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Treatment Planning & Management Flashcards

7 cards from real MLS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A patient with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed oral ferrous sulfate. Which laboratory parameter is the BEST indicator of early treatment response?

    Answer: Reticulocyte count

    Reticulocyte count rises within 3–5 days of starting iron therapy, making it the earliest measurable response to treatment.

  2. A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.8 with no active bleeding. According to standard management guidelines, the MOST appropriate action is to:

    Answer: Hold warfarin doses and recheck INR in 24–48 hours

    For an elevated INR (4.5–10) without bleeding, guidelines recommend withholding warfarin and rechecking rather than routine vitamin K administration.

  3. Which heparin monitoring test is used specifically to guide unfractionated heparin (UFH) therapy in patients with antiphospholipid syndrome?

    Answer: Anti-Xa assay

    Anti-Xa assay is preferred for UFH monitoring in antiphospholipid syndrome because lupus anticoagulant can falsely prolong the aPTT, making it unreliable.

  4. A bone marrow transplant patient develops a CBC showing WBC 0.2 × 10³/µL, platelet count 8 × 10³/µL, and Hgb 7.1 g/dL on day 10 post-transplant. This finding is MOST consistent with:

    Answer: Expected engraftment nadir

    Pancytopenia around day 10–14 post-transplant represents the expected nadir before donor stem cell engraftment begins producing new blood cells.

  5. A patient receiving methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis has a serum creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL. The MOST important clinical concern related to this finding is:

    Answer: Increased risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced renal clearance

    Methotrexate is renally cleared; impaired kidney function leads to drug accumulation, increasing risk of bone marrow suppression and mucositis.

  6. Which laboratory finding would prompt a clinician to SWITCH from oral to IV vancomycin when treating Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection?

    Answer: Evidence of ileus or toxic megacolon on imaging

    Ileus or toxic megacolon impairs oral drug delivery to the colon, necessitating IV metronidazole plus rectal vancomycin or other escalation strategies.

  7. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD stage 4) has a hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL and serum ferritin of 180 ng/mL with transferrin saturation of 18%. The treatment of choice is:

    Answer: IV iron supplementation followed by reassessment

    TSAT below 20% in CKD anemia indicates functional iron deficiency; IV iron is preferred over oral due to impaired GI absorption and superior bioavailability.