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General Practice Flashcards

7 cards from real NAVLE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 General Practice flashcards as text

  1. A 7-year-old spayed female cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a palpable ventral neck mass. T4 is markedly elevated. Which treatment option is considered curative?

    Answer: Radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy

    Radioactive iodine (I-131) is the treatment of choice for feline hyperthyroidism as it selectively destroys hyperfunctional thyroid tissue and is considered curative with a single dose.

  2. A 2-year-old intact male dog presents with acute scrotal swelling, fever, and pain. Orchitis is suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management?

    Answer: Castration and broad-spectrum antibiotics

    Castration combined with broad-spectrum antibiotics is recommended for bacterial orchitis to eliminate the infection source, prevent abscess formation, and avoid systemic sepsis.

  3. A horse presents with acute colic, nasogastric reflux >2 L, absent borborygmi on the right side, and tachycardia of 68 bpm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis

    Large volumes of nasogastric reflux (>2 L) combined with absent right-sided borborygmi, severe tachycardia, and acute pain are classic for duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (anterior enteritis).

  4. A rabbit presents with acute respiratory distress, cyanosis, and sudden death of several cage-mates over 24 hours. Necropsy reveals multifocal hepatic necrosis and pulmonary hemorrhage. The most likely etiologic agent is:

    Answer: Rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus (RHDV)

    Rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus causes peracute mortality with hepatic necrosis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and pulmonary hemorrhage, often affecting multiple animals rapidly.

  5. A 10-year-old dog is diagnosed with stage 3 chronic kidney disease (IRIS). Which dietary modification is most appropriate?

    Answer: Phosphorus restriction with moderate protein reduction

    Phosphorus restriction slows CKD progression by reducing renal secondary hyperparathyroidism, and moderate protein reduction decreases uremic toxin accumulation without worsening malnutrition.

  6. A 6-month-old intact male puppy presents with bilateral cryptorchidism confirmed on exam. What is the recommended course of action?

    Answer: Castration including removal of both undescended testes

    Both retained and scrotal testes must be removed because cryptorchid testes carry a significantly higher risk of Sertoli cell tumor and seminoma, and the condition is heritable.

  7. A cow at 60 days postpartum has been anestrus. Body condition score is 2/5. Progesterone profiles confirm ovarian inactivity. The primary cause is most likely:

    Answer: Negative energy balance suppressing the hypothalamic-pituitary axis

    Postpartum anestrus in cattle is most commonly caused by negative energy balance, which suppresses GnRH pulsatility and LH release, preventing follicular maturation and ovulation.