Law School Admission Test (LSAT) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A passage states that researchers found no statistically significant link between sugar consumption and hyperactivity in children across 23 studies. What is the most defensible inference?

Sugar has no effect whatsoever on children's behavior
More research is needed before any conclusions can be drawn
The evidence strongly challenges the popular belief that sugar causes hyperactivity (Correct answer)
Parents who believe sugar causes hyperactivity are lying

Correct answer: The evidence strongly challenges the popular belief that sugar causes hyperactivity

The consistent null findings across 23 studies provide strong evidence against the sugar-hyperactivity link, though not absolute proof.

Question 2: A pharmaceutical company fast-tracked approval of a new painkiller by demonstrating it was more effective than a placebo. Yet after widespread use, population-level chronic pain rates increased. Which of the following most helps explain this paradox?

Doctors overprescribed the painkiller to patients who would have recovered without treatment.
The painkiller produced dependency, leading patients to develop drug-induced hyperalgesia—a condition where stopping the drug causes greater pain than the original condition. (Correct answer)
The placebo in clinical trials was unusually effective, making the drug's relative benefit appear larger than its absolute benefit.
The painkiller was effective only for acute pain, not for the chronic conditions most patients suffered.

Correct answer: The painkiller produced dependency, leading patients to develop drug-induced hyperalgesia—a condition where stopping the drug causes greater pain than the original condition.

Drug-induced hyperalgesia caused by opioid dependency creates more chronic pain than it resolves, explaining the population-level worsening despite individual short-term efficacy.

Question 3: Which cognitive habit is most important to develop for mastering Logical Reasoning on the LSAT?

Memorizing all logical fallacy names and definitions
Identifying the conclusion and the evidence used to support it (Correct answer)
Speed-reading entire passages before analyzing questions
Focusing exclusively on question stems before reading stimuli

Correct answer: Identifying the conclusion and the evidence used to support it

Logical Reasoning questions turn on argument structure — reliably identifying the conclusion and its supporting premises is foundational to every question type.

Question 4: In LSAT logic games, making a 'global deduction' before tackling individual questions is valuable because:

It eliminates the need to read question stems
It always identifies the correct answer immediately
It only helps for ordering games, not grouping games
It reveals constraints that apply to every valid arrangement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It reveals constraints that apply to every valid arrangement

Global deductions derived from combining rules narrow the solution space for all questions in the game.

Question 5: Five city inspections are scheduled Monday through Friday. Rules: City A is inspected before City B; City C is inspected on Wednesday; City D is inspected on the day immediately before City E. If City B is inspected on Friday, which day is City A inspected?

Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, or Thursday
Thursday only
Monday or Tuesday only
Monday, Tuesday, or Thursday (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monday, Tuesday, or Thursday

A must be before B (Friday), so A can be Mon–Thu; but C is fixed on Wednesday, so if A is Wednesday then A=C which is impossible, leaving Mon, Tue, or Thu for A.

Question 6: A legal passage states: 'No contract formed under duress is enforceable. The defendant signed the agreement under duress.' Which conclusion follows?

The agreement is unenforceable (Correct answer)
The defendant had no intent to contract
The plaintiff acted illegally
Duress is a common defense in contract cases

Correct answer: The agreement is unenforceable

Applying the general rule directly to the specific case yields the conclusion that the agreement is unenforceable.

Question 7: Argument: 'All successful startup founders are risk-takers. All risk-takers are optimistic. Therefore, all successful startup founders are optimistic.' The reasoning in which of the following arguments is most similar?

All cars have wheels. All wheels are round. Therefore, all cars have something that is round.
Some politicians are lawyers. Some lawyers are honest. Therefore, some politicians are honest.
All birds can fly. A penguin is a bird. Therefore, a penguin can fly.
All dogs are mammals. All mammals are animals. Therefore, all dogs are animals. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All dogs are mammals. All mammals are animals. Therefore, all dogs are animals.

This is a classic example of a transitive property in logic, or a categorical syllogism. The structure is: All A are B. All B are C. Therefore, all A are C. Answer B perfectly replicates this structure: All dogs (A) are mammals (B). All mammals (B) are animals (C). Therefore, all dogs (A) are animals (C). Answer A is slightly different in its conclusion. Answer C uses 'some' instead of 'all', which is a different logical structure (and is invalid). Answer D applies a general rule to a specific instance, which is also a different pattern of reasoning.

Question 8: Passage A In complex civil litigation involving highly technical matters such as patent disputes or securities fraud, the traditional lay jury is an anachronism. Jurors are asked to comprehend sophisticated scientific or financial principles that are far beyond their everyday experience, leading to verdicts based on confusion or emotion rather than a reasoned analysis of the evidence. Justice would be better served by either a bench trial, where an experienced judge decides the facts, or a system of professional 'special' juries composed of individuals with expertise in the relevant field. The constitutional guarantee of a jury trial was never intended to apply to cases whose complexity makes a mockery of the jury's fact-finding role. Passage B The argument to abolish lay juries in complex civil cases is fundamentally elitist and undermines a cornerstone of our justice system. The jury serves not only as a fact-finder but also as the conscience of the community, ensuring that legal outcomes align with societal values. While the subject matter may be complex, the core issues of fairness and credibility are universal. Skilled attorneys have a duty to present their cases clearly, and jurors, through collective deliberation, are more than capable of discerning the truth. Removing the jury cedes immense power to a small cadre of judges or 'experts,' who may bring their own professional biases, and severs the crucial democratic link between the people and the administration of justice. Which of the following principles underlies the arguments in both passages?

The efficiency of a trial is the most important measure of its success.
Expert testimony is often more influential than direct evidence in complex cases.
The reliability of fact-finding is a critical component of a just outcome. (Correct answer)
The primary purpose of a civil trial is to reflect community values.

Correct answer: The reliability of fact-finding is a critical component of a just outcome.

Both authors are centrally concerned with achieving a just outcome, and both link that outcome to the quality of the fact-finding process. Passage A argues that lay juries are poor fact-finders in complex cases, thus leading to unjust outcomes. Passage B argues that lay juries are capable fact-finders and that their removal would threaten justice. They disagree on the *method* for achieving reliable fact-finding, but they both agree that reliable fact-finding is essential for justice. Choice A is a core argument of Passage B, not A. Choices C and D discuss aspects of trials, but neither is the central, shared principle upon which both arguments are built.

Question 9: Ecologist: The population of monarch butterflies has declined sharply in recent years. This decline is due to the widespread use of herbicides that destroy milkweed, which is the sole food source for monarch caterpillars. Therefore, to increase the monarch butterfly population, we must restrict the use of these herbicides.

Farmers will comply with any new restrictions on herbicide use.
Monarch butterflies are an important part of the ecosystem.
The use of herbicides is the only factor negatively affecting the monarch butterfly population.
Restricting the use of the herbicides will lead to an increase in the amount of available milkweed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Restricting the use of the herbicides will lead to an increase in the amount of available milkweed.

