Mixed Deck — All NPTE-PTA Topics Flashcards

A patient is receiving NMES (Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation) for quadriceps re-education post-ACL repair. The on:off ratio should be set to:

Answer: 1:5 to allow adequate muscle recovery between contractions

An on:off ratio of 1:5 (e.g., 10 seconds on, 50 seconds off) allows sufficient recovery time to minimize muscle fatigue during NMES strengthening sessions.

The Thomas test is used to assess tightness of which muscle group?

Answer: Hip flexors

The Thomas test assesses hip flexor tightness, particularly the iliopsoas and rectus femoris, by observing if the opposite leg rises off the table when the hip is brought to full flexion.

A patient with multiple sclerosis reports symptoms worsening with heat. This is known as:

Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon

Uhthoff's phenomenon describes the temporary worsening of MS symptoms with increased body temperature, such as during exercise or hot baths.

Which phase of wound healing is primarily characterized by fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis?

Answer: Proliferative phase

The proliferative phase (approximately days 4–21) is defined by fibroblast migration and activity, collagen synthesis, angiogenesis, and the formation of granulation tissue.

A patient with elevated TSH and low free T3 and T4 most likely has:

Answer: Hypothyroidism

The quantities of thyroid hormone that are present in the body are T3 and T4. These hormones may circulate at lower levels when the thyroid is underactive. The body is continually signaling for additional thyroid hormones, therefore this can also lead to greater levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

Which breathing exercise technique is most appropriate for a patient with COPD to reduce air trapping and dyspnea?

Answer: Pursed-lip breathing

Pursed-lip breathing creates back-pressure during exhalation that helps keep airways open longer, reducing air trapping and improving gas exchange in COPD.

What is the primary purpose of the push-off phase (terminal stance to pre-swing) in the gait cycle?

Answer: Forward propulsion of the body

The push-off phase generates forward propulsion via ankle plantarflexion, providing the energy needed to advance the limb into swing and propel the body forward.

On the Braden Scale for pressure injury risk prediction, which score indicates the HIGHEST risk for pressure injury development?

Answer: Score of 9

The Braden Scale ranges from 6 (highest risk) to 23 (lowest risk); a score of ≤9 indicates very high risk because lower scores reflect severe impairment across sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear.

Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique involves alternating contraction of agonist and antagonist muscles without relaxation?

Answer: Rhythmic stabilization

Rhythmic stabilization involves alternating isometric contractions of agonists and antagonists to improve joint stability and proprioception.

Which balance assessment tool uses a 14-item ordinal scale and is commonly used to predict fall risk in older adults?

Answer: Berg Balance Scale

The Berg Balance Scale is a 14-item, 0–4 ordinal scale with a maximum of 56 points; scores below 45 indicate increased fall risk.

During manual muscle testing of the gluteus medius, the therapist positions the patient in sidelying with the tested limb on top. A grade of 3/5 (fair) would be indicated if the patient:

Answer: Completes full range of motion against gravity with no resistance

Grade 3/5 (Fair) is defined as the ability to move through full range of motion against gravity but with no additional resistance.

Using the Rule of Nines, what percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) does one entire upper extremity represent in an adult?

Answer: 9%

In the adult Rule of Nines, each upper extremity (including the arm, forearm, and hand) represents 9% of TBSA, making both upper extremities together 18%.

Which rotator cuff muscle is responsible for internal rotation of the shoulder?

Answer: Subscapularis

The subscapularis is the only rotator cuff muscle that internally rotates the glenohumeral joint.

A patient with congestive heart failure is placed in which position to reduce preload and ease breathing?

Answer: High Fowler's (upright sitting)

High Fowler's position (sitting upright at 60–90°) reduces venous return to the heart (preload), decreasing pulmonary congestion and improving breathing ease in CHF.

Phonophoresis differs from standard ultrasound in that it:

Answer: Drives topical medication into deeper tissues using ultrasound energy

Phonophoresis uses ultrasound energy to enhance the transdermal delivery of topical medications such as hydrocortisone or diclofenac into deeper tissues.

Which parameter determines the frequency of ultrasound and affects depth of penetration?

Answer: Frequency (MHz)

Ultrasound at 1 MHz penetrates deeper (up to 5 cm) and is used for deep tissues, while 3 MHz penetrates more superficially (1–2 cm) due to higher absorption.

Which cranial nerve palsy causes an inability to abduct the eye (lateral gaze palsy)?

Answer: CN VI

Cranial nerve VI (abducens) controls the lateral rectus muscle; palsy causes inability to abduct the eye on the affected side.

What is the therapeutic depth of penetration for a hot pack (hydrocollator)?

Answer: 1–2 cm (superficial tissues)

Hot packs heat superficial tissues to a depth of approximately 1–2 cm; deeper muscles are not significantly heated by this modality.

Which plane of motion is used when performing hip abduction exercises?

Answer: Frontal (coronal) plane

Hip abduction occurs in the frontal (coronal) plane, moving the limb laterally away from the midline.

Which vertebral level corresponds to the C5 dermatome?

Answer: Lateral arm and shoulder region

The C5 dermatome covers the lateral aspect of the arm and the deltoid shoulder region.