edges.

Question 208: Which of the following describes a 'caught-in or caught-between' hazard?

A worker being struck by a swinging load
A worker developing carpal tunnel syndrome from typing
A worker slipping on a wet floor
A worker's clothing becoming entangled in rotating machinery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A worker's clothing becoming entangled in rotating machinery

Caught-in or caught-between hazards occur when a body part or clothing is caught in moving machinery or between objects.

Question 209: Which engineering control is most effective at reducing worker exposure to airborne chemical hazards?

Respiratory protective equipment
Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) at the source (Correct answer)
Administrative controls such as job rotation
Posting warning signs near the hazard

Correct answer: Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) at the source

Local exhaust ventilation captures and removes chemical contaminants at the source before they disperse into the worker's breathing zone.

Question 210: Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with impaired night vision, which can be a safety hazard in low-light work environments?

Vitamin K
Vitamin A (Correct answer)
Vitamin D
Vitamin C

Correct answer: Vitamin A

Vitamin A is essential for producing rhodopsin, the pigment in the eyes that enables vision in low-light conditions.

Question 211: What is the recommended first step when a NSC professional identifies a compliance violation?

Document and report through proper channels (Correct answer)
Wait for someone else to report it
Ignore it if minor
Discuss on social media

Correct answer: Document and report through proper channels

All compliance violations should be documented and reported through established channels to ensure proper investigation and resolution.

Question 212: Lipodystrophy is prone to occur in patients who take the anti-HIV medication Zerit. A disorder known as lipodystrophy is defined by aberrant fat distribution throughout the body, which can cause changes in the form of the body and the buildup of fat in certain places. The patient may experience major physical and psychological effects from this side effect, which is frequently linked to the usage of Zerit.

Nasogastric tube with standard formula
NPO until pain subsides, then allow diet to advance
Parenteral Nutrition
Nasojejunal tube with a standard formula (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nasojejunal tube with a standard formula

A nasojejunal tube delivers enteral nutrition directly into the jejunum, bypassing the stomach. This feeding method is often chosen for patients who are at high risk of aspiration, have severe gastroparesis, gastric outlet obstruction, or persistent vomiting that prevents gastric feeding. By bypassing the stomach, it reduces the risk of aspiration pneumonia and can improve tolerance, making it a safer and more effective option than nasogastric feeding or more invasive parenteral nutrition in certain clinical scenarios.

Question 213: What is the recommended minimum supply of non-perishable food for a basic home emergency kit?

One-day supply
Three-day supply (Correct answer)
Two-week supply
One-week supply

Correct answer: Three-day supply

NSC and FEMA recommend a minimum three-day supply of non-perishable food per person for a basic emergency kit.

Question 214: Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements of the fire triangle?

Pressure (Correct answer)
Heat
Fuel
Oxygen

Correct answer: Pressure

The fire triangle consists of heat, fuel, and oxygen; pressure is not required for combustion.

Question 215: When applying a tourniquet for severe limb bleeding, where should it be placed?

2–3 inches above the wound, between the wound and the heart (Correct answer)
Over a joint for stability
Below the wound
Directly over the wound

Correct answer: 2–3 inches above the wound, between the wound and the heart

A tourniquet must be placed 2–3 inches above the wound toward the heart (proximal) to cut off blood flow to the injury site.

Question 216: What OSHA program allows employees to request a workplace inspection without revealing their identity to the employer?

OSHA Challenge Program
Voluntary Protection Program (VPP)
Confidential Complaint Program
Whistleblower Protection Program (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Whistleblower Protection Program

OSHA's Whistleblower Protection Program allows employees to file complaints confidentially under Section 11(c) of the OSH Act.

Question 217: What distinguishes a diagnostic impression from a confirmed diagnosis in a clinical evaluation?

There is no meaningful difference between the two
A diagnostic impression is based on lab results; a confirmed diagnosis uses interviews
A diagnostic impression is a working hypothesis that may evolve; a confirmed diagnosis meets full criteria after thorough assessment (Correct answer)
A diagnostic impression requires supervisor approval; a confirmed diagnosis does not

Correct answer: A diagnostic impression is a working hypothesis that may evolve; a confirmed diagnosis meets full criteria after thorough assessment

A diagnostic impression is a preliminary clinical judgment formed early in evaluation, while a confirmed diagnosis requires comprehensive assessment meeting all DSM-5 criteria.