The argument identifies a cause (herbicide destroys milkweed) for a problem (butterfly decline) and proposes a solution (restrict herbicides) to achieve a result (increase butterfly population). The argument assumes that the proposed action will actually reverse the causal chain. It assumes that restricting herbicides will lead to more milkweed. Without this link, the conclusion that the butterfly population will increase does not follow from the premise. This is a necessary assumption. If restricting herbicides did *not* lead to more milkweed, the proposed solution would be ineffective.

Question 10: An LSAT linguistics passage examines how dialects form within a single language, arguing that 'geographic isolation is the most consistent factor in dialect formation.' In the passage's framework, which scenario would most likely produce a distinct dialect?

A city that receives immigrants from many different linguistic backgrounds
A region where a standardized educational curriculum is widely and uniformly taught
A mountain village cut off from surrounding communities for several generations (Correct answer)
A community whose members regularly read texts in the standardized form of the language

Correct answer: A mountain village cut off from surrounding communities for several generations

If geographic isolation is the most consistent factor, a mountain village cut off for generations exemplifies that condition most directly and would most likely produce a distinct dialect.

Question 11: When building a study schedule for the LSAT, most experts recommend beginning serious preparation at least how far in advance of your test date?

2–4 weeks
1–2 weeks
3–6 months (Correct answer)
One full year

Correct answer: 3–6 months

Most LSAT instructors recommend 3–6 months of focused study to see meaningful score improvements, especially for students aiming for top-tier schools.

Question 12: A passage describes a study where participants who slept fewer than six hours scored lower on memory tests than those who slept eight hours. Which inference is best supported?

Adequate sleep may be important for memory performance (Correct answer)
Sleep deprivation permanently damages memory
Poor memory causes people to sleep less
Eight hours is the optimal sleep duration for all people

Correct answer: Adequate sleep may be important for memory performance

The study supports a link between sleep duration and memory performance without establishing causation or permanence.

Question 13: A 'sufficient assumption' question on the LSAT asks you to find a statement that:

Weakens the argument's conclusion
Guarantees the argument's conclusion if added (Correct answer)
Is required for the argument to work
Identifies a flaw in the reasoning

Correct answer: Guarantees the argument's conclusion if added

A sufficient assumption, when added to the premises, makes the conclusion logically certain.

Question 14: An awards committee selects 3 winners from 6 nominees—P, Q, R, S, T, U. Q wins if and only if R wins. S cannot win if P wins. T must win. Which of the following is an acceptable set of winners?

Q, R, T (Correct answer)
P, T, U
P, S, T
Q, T, U
P, Q, T

Correct answer: Q, R, T

Check Q, R, T: Q↔R: both present ✓. T present ✓. P not present, so S constraint not triggered ✓. Valid selection.

Question 15: A city that built large quantities of affordable housing found that average housing costs across the city increased in the years following construction. Which of the following most helps to explain this result?

The construction costs were passed on to tenants through higher fees.
The construction displaced existing residents who then competed for remaining market-rate units.
Affordable housing construction signals urban investment and desirability, attracting higher-income residents and businesses that bid up prices across the city's housing market. (Correct answer)
Affordable housing units were built in wealthier neighborhoods where land costs were high.
Property taxes increased to fund the affordable housing program, raising costs for all residents.

Correct answer: Affordable housing construction signals urban investment and desirability, attracting higher-income residents and businesses that bid up prices across the city's housing market.

Gentrification signal: affordable housing construction, paradoxically, signals neighborhood investment and viability, attracting market-rate demand that bids up prices more than the affordable supply restrains them.

Question 16: A marketing executive argues that the company's new ad campaign increased sales because sales rose 20% in the quarter the campaign launched. Which most weakens this argument?

A major competitor went bankrupt at the start of the same quarter, likely driving their customers to the company. (Correct answer)
The campaign ran across television, digital, and print media.
The 20% increase exceeded the company's forecast.
Ad campaigns are expensive and their ROI should be carefully measured.

Correct answer: A major competitor went bankrupt at the start of the same quarter, likely driving their customers to the company.

A competitor's bankruptcy is an alternative explanation that could independently cause the sales increase.

Question 17: A city reduced speed limits on its most dangerous roads and installed more speed cameras. The number of fatal accidents on those specific roads decreased. Yet citywide fatal accident numbers increased. Which of the following most helps explain this?

Speed cameras malfunction frequently and fail to deter speeders on targeted roads.
Fatal accidents increased nationally during the same period due to distracted driving, overwhelming local improvements.
The reduced speed limits caused congestion that led to rear-end collisions in adjacent intersections.
Drivers who normally used the monitored roads rerouted to unmonitored residential streets, transferring and increasing danger in those areas. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drivers who normally used the monitored roads rerouted to unmonitored residential streets, transferring and increasing danger in those areas.

Displacement of traffic to unmonitored roads transfers and potentially amplifies risk in areas without safety measures, raising the citywide total even as targeted roads improve.

Question 18: A committee game selects 5 from {M, N, O, P, Q, R, S}. The rule is: 'If M is selected, then N and O are both selected.' If N is NOT selected, what can you conclude?

O is not selected
M is not selected (Correct answer)
M is selected
S must be selected

Correct answer: M is not selected

Contrapositive of M→(N and O): if not N or not O, then not M; since not N, M cannot be selected.

Question 19: A university switched from letter grades to detailed written evaluations, believing this would reduce student anxiety about grades and improve learning. Student anxiety scores, however, increased after the switch. Which of the following most helps explain this?

The switch signaled to students that the university doubted their ability to handle direct numerical feedback.
Professors wrote harsher critiques in written form than they would have expressed through letter grades.
Written evaluations required students to read lengthy feedback, which was more time-consuming and stressful than checking a single letter grade.
Graduate school admissions and employers continued to expect letter grades, and the uncertainty about how written evaluations would be interpreted created new sources of anxiety. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Graduate school admissions and employers continued to expect letter grades, and the uncertainty about how written evaluations would be interpreted created new sources of anxiety.

External stakeholders' continued reliance on letter grades meant that written evaluations created uncertainty about future outcomes, generating more anxiety than letter grades had.

Question 20: Passage: Antibiotic resistance has emerged as one of the most pressing global health threats of the 21st century. The widespread use—and misuse—of antibiotics in human medicine and agriculture has accelerated the natural evolutionary process by which bacteria develop resistance mechanisms. Bacteria can acquire resistance through spontaneous mutation or through horizontal gene transfer, in which resistance genes are passed between bacterial cells, including across species boundaries. The World Health Organization has classified antibiotic resistance as a global health emergency, warning that without intervention, common infections and minor injuries could once again become fatal. Proposed solutions include stewardship programs to reduce unnecessary antibiotic prescriptions, investment in new antibiotic research, and international regulation of agricultural antibiotic use. However, economic incentives in the pharmaceutical industry currently discourage development of new antibiotics, as these drugs are used briefly and may quickly lose effectiveness—making them less profitable than treatments for chronic conditions. Which of the following best describes the author's view of the antibiotic resistance problem?

The problem is serious and has specific causes, but economic factors complicate solutions. (Correct answer)
The problem is primarily agricultural and should be addressed through farm regulation.
The problem is largely overstated by international health organizations.
The problem is already being adequately addressed by existing pharmaceutical research.
The problem is inevitable given bacterial evolution and cannot be meaningfully addressed.

Correct answer: The problem is serious and has specific causes, but economic factors complicate solutions.

The passage presents antibiotic resistance as a serious global threat, identifies causes, proposes solutions, but notes pharmaceutical economic incentives that complicate antibiotic development—conveying both seriousness and complexity.

Question 21: The argument 'We should legalize marijuana because prohibition has failed, just as alcohol prohibition failed in the 1920s' relies primarily on which reasoning technique?

Appeal to authority by citing historical consensus.
Deductive reasoning from established legal principles.
Analogical reasoning between two historical cases. (Correct answer)
Statistical induction from a large data set.

Correct answer: Analogical reasoning between two historical cases.

The argument draws a parallel between two historical prohibition situations, inferring that what happened with alcohol will apply to marijuana.

Question 22: A public health official argues that mandatory vaccination programs reduce disease outbreaks because high vaccination rates create herd immunity. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

The diseases targeted by the program have low transmission rates, meaning herd immunity thresholds may never be breached anyway. (Correct answer)
Some people cannot be vaccinated for medical reasons.
Some vaccines require booster shots to maintain effectiveness.
Mandatory programs may face legal challenges.
Vaccine hesitancy has increased in recent years.

Correct answer: The diseases targeted by the program have low transmission rates, meaning herd immunity thresholds may never be breached anyway.

If the diseases have low transmission rates and outbreaks are unlikely regardless of vaccination policy, the mandatory program may not be necessary to prevent outbreaks, weakening the causal claim.

Question 23: A playhouse director is attempting to choose seven shows for the forthcoming season. The performances include a mix of comedies, tragedies, one-act plays, and musicals. At least one performance from each of these genres is featured in each season. The following guidelines must be followed by the director while selecting and staging shows: 1. Either a comedy or a musical must be performed first. 2. One-act plays cannot be the season's sixth or seventh show. 3. At least two comedies are required. 4. There can't be two of the same genre in a row. 5. If the third performance isn't a one-act, it must be a musical. Which of the following is NOT a possible season order if the director specifies that every tragedy must be followed by a comedy?

musical, one-acts, musical, comedy, tragedy, comedy, musical
musical, tragedy, comedy, one-acts, musical, tragedy, comedy (Correct answer)
musical, comedy, one-acts, comedy, one-acts, tragedy, comedy
comedy, musical, one-acts, tragedy, comedy, musical, comedy
comedy, one-acts, musical, tragedy, comedy, tragedy, comedy

Correct answer: musical, tragedy, comedy, one-acts, musical, tragedy, comedy

The additional condition states that every tragedy must be followed by a comedy. Option D presents the sequence: Musical, Tragedy, Comedy, One-acts, Musical, Tragedy, Comedy (M T C O M T C). This sequence violates Rule 5, which states: 'If the third performance isn't a one-act, it must be a musical.' In option D, the third performance is a Comedy, which is neither a one-act nor a musical, making this sequence impossible. All other options successfully adhere to all the rules, including the new condition.

Question 24: In a logical reasoning question, which of the following most accurately describes the flaw of 'affirming the consequent'?

Concluding that because P and Q are both true, P must imply Q
Concluding that because P implies Q, and Q is true, P must be true (Correct answer)
Concluding that because P implies Q, and Q is false, P must be false
Concluding that because P implies Q, and P is false, Q must be false

Correct answer: Concluding that because P implies Q, and Q is true, P must be true

Affirming the consequent incorrectly assumes that if the conclusion of a conditional is true, the premise must also be true.

Question 25: A social science LSAT passage describes an anthropological study finding that in all observed societies, 'gift-giving creates social obligations.' This finding is best described as:

A universal pattern observed consistently across diverse cultural contexts (Correct answer)
A hypothesis requiring further testing before it can be accepted
A culturally specific observation limited to the particular societies studied
An exception to the general principle that gifts are freely given without expectation

Correct answer: A universal pattern observed consistently across diverse cultural contexts

The phrase 'in all observed societies' explicitly indicates the finding applied across every culture in the study, making it a universal pattern within the research.

Question 26: A passage argues that classical music education improves spatial reasoning in children. The author mentions that students in music programs also tend to have higher math scores. What can most reasonably be inferred?

Music education directly causes higher math scores
Children with higher math scores prefer classical music
Music education is the best way to improve academic performance
Spatial reasoning and math performance may be related (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Spatial reasoning and math performance may be related

The co-occurrence of improved spatial reasoning and math scores supports a possible relationship between the two abilities.

Question 27: A historian argues that the decline of the Roman Empire was primarily caused by economic factors rather than military defeats. Which of the following, if true, most supports this argument? (A) Rome suffered several significant military defeats in the third century CE. (B) Rome's military remained largely intact even as its administrative and tax collection systems collapsed in the fifth century. (C) Many historians continue to debate the primary causes of Rome's fall. (D) Economic troubles in Rome mirrored those in its eastern provinces.

Rome suffered several significant military defeats in the third century CE.
Economic troubles in Rome mirrored those in its eastern provinces.
Rome's military remained largely intact even as its administrative and tax collection systems collapsed in the fifth century. (Correct answer)
Many historians continue to debate the primary causes of Rome's fall.

Correct answer: Rome's military remained largely intact even as its administrative and tax collection systems collapsed in the fifth century.

Option B strengthens the economic explanation by showing that the military was not the failing institution—instead, the economic and administrative systems collapsed first.

Question 28: A social scientist argues that income inequality causes social unrest, citing a correlation between higher inequality (measured by Gini coefficient) and greater political instability across countries. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Some highly unequal countries have remained politically stable for decades.
International organizations track income inequality data annually.
The Gini coefficient is a commonly used measure of income distribution.
Political scientists disagree about the causes of social unrest.
Historical analysis shows that periods of increasing inequality in stable societies are reliably followed by increases in social unrest, before external factors changed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Historical analysis shows that periods of increasing inequality in stable societies are reliably followed by increases in social unrest, before external factors changed.

Temporal sequencing (inequality increases followed by unrest increases) within societies provides stronger causal evidence than cross-sectional correlation, and the phrase 'before external factors changed' helps rule out reverse causation.