Question 218: OSHA's general industry standard requires fall protection when workers are exposed to fall heights of how many feet or more?

4 feet (Correct answer)
6 feet
8 feet
10 feet

Correct answer: 4 feet

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.23 requires fall protection in general industry at heights of 4 feet or more.

Question 219: A worker performing overhead work complains of neck pain after repeated upward gazing. Which hazard type is this?

Physical hazard from vibration
Biological hazard
Chemical hazard
Ergonomic hazard from awkward posture (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ergonomic hazard from awkward posture

Sustained awkward postures such as overhead work cause musculoskeletal strain and are classified as ergonomic hazards.

Question 220: A 3-year-old child is found unresponsive and not breathing. You are alone. What should you do first?

Start an AED immediately
Give 2 minutes of CPR, then call 911 (Correct answer)
Call 911 immediately before doing anything else
Give 5 back blows in case of choking

Correct answer: Give 2 minutes of CPR, then call 911

For children, provide 2 minutes of CPR before leaving to call 911, as cardiac arrest in children is often respiratory in origin.

Question 221: An AED delivers a shock and the victim remains unresponsive. What should you do next?

Administer another shock right away
Wait 2 minutes before checking again
Immediately resume CPR starting with compressions (Correct answer)
Check for a pulse for 30 seconds

Correct answer: Immediately resume CPR starting with compressions

After a shock is delivered, CPR should resume immediately starting with chest compressions without pausing to check for a pulse.

Question 222: How often should NSC compliance training be conducted?

At regular intervals as required by regulations (Correct answer)
Only when violations occur
Every five years
Only during initial orientation

Correct answer: At regular intervals as required by regulations

Compliance training must be conducted at regular intervals as specified by applicable regulations to keep practitioners current.

Question 223: According to NSC and NFPA, what should be done with flammable liquids stored in a workplace?

Stored under workbenches to save space
Stored in approved safety containers in a dedicated flammable storage cabinet or room (Correct answer)
Kept in original manufacturer containers only, regardless of type
Stored near the exit for quick removal

Correct answer: Stored in approved safety containers in a dedicated flammable storage cabinet or room

Flammable liquids must be stored in approved safety containers inside dedicated flammable storage cabinets to prevent ignition.

Question 224: What is the maximum gap allowed between a safety net and the work surface it protects below according to OSHA?

10 feet
20 feet
No specific limit
30 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 feet

OSHA requires safety nets to be installed as close as practicable below the work surface and no more than 30 feet below it.

Question 225: Which extinguishing agent is recommended for Class C (energized electrical equipment) fires?

Foam
Wet chemical
Water
Carbon dioxide (CO2) or dry chemical (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2) or dry chemical

CO2 and dry chemical agents are non-conductive and safe for use on energized electrical equipment fires.

Question 226: What is the recommended keyboard tray position to maintain a neutral wrist posture while typing?

At chin height
Tilted upward (positive tilt) at 15 degrees
Level or slightly tilted downward (negative tilt) (Correct answer)
Below the knees

Correct answer: Level or slightly tilted downward (negative tilt)

A level or negative-tilt keyboard position allows the wrists to remain straight and reduces ulnar deviation and wrist extension.

Question 227: What is the role of a Community Emergency Response Team (CERT) member?

To replace professional first responders at major disaster scenes
To support professional responders and assist neighbors with basic disaster response skills (Correct answer)
To manage federal disaster funding distribution
To operate emergency communications infrastructure

Correct answer: To support professional responders and assist neighbors with basic disaster response skills

CERT members are trained volunteers who support professional responders by performing basic rescue, first aid, and fire suppression until help arrives.

Question 228: Which condition requires immediate use of an epinephrine auto-injector?

Mild allergic rash
Fainting episode
Asthma attack
Severe anaphylaxis with throat swelling (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Severe anaphylaxis with throat swelling

Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic reaction involving airway compromise.

Question 229: Which ASAM dimension addresses a client's readiness and interest in changing their substance use behavior?

Dimension 4: Readiness to Change (Correct answer)
Dimension 6: Recovery Environment
Dimension 5: Relapse/Continued Use Potential
Dimension 1: Acute Intoxication/Withdrawal

Correct answer: Dimension 4: Readiness to Change

ASAM Dimension 4 — Readiness to Change — assesses the client's motivation, engagement, and stage of change for treatment planning.

Question 230: What is the primary purpose of a 'Toolbox Talk'?

To train workers on complex emergency evacuation procedures
To conduct a brief worksite safety discussion on the day's hazards (Correct answer)
To formally document OSHA compliance
To review project budgets before a shift

Correct answer: To conduct a brief worksite safety discussion on the day's hazards

A Toolbox Talk is a short, informal safety meeting focused on hazards specific to the tasks planned for that day.

Question 231: In NSC certification, what is the primary purpose of regulatory compliance programs?

To eliminate competition
To increase revenue
To ensure adherence to laws and standards (Correct answer)
To reduce staffing needs

Correct answer: To ensure adherence to laws and standards

Regulatory compliance programs are designed to ensure organizations follow applicable laws, regulations, and standards.

Question 232: Which factor most commonly contributes to hydroplaning?

Driving too fast on wet roads with worn tires (Correct answer)
Driving on warm asphalt
Using all-season tires in rain
Having tires inflated above recommended PSI

Correct answer: Driving too fast on wet roads with worn tires

Hydroplaning occurs when water builds up under tires faster than it can be displaced, and worn tires or excess speed worsen this effect.

Question 233: Among the objectives of cystic fibrosis treatment are:

Sodium restriction
Pancreatic enzyme replacement & Increased energy, protein, and fat intakes (Correct answer)
Increased energy, protein, and fat intakes
Pancreatic enzyme replacement

Correct answer: Pancreatic enzyme replacement & Increased energy, protein, and fat intakes

Question 234: A victim has a chemical burn to the eye. What is the correct first aid?

Cover the eye with a dry bandage
Rub the eye to remove the chemical
Apply burn cream directly to the eye
Flush the eye with large amounts of water for at least 15–20 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Flush the eye with large amounts of water for at least 15–20 minutes

Immediate and prolonged irrigation with water is critical to dilute and remove the chemical from the eye.

Question 235: Which type of OSHA inspection receives the highest priority?

Imminent danger investigations (Correct answer)
Referral inspections
Follow-up inspections
Programmed inspections

Correct answer: Imminent danger investigations

OSHA prioritizes inspections in order, with imminent danger situations receiving the highest priority.

Question 236: Omega-3 fatty acids are recommended in occupational health nutrition primarily because they help to:

Accelerate fat storage for energy reserves
Increase LDL cholesterol levels
Replace the need for dietary protein
Reduce inflammation and lower cardiovascular disease risk (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reduce inflammation and lower cardiovascular disease risk

Omega-3 fatty acids have anti-inflammatory properties and lower triglyceride levels, significantly reducing the risk of heart disease.

Question 237: Excessive consumption of which mineral is most closely linked to elevated blood pressure in workers?

Potassium
Sodium (Correct answer)
Calcium
Iron

Correct answer: Sodium

High sodium intake causes the body to retain water, increasing blood volume and blood pressure, raising the risk of hypertension.

Question 238: Which of the following goals does the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) aim to achieve?

Collection of dietary data using 24-hour recalls (Correct answer)
Identification of low birth weight infants
Ongoing collection of health data from Americans < 65 years of age
Treatment for elevated blood lipid levels

Correct answer: Collection of dietary data using 24-hour recalls

The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) is a major program conducted by the CDC to assess the health and nutritional status of adults and children in the United States. A core objective of NHANES is to collect comprehensive dietary intake data from participants, primarily through two 24-hour dietary recalls, to monitor national trends in diet and nutrition over time.

Question 239: A worker frequently skips breakfast before a long shift. What is the most likely nutritional consequence?

Reduced blood glucose leading to fatigue (Correct answer)
Improved concentration
Increased muscle mass
Decreased caloric need

Correct answer: Reduced blood glucose leading to fatigue

Skipping breakfast can cause blood glucose to drop, impairing alertness, concentration, and physical performance during a shift.

Question 240: During a clinical evaluation, which type of consent must be obtained before releasing substance use treatment records?