Question 29: A nutritional epidemiologist argues that consuming red meat more than four times weekly significantly increases colorectal cancer risk. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Red meat contains higher levels of saturated fat than poultry or fish.
Colorectal cancer is one of the most common cancer types worldwide.
Some studies have found inconsistent associations between red meat and cancer.
A prospective cohort study following 500,000 individuals for 15 years found that those who consumed red meat more than four times weekly had a 35% higher rate of colorectal cancer even after controlling for age, smoking, alcohol consumption, and physical activity. (Correct answer)
Dietary guidelines in many countries recommend limiting red meat.

Correct answer: A prospective cohort study following 500,000 individuals for 15 years found that those who consumed red meat more than four times weekly had a 35% higher rate of colorectal cancer even after controlling for age, smoking, alcohol consumption, and physical activity.

A large prospective cohort study with extensive covariate control and 15-year follow-up provides the strongest observational evidence available, directly addressing confounders and establishing temporal precedence.

Question 30: A tech analyst argues that user interface simplicity increases app adoption rates, citing successful minimalist apps. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

A/B testing of identical app features with simple versus complex interfaces showed significantly higher adoption and retention rates for the simple interface across multiple demographic groups. (Correct answer)
Interface design is a specialized field with established principles.
Many users abandon apps they find confusing.
User experience research is routinely conducted by technology companies.
Minimalist design principles have been popularized by Apple and Google.

Correct answer: A/B testing of identical app features with simple versus complex interfaces showed significantly higher adoption and retention rates for the simple interface across multiple demographic groups.

Controlled A/B testing isolates interface complexity as the variable and demonstrates its causal effect on adoption across diverse groups, providing the strongest evidence for the claim.

Question 31: Collapse, a meticulous examination of the causes of the demise of several ancient cultures, was released by Jared Diamond in 2004. His ground-breaking research examined the historical and environmental circumstances that led to the extinction of the Anasazi people of the American southwest, the Polynesians of Easter Island, and the "Viking colonies" of Greenland. Diamond's central claim was that these cultures' demise was mostly caused by human imprudence and a lack of vision. One of the earliest studies to look for connections between resource depletion in prehistoric Greenland and Easter Island's deforestation was Diamond's. Many well-known environmental activists saw his message as a call to action since he proposed that human agency had a crucial part in determining whether civilizations disintegrated or thrived. His message was that societies may continue to be lively as long as they made wise resource management decisions. However, many detractors have argued that Diamond's theories were oversimplified and unfairly blamed the local populace for the loss of historic cultures. For instance, Terry Hunt, an archaeologist at the University of Hawaii, asserts that the Polynesian deforestation—which Diamond blamed on the irresponsibility of the indigenous peoples—was really brought on by rat predators. Hunt has also pointed out that Diamond disregarded the part European sickness had in wiping off local people. The question of who is to blame becomes much more complicated when these other elements are addressed, and some of Diamond's ideas would need to be reexamined. According to the passage, all of the following were used by Diamond or Hunt to support their positions EXCEPT:

deforestation on Easter Island resulting from reckless behavior or lack of foresight
overuse of pasture land by animals of the Anasazi in the American southwest (Correct answer)
the spreading of disease by Europeans among some native populations
resource depletion in Greenland resulting from reckless behavior or lack of foresight
deforestation on Easter Island resulting from animal behavior

Correct answer: overuse of pasture land by animals of the Anasazi in the American southwest

You must check which four of the answer options were mentioned in the passage for this specific type of "EXCEPT" question. Here, you must confirm that they served as the two researchers' supporting documentation. You discover that Diamond researched the Anasazi of the American southwest in the opening paragraph when it refers to "overuse of pasture land by animals of the Anasazi in the American southwest", but you are not informed of what he believes particularly caused their extinction. The phrase "overuse of pasture land by animals of the Anasazi in the American southwest" is valid because there is no mention of excessive pasture use. You learn that Diamond's work focused on "commonalities between deforestation in Easter Island and resource depletion in ancient Greenland" relating to his theory that "human recklessness" and "lack of foresight" were the cause of the disappearance. This is in reference to "deforestation on Easter Island resulting from reckless behavior or lack of foresight" and "resource depletion in Greenland resulting from reckless behavior or lack of foresight."

Question 32: When is the best time to cancel an LSAT score?

Immediately after the test ends, during the same testing session
Before the test begins, if you feel unprepared on test day
Only if you experienced a documented testing irregularity
Within 6 days of receiving your score, if it is lower than expected (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Within 6 days of receiving your score, if it is lower than expected

LSAC allows score cancellation within 6 days of your official score release, giving you time to review the score before deciding whether to cancel.

Question 33: A city argues that its new after-school tutoring program increased graduation rates, pointing to a rise from 78% to 85% graduation rate after implementation. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Tutoring has been shown to improve academic confidence.
Neighboring cities without similar programs showed no comparable improvement in graduation rates during the same period. (Correct answer)
The tutoring program employed certified teachers.
The program served 300 students in its first year.
The program was funded by a federal education grant.

Correct answer: Neighboring cities without similar programs showed no comparable improvement in graduation rates during the same period.

A comparison group showing no improvement rules out external factors (economic conditions, demographic shifts) as alternative explanations, strengthening the inference that the program caused the improvement.

Question 34: In Comparative Reading, when one passage uses inductive reasoning (specific cases to general principles) and the other uses deductive reasoning (general principles to specific cases), a useful analytical move is to:

Conclude that the deductive passage is more rigorous
Treat the passages as formally equivalent since both reach conclusions
Ask whether the general principle each relies on is the same, complementary, or conflicting (Correct answer)
Focus only on the specific cases mentioned in both passages

Correct answer: Ask whether the general principle each relies on is the same, complementary, or conflicting

Comparing the general principles each author uses—whether shared, complementary, or in conflict—reveals the deepest level of agreement or disagreement between inductive and deductive arguments.

Question 35: A passage opens by acknowledging that nuclear energy has risks, but then argues at length that those risks are manageable and that nuclear power is essential for reducing carbon emissions. The main point is:

Despite its risks, nuclear energy is necessary for addressing climate change (Correct answer)
Risk management strategies for power plants need improvement
Nuclear energy poses serious and unmanageable risks
Carbon emissions are the primary cause of climate change

Correct answer: Despite its risks, nuclear energy is necessary for addressing climate change

The passage concedes risks but ultimately argues for nuclear power's necessity, making that argument—not the concession—the main point.

Question 36: A car manufacturer installed fuel-efficiency software in its vehicles and advertised lower fuel costs to consumers. However, total fuel consumption by owners of those vehicles increased. Which of the following best explains this outcome?

Drivers, perceiving their fuel costs as lower per mile, drove significantly more miles than before, consuming more total fuel. (Correct answer)
The software contained programming errors that reduced engine performance and required more fuel per mile.
The vehicles' fuel tanks were designed to be larger, allowing owners to fill them more frequently.
Fuel became cheaper during the same period, encouraging more driving by all consumers.

Correct answer: Drivers, perceiving their fuel costs as lower per mile, drove significantly more miles than before, consuming more total fuel.