Verbal consent documented in the chart
Implied consent based on referral
Specific written consent compliant with 42 CFR Part 2 (Correct answer)
General medical consent

Correct answer: Specific written consent compliant with 42 CFR Part 2

42 CFR Part 2 imposes stricter confidentiality requirements on substance use disorder records than HIPAA, requiring specific written authorization for disclosure.

Question 241: When using an AED on a victim with a pacemaker, what should you do?

Use half the normal energy setting on the AED
Avoid placing pads directly over the pacemaker device (Correct answer)
Do not use an AED on anyone with a pacemaker
Place pads directly over the pacemaker for best conductivity

Correct answer: Avoid placing pads directly over the pacemaker device

AED pads should be placed at least 1 inch away from an implanted pacemaker or defibrillator to avoid interference.

Question 242: Which approach best describes risk-based compliance management in the NSC field?

Focusing only on past incidents
Treating all risks equally
Prioritizing resources based on risk severity and likelihood (Correct answer)
Eliminating all possible risks

Correct answer: Prioritizing resources based on risk severity and likelihood

Risk-based compliance management involves assessing and prioritizing risks by their severity and likelihood to allocate resources effectively.

Question 243: For an infant (under 1 year) who is unresponsive with no normal breathing, what compression depth is correct?

Half the depth used for adults
About 1.5 inches (4 cm) (Correct answer)
At least 2 inches
About 1 inch (2.5 cm)

Correct answer: About 1.5 inches (4 cm)

For infants, compressions should be about 1.5 inches (4 cm) deep, using two fingers on the center of the chest.

Question 244: Which screening tool is commonly used by NSC-trained counselors to assess alcohol use disorder severity?

GAD-7
AUDIT (Correct answer)
PCL-5
PHQ-9

Correct answer: AUDIT

The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) is the standard 10-item screening tool used to identify hazardous, harmful, and dependent alcohol use.

Question 245: Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom), how many sections must a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) contain?

20
8
16 (Correct answer)
12

Correct answer: 16

OSHA's HazCom Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200) requires SDSs to follow a standardized 16-section format aligned with the GHS.

Question 246: During clinical evaluation, a client admits to using heroin daily for two years but says they 'can quit anytime.' This reflects which concept?

Denial (Correct answer)
Cognitive dissonance only
Secondary trauma
Dual diagnosis

Correct answer: Denial

Denial in substance use disorders involves minimizing, rationalizing, or failing to acknowledge the severity and consequences of one's use.

Question 247: What is 'inattentional blindness' in the context of defensive driving?

Difficulty seeing in low-light conditions
Failing to see an object in plain sight because attention is focused elsewhere (Correct answer)
Temporary vision loss from bright headlights
Legally blind drivers who obtain restricted licenses

Correct answer: Failing to see an object in plain sight because attention is focused elsewhere

Inattentional blindness means the brain misses visible hazards when cognitive attention is diverted, as with phone use.

Question 248: In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, which control method is considered most effective at reducing hazards?

Engineering controls
Elimination (Correct answer)
Administrative controls
PPE

Correct answer: Elimination

Elimination — physically removing the hazard — is the most effective method in OSHA's hierarchy of controls.

Question 249: A construction worker has a large piece of metal impaled in his thigh. What is the correct first aid approach?

Remove the object immediately to control bleeding
Apply a tourniquet above the impaled object immediately
Leave the object in place and stabilize it with bulky dressings (Correct answer)
Pack the wound tightly around the object with gauze

Correct answer: Leave the object in place and stabilize it with bulky dressings

An impaled object should never be removed because it may be plugging blood vessels; stabilize it in place and await EMS.

Question 250: Which of the following is an example of an ergonomic hazard in the workplace?

Repetitive motion tasks performed daily (Correct answer)
Loud machinery noise above 85 dB
Spilled chemicals on the floor
Exposed electrical wiring

Correct answer: Repetitive motion tasks performed daily

Ergonomic hazards include repetitive motions, awkward postures, and forceful exertions that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders.

Certified Nutrition Support Clinician (CNSC)

The CNSC credential validates advanced clinical knowledge in enteral and parenteral nutrition support for healthcare professionals managing patients in acute and chronic care settings. The exam is administered by the National Board of Nutrition Support Certification (NBNSC).

250

Questions

240 min

Time Limit

70%

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