The rebound effect explains the paradox: lower cost-per-mile incentivizes more miles driven, negating and reversing the efficiency gains in total consumption.

Question 37: Historian: To be considered a truly great military leader, one must have demonstrated strategic brilliance on the battlefield. Alexander the Great is widely considered a truly great military leader.

Only military leaders can be considered truly great.
Strategic brilliance is the only quality required to be a great military leader.
Alexander the Great demonstrated strategic brilliance on the battlefield. (Correct answer)
All leaders considered truly great have demonstrated strategic brilliance.

Correct answer: Alexander the Great demonstrated strategic brilliance on the battlefield.

This is a necessary assumption question. The argument presents a rule (Great Leader -> Strategic Brilliance) and then states an example that fits the 'Great Leader' category. For the example to be consistent with the rule, the example must also possess the quality mentioned in the rule. The argument requires the unstated premise that Alexander the Great actually meets the condition set forth for all great military leaders. If Alexander did NOT demonstrate strategic brilliance, the argument would fall apart. Therefore, assuming he did is necessary. The Negation Test works here: if Alexander the Great did *not* demonstrate strategic brilliance, the premise and conclusion would be contradictory.

Question 38: Supervisor: Maria has been late three times this month. She is clearly an unreliable employee who will never meet deadlines. What flaws are present?

Ad hominem — attacking Maria's character rather than her work product
Hasty generalization and an extreme conclusion drawn from insufficient evidence (Correct answer)
Circular reasoning — unreliability is assumed to prove future lateness
False analogy — comparing lateness to missing project deadlines

Correct answer: Hasty generalization and an extreme conclusion drawn from insufficient evidence

Three incidents of tardiness are insufficient to conclude permanent, universal unreliability, and 'never' is an extreme extrapolation.

Question 39: The department of health will investigate each of exactly six eateries over the course of six days (day 1 through day 6). During this time, each restaurant will be examined once a day, one restaurant at a time. The inspection schedule must adhere to the following guidelines: On either day 1 or day 6, A is inspected. D is inspected on the day before E is inspected. The day before F is examined, E is inspected. If B is inspected on the third day, then E gets inspected on the fifth day. Which of the following inspections CANNOT be planned for day 5?

D (Correct answer)
C
E
B
F

Correct answer: D

D is unable to be planned for day 5 because D is required to be scheduled. E must come before F, and F must come before E. If D is the case, If E and F are scheduled for day 5, there will be no room for them. D is the next scheduled event. All of the other options can be arranged without difficulty. For day 5, there is a contradiction, and hence you are incorrect.

Question 40: An argument states: 'Crime rates dropped after the city installed more streetlights. Therefore, more streetlights reduce crime.' Which additional fact, if true, most seriously undermines this conclusion?

The city also deployed 200 additional police officers at the same time as the streetlights. (Correct answer)
Residents reported feeling safer after the streetlights were installed.
Similar cities with streetlights also experienced crime reductions.
The streetlights were installed in high-crime neighborhoods.

Correct answer: The city also deployed 200 additional police officers at the same time as the streetlights.

If additional police were deployed simultaneously, they — not the streetlights — may have caused the crime reduction, making the causal link to streetlights unreliable.

Question 41: In an LSAT humanities passage discussing the evolution of jazz music, the author states that early jazz represented 'a synthesis of African rhythmic traditions and European harmonic structures.' What does the author most likely mean by this characterization?

Jazz emerged from the blending of musical elements from two distinct cultural traditions (Correct answer)
Jazz was invented simultaneously in Africa and Europe before spreading to America
Jazz composers were trained in both African and European musical conservatories
Jazz rhythm was African while its melody was entirely European in origin

Correct answer: Jazz emerged from the blending of musical elements from two distinct cultural traditions

The word 'synthesis' denotes a combination of distinct elements, so the author is describing how jazz merged musical components from two different cultural traditions.

Question 42: On the LSAT, a score of 150 approximately corresponds to which percentile?

80th percentile
65th percentile
35th percentile
50th percentile (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 50th percentile

A score of 150 falls near the 44th–50th percentile, representing average performance among all test-takers.

Question 43: Studies show that countries with the most generous unemployment benefits have lower long-term unemployment rates than countries with stingy unemployment benefits. This seems to contradict the economic argument that generous benefits reduce incentives to find work. Which of the following most helps to explain this paradox?

Countries with generous benefits invest more in job training programs.
Unemployment benefit generosity correlates with other progressive policies that improve employment outcomes.
Workers in countries with generous benefits work harder to maintain eligibility.
Generous unemployment benefits allow workers to search longer for jobs that match their skills, reducing mismatches that lead to repeated short-term employment and re-unemployment. (Correct answer)
Countries with generous benefits are typically wealthier and have stronger labor markets.

Correct answer: Generous unemployment benefits allow workers to search longer for jobs that match their skills, reducing mismatches that lead to repeated short-term employment and re-unemployment.

Search efficiency: adequate support allows workers to find jobs well-matched to their skills, reducing skill mismatches that cause repeated unemployment cycles, leading to better long-term employment outcomes despite longer initial search periods.

Question 44: A pharmaceutical researcher argues that a new antibiotic is effective against a drug-resistant bacterial strain. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Laboratory tests show the antibiotic kills the resistant strain at low concentrations, and animal trials show complete infection clearance with no evidence of new resistance developing. (Correct answer)
The antibiotic was developed using a novel molecular targeting approach.
Previous antibiotics have failed against this bacterial strain.
Drug-resistant bacteria pose a major threat to public health.
The research team has published studies on antibiotic resistance.

Correct answer: Laboratory tests show the antibiotic kills the resistant strain at low concentrations, and animal trials show complete infection clearance with no evidence of new resistance developing.

Laboratory efficacy data plus animal trial success and absence of new resistance development provides multi-layered evidence directly supporting both effectiveness and durability of the treatment.

Question 45: A study found that neighborhoods with more police patrols have higher crime rates than neighborhoods with fewer police patrols. Which of the following most helps to explain this finding without concluding that police patrols cause crime?

Some police officers engage in misconduct that alienates community members.
Law enforcement agencies deploy more patrols to areas that already have higher crime rates, so patrol density is a response to crime, not a cause. (Correct answer)
Police officers are more effective when they work in teams.
Patrolled neighborhoods tend to have more businesses, which are common targets of theft.
Citizens in patrolled neighborhoods are more likely to report crimes to authorities.

Correct answer: Law enforcement agencies deploy more patrols to areas that already have higher crime rates, so patrol density is a response to crime, not a cause.

Reverse causation explains the correlation: preexisting high crime areas receive more patrols as a response, so the positive correlation reflects deployment policy rather than a causal effect of policing on crime.

Question 46: From 6 projects—P, Q, R, S, T, U—exactly 3 must be selected for funding. R and S cannot both be selected. T requires P to also be selected. If Q is not selected, U must be selected. Which of the following is an acceptable selection?

Q, S, T
Q, R, T
P, R, S
P, T, U (Correct answer)
R, S, U

Correct answer: P, T, U

Check P, T, U: R and S: neither present ✓. T is selected and P is selected ✓. Q is not selected and U is selected ✓. Valid selection.

Question 47: Choose the response that fully answers the following: If a driver's negligence resulted in the plaintiff's injuries, all culpable drivers may be held accountable. Plaintiff James was hurt as a result of Shanna's carelessness.

Darlene can be liable for Plaintiff Paul’s injury. (Correct answer)
Darlene has no defense to Plaintiff Paul’s negligence suit.
Darlene caused Plaintiff Paul’s injury.
Darlene was negligent.

Correct answer: Darlene can be liable for Plaintiff Paul’s injury.

The first premise establishes a general rule: if a driver's negligence causes injuries, then the culpable driver may be held accountable. The second premise provides a specific instance of negligence causing injury (Shanna's carelessness hurt James). The question asks what 'fully answers the following,' and the correct answer, C, applies this general rule to a new, hypothetical situation involving Darlene and Plaintiff Paul. It states that if Darlene's negligence caused Paul's injury (implied by the application of the rule), then Darlene *can be liable*, which is consistent with the general principle established in the first premise.

Question 48: A sports scientist argues that plyometric training improves vertical jump height in basketball players more effectively than traditional weight training. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

In a controlled 12-week study, basketball players randomly assigned to plyometric training improved their vertical jump by an average of 6 cm more than players assigned to identical-duration traditional weight training programs. (Correct answer)
Plyometric training uses explosive jump and landing movements.
Vertical jump is an important performance metric in basketball.
Some coaches prefer to combine plyometric and weight training.
Training methods should be individualized based on player needs.

Correct answer: In a controlled 12-week study, basketball players randomly assigned to plyometric training improved their vertical jump by an average of 6 cm more than players assigned to identical-duration traditional weight training programs.

A randomized 12-week controlled study directly comparing the two training methods on the specific outcome measure provides the strongest evidence for comparative superiority.

Question 49: A national campaign to reduce smoking through graphic warning labels on cigarette packages was followed by an increase in cigarette sales among teenage smokers. Which of the following most helps to explain this paradox?

Graphic warning labels required more expensive printing processes, increasing cigarette costs.
Some teenagers have not yet developed the ability to assess long-term health risks.
The campaign raised the visibility and cultural prominence of smoking, making it appear more common and therefore more socially acceptable among teenagers who are influenced by perceived peer norms. (Correct answer)
The campaign received extensive media coverage that described the health risks in detail.
Tobacco companies increased advertising expenditures in response to the campaign.

Correct answer: The campaign raised the visibility and cultural prominence of smoking, making it appear more common and therefore more socially acceptable among teenagers who are influenced by perceived peer norms.

The campaign inadvertently normalized smoking by making it highly visible, and teenagers who are sensitive to social norms may have perceived widespread smoking as the social default, increasing uptake despite the negative imagery.

Question 50: A criminologist argues that neighborhood watch programs reduce residential burglary rates. A skeptic claims the reduction is due to gentrification, not the programs. Which of the following most strengthens the criminologist's position against this skepticism? (A) Neighborhood watch programs have existed for over four decades in the United States. (B) Burglary rates declined in neighborhoods that implemented watch programs but did not experience significant demographic or income changes. (C) Participants in neighborhood watch programs report feeling safer in their communities. (D) Burglary tends to be an opportunistic crime that is sensitive to perceived risk of detection.

Burglary rates declined in neighborhoods that implemented watch programs but did not experience significant demographic or income changes. (Correct answer)
Neighborhood watch programs have existed for over four decades in the United States.
Burglary tends to be an opportunistic crime that is sensitive to perceived risk of detection.
Participants in neighborhood watch programs report feeling safer in their communities.

Correct answer: Burglary rates declined in neighborhoods that implemented watch programs but did not experience significant demographic or income changes.

Option B eliminates the confounding variable (gentrification) by showing the programs work even in neighborhoods where gentrification did not occur.

Question 51: Passage: The Clean Air Act of 1970 established the modern framework for federal air quality regulation in the United States, authorizing the Environmental Protection Agency to set National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for pollutants that endanger public health and welfare. The Act distinguishes between 'criteria pollutants'—six common pollutants (ozone, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, and lead) for which primary and secondary standards are established—and 'hazardous air pollutants,' which are regulated under different provisions requiring maximum achievable control technology. The primary NAAQS are designed to protect public health with an adequate margin of safety, while secondary NAAQS protect public welfare, including effects on crops, ecosystems, and visibility. States are primarily responsible for implementing NAAQS through State Implementation Plans (SIPs), subject to EPA approval. Areas that fail to achieve a standard are classified as 'nonattainment' areas and face enhanced requirements to reduce emissions. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the difference between primary and secondary NAAQS?

Primary standards apply nationwide; secondary standards apply only in nonattainment areas.
Primary standards are set by federal agencies; secondary standards are set by states.
Primary standards are legally binding; secondary standards are aspirational guidelines only.
Primary standards address the most toxic pollutants; secondary standards address common pollutants.
Primary standards protect public health; secondary standards protect public welfare including crops and ecosystems. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Primary standards protect public health; secondary standards protect public welfare including crops and ecosystems.

The passage states 'primary NAAQS are designed to protect public health with an adequate margin of safety, while secondary NAAQS protect public welfare, including effects on crops, ecosystems, and visibility.'

Question 52: In an LSAT selection game, a 'dual option' technique is most useful when:

There are more than 6 candidates
All rules are biconditionals
The selection size is undefined
An item must occupy one of exactly two positions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An item must occupy one of exactly two positions

Dual option (or 'either/or' branching) is used when an element has only two possible placements, allowing you to test both and eliminate impossibilities.

Question 53: In LSAT Logical Reasoning, an 'ad hominem' fallacy occurs when an arguer:

Cites irrelevant statistics to support a claim
Draws a conclusion that goes beyond the evidence
Assumes that correlation implies causation
Attacks the person making an argument rather than the argument itself (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Attacks the person making an argument rather than the argument itself

Ad hominem is a fallacy of attacking the source rather than addressing the argument's merits.

Question 54: Researchers in the developing discipline of social brain science now have new insights into how consciousness and social cognition function thanks to recent developments in non-invasive human neuroimaging. The medial prefrontal cortex (MPFC), a part of the brain linked to memory, fear, and maybe bias, is of particular interest. The amygdala appears to be where memories associated with fears are stored. Although these memories are later preserved in the MPFC, the same area also appears to generate memories that dispel those worries. According to neuroimages, the MPFC projects nerves into the amygdala, which serves as the mechanism for squelching the fear response. Rodents with MPFC injury are less able to overcome some anxieties, as one might anticipate. Additionally, it seems that memory and self-referential judgements are correlated with MPFC activity. Particularly during introspective mental effort, the dorsal MPFC exhibits increased activity. Interestingly, when people are engaged in attention-demanding tasks, there is a decrease in ventral MPFC activity. This suggests that certain emotional processes can be lessened by cognitive activities. Other variations between these two MPFC regions have been identified. The dorsal region becomes more active when photographs of strangers with whom the viewer does not share the same political perspective are shown to an individual, whereas the ventral region becomes more active when photographs of strangers with whom the viewer does not share the same political perspective are shown to an individual. Scientists have known since the 19th century that injury to the MPFC impairs social abilities while leaving other mental abilities unaffected. We have entered a field that is certain to give us knowledge about ourselves that will prove to be of immense interest and significant utility, thanks to our newly discovered capacity to really watch mental activity in both healthy and disabled people without resorting to surgery. Which of the following does the author NOT mention as being an advantage of neuroimaging?

The connections between some parts of the brain are made apparent.
Healthy individuals can be studied through simple surgical procedures. (Correct answer)
Greater insight as to how people perceive each other is made possible.
Researchers can better understand how people think about themselves.
Scientists do not have to rely on animals that have sustained injuries.

Correct answer: Healthy individuals can be studied through simple surgical procedures.

You must review the material in this particular style question to determine which of these five facts was employed to support Diamond's argument. Answers "The fact that diseases were introduced by Europeans" and "The fact that deforestation resulted from animal behavior" are two points that Hunt uses to support his stance; they were used to refute Diamond's central premise, thus they are both inaccurate. Both the statements "The fact that there was proper resource management" and "The fact that there was a natural depletion of food sources" are incorrect. Diamond thought that these cultures' demise was caused by human activity, namely "human recklessness" and "lack of foresight." This concept would not be supported by effective resource management or a natural decrease of food supplies. The last statement of Diamond's opening paragraph, "a lack of foresight," perfectly describes the reason why societies were unable to anticipate the future effectively. A "lack of foresight" is equivalent to a "inability to accurately predict the future," as "foresight" is described as "the ability to predict or the action of predicting what will happen or be needed in the future." Keep in mind that wordplay presents the most challenge in questions with a defined style. The wrong answer options will use comparable but inaccurate descriptions of what you read, while the right answer will frequently use a synonymous but harder to understand form of what is mentioned in the paragraph. The right response is "Cultures' inability to predict the future with any degree of accuracy."

Question 55: Argument: 'All students who pass the bar exam become licensed attorneys. Jordan passed the bar exam. Therefore, Jordan is a licensed attorney.' What type of assumption, if any, does this argument require?

No unstated assumption—the conclusion is deductively guaranteed (Correct answer)
A necessary assumption that the bar exam is difficult
A sufficient assumption about Jordan's character
A necessary assumption that Jordan studied law

Correct answer: No unstated assumption—the conclusion is deductively guaranteed

This is a valid deductive argument; the conclusion follows necessarily from the stated premises without any hidden assumption.

Question 56: Five presentations — A, B, C, D, E — are scheduled one per slot, slots 1–5. A is scheduled before C. D is scheduled before B. E is not scheduled first or last. How many different complete orderings are possible?

12 (Correct answer)
10
8
6

Correct answer: 12

Applying A<C, D<B, and E in positions 2–4 yields exactly 12 valid orderings when systematically enumerated.

Question 57: Six items—P, Q, R, S, T, U—are ranked 1st through 6th. S is ranked 2nd. R is ranked immediately below Q. T is ranked above U. P is ranked last. Which of the following is a complete and accurate possible ranking from 1st to 6th?

Q, S, R, T, U, P (Correct answer)
U, S, Q, R, T, P
T, S, U, Q, R, P
Q, S, T, R, U, P
T, S, Q, R, U, P

Correct answer: Q, S, R, T, U, P

Check Q, S, R, T, U, P: S=2nd ✓. R(3) immediately below Q(1) ✓. T(4) above U(5) ✓. P(6) last ✓. All conditions satisfied.

Question 58: Teacher: Students who read more score higher on standardized tests. To improve test scores, we should require all students to read more. What is the flaw?

It presents a false dichotomy between reading and other study methods
It attacks students who do not voluntarily read
It commits a hasty generalization from one classroom study
It assumes the correlation reflects causation and that mandating reading replicates natural reading habits (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It assumes the correlation reflects causation and that mandating reading replicates natural reading habits

Students who read more may have other advantageous traits; mandating reading for all students may not reproduce those gains.

Question 59: In a sequencing game, five events — J, K, L, M, N — occur on successive days. K occurs after J. M occurs after L. N occurs before J. Which of the following is an acceptable ordering of all five events?

L, J, N, K, M
J, N, K, M, L
N, J, K, L, M (Correct answer)
N, L, J, M, K

Correct answer: N, J, K, L, M

N, J, K, L, M satisfies N before J, J before K, and L before M with no conflicts.

Question 60: A game selects 3 from {H, I, J, K, L}. Rule: If H is selected, exactly one of I or J (not both) is selected. If H is selected and I is selected, what must be true?

J is also selected
K and L are both selected
J is not selected (Correct answer)
The selection is invalid

Correct answer: J is not selected

H selected with I selected triggers 'exactly one of I or J,' meaning J cannot also be selected.

Question 61: Nine items are distributed into 3 groups of 3. Item X and Item Y must be in the same group. Item Y and Item Z must be in different groups. If X is in Group 1, which must be true?

Z is in Group 1
Z is in Group 1 with X
Y is in Group 2 or 3 (Correct answer)
Y is in Group 1 and Z is in Group 1

Correct answer: Y is in Group 2 or 3

X in Group 1 forces Y to Group 1; Y and Z cannot share a group, so Z must be in Group 2 or 3—meaning Y is in Group 1 (not 2 or 3), but Z is not in Group 1, confirming Z is in Group 2 or 3.

Question 62: Many amateur astronomers believe that the primary obstacle to viewing faint celestial objects is light pollution from cities. While it is true that a dark sky is essential, the most significant factor is actually 'atmospheric seeing'—the turbulence of the air through which the light travels. Even in the darkest locations, a turbulent atmosphere can blur the image of a distant galaxy into an unrecognizable smudge, whereas a steady, calm atmosphere, even with some ambient light, can allow for remarkably clear views. Therefore, a successful observation depends more on the stability of the air than on its darkness.

A successful astronomical observation is more dependent on atmospheric stability than on the absence of light pollution. (Correct answer)
It is possible to get clear views of celestial objects even in locations that are not perfectly dark.
Atmospheric seeing is a phenomenon caused by the turbulence of the air that blurs images of celestial objects.
Amateur astronomers often incorrectly believe that light pollution is the biggest barrier to observing faint objects.

Correct answer: A successful astronomical observation is more dependent on atmospheric stability than on the absence of light pollution.

This sentence is a direct restatement of the argument's conclusion, which is explicitly signaled by the word 'Therefore.' The author presents a common belief, refutes it by introducing the concept of 'atmospheric seeing,' and then concludes by comparing the relative importance of the two factors. Choice B is a definition used as a premise. Choice C states the misconception that the argument sets out to correct, not the argument's conclusion. Choice D is a supporting detail used to illustrate the importance of good seeing.

Question 63: Patients at teaching hospitals, where medical students and residents receive training, have been found to have lower mortality rates than patients at non-teaching hospitals, despite the fact that less experienced practitioners perform many procedures at teaching hospitals. Which of the following most helps to explain this paradox?

Medical students at teaching hospitals are particularly motivated to prove themselves.
Teaching hospitals attract senior specialists and have more comprehensive staffing, diagnostic resources, and oversight protocols than most community hospitals. (Correct answer)
Teaching hospitals tend to be located in urban areas with better emergency transport.
Teaching hospitals are accredited by medical schools, which hold them to higher standards.
Teaching hospitals treat a higher volume of patients, allowing staff to gain more experience.

Correct answer: Teaching hospitals attract senior specialists and have more comprehensive staffing, diagnostic resources, and oversight protocols than most community hospitals.

Despite less-experienced practitioners, teaching hospitals have superior overall resources—specialist staff, diagnostic equipment, intensive oversight—that more than compensate for trainee involvement, improving outcomes overall.

Question 64: In an LSAT passage, a legal scholar argues that Chevron deference—courts deferring to agencies' reasonable statutory interpretations—undermines separation of powers. Which of the following would most weaken this argument?

Agency staff often have financial ties to the industries they regulate
Congress has never explicitly endorsed Chevron deference by statute
Agencies frequently change their statutory interpretations when administrations change
Courts retain authority to overturn agency interpretations that are unreasonable or contrary to clear statutory text (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Courts retain authority to overturn agency interpretations that are unreasonable or contrary to clear statutory text

If courts retain meaningful oversight and only defer to reasonable interpretations within clear statutory bounds, this limits the argument that Chevron wholly displaces judicial authority.

Question 65: Passage: The common law tort of negligence requires a plaintiff to prove four elements: (1) the defendant owed a duty of care to the plaintiff; (2) the defendant breached that duty by failing to act as a reasonably prudent person would under the circumstances; (3) the breach was the actual and proximate cause of the plaintiff's harm; and (4) the plaintiff suffered damages. The reasonable person standard, central to the breach element, is an objective test: it asks not what this particular defendant believed was appropriate, but what a hypothetical reasonable person would have done in the same circumstances. Courts have expanded the duty of care element significantly since the landmark English case Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932), which established that manufacturers owe a duty to the ultimate consumers of their products. Modern negligence law extends duty to anyone foreseeably placed at risk by a defendant's actions, subject to policy limitations. According to the passage, the 'reasonable person' standard is best described as:

An objective measure comparing the defendant's conduct to that of a hypothetical reasonable person. (Correct answer)
A subjective evaluation of the defendant's actual intentions and beliefs.
An assessment of whether the defendant foresaw the specific harm that occurred.
A statutory standard codified in the Restatement of Torts.
A standard that varies based on the defendant's professional expertise.

Correct answer: An objective measure comparing the defendant's conduct to that of a hypothetical reasonable person.

The passage explicitly states the reasonable person standard 'is an objective test' asking 'what a hypothetical reasonable person would have done in the same circumstances.'

Question 66: A passage about international trade law states that country A's tariff policy violated WTO rules, but country A argues the tariff was justified under a national security exception. A question asks what role the national security argument plays in the passage. It most likely serves to:

Prove that country A's tariff policy was legal under all applicable rules
Demonstrate that trade disputes are inherently political rather than legal
Establish that WTO rules do not apply to national security matters
Present a defense or justification that country A invokes to counter the violation finding (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Present a defense or justification that country A invokes to counter the violation finding

Country A's national security argument functions as a legal defense or justification offered in response to the finding that its tariff violated WTO rules.

Question 67: An environmentalist argues that banning plastic bags will significantly reduce ocean pollution because plastic bags are a major component of ocean debris. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Plastic bags account for less than 1% of ocean plastic by weight, with most coming from fishing nets and industrial waste. (Correct answer)
Paper bags also have environmental costs during production.
Many consumers have already switched to reusable bags voluntarily.
The ban would apply only to retail stores, not restaurants.
Some plastic bags are made from recycled materials.

Correct answer: Plastic bags account for less than 1% of ocean plastic by weight, with most coming from fishing nets and industrial waste.

If plastic bags constitute less than 1% of ocean plastic, banning them would have minimal impact on ocean pollution, directly challenging the claim that such a ban would 'significantly reduce' it.

Question 68: An LSAT passage features a historian arguing that the Industrial Revolution 'cannot be understood purely in economic terms, as its social and cultural transformations were equally profound.' The author's primary purpose is most likely to:

Argue that economic factors played no meaningful role in the Industrial Revolution
Show that social changes during the Industrial Revolution had exclusively negative consequences
Expand the analytical framework for understanding the Industrial Revolution beyond economics alone (Correct answer)
Claim that cultural historians use superior methodology compared to economic historians

Correct answer: Expand the analytical framework for understanding the Industrial Revolution beyond economics alone

The author is not rejecting economics but arguing it is insufficient alone, seeking to broaden the framework to include social and cultural dimensions alongside economic analysis.

Question 69: A passage notes that sales of electric vehicles rose 40% when gas prices increased, and fell 10% when gas prices stabilized. What can most reasonably be inferred?

Gas prices will continue to rise in the future
Electric vehicles will eventually replace gas-powered cars
Electric vehicles are becoming cheaper to produce
Consumer demand for EVs is sensitive to gas price fluctuations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Consumer demand for EVs is sensitive to gas price fluctuations

The correlation between gas price changes and EV sales strongly suggests demand sensitivity to fuel costs.

Question 70: Which of the following arguments most closely parallels this reasoning: 'Since all published research requires peer review, and this manuscript has not been peer reviewed, it should not be cited as established science'?

Since all science requires evidence, and this claim lacks evidence, scientists should ignore it.
Since all legitimate currencies are government-issued, and this token is not government-issued, it is not legitimate currency. (Correct answer)
Since some peer-reviewed articles contain errors, peer review is not a guarantee of accuracy.
Since all licensed drivers must pass a test, and this person passed a test, they must be a licensed driver.

Correct answer: Since all legitimate currencies are government-issued, and this token is not government-issued, it is not legitimate currency.

The original argument has the form: All X require Y; this lacks Y; therefore it is not X — option B mirrors this structure exactly with currencies and government issuance.

Question 71: Anthony: By staying on the middle path at all times, one can lead a moderate existence. However, doing so results in a loss of the fun of spontaneity and a failure to seize the chances that periodically present themselves to people who are willing to take big risks or go too far. Martha: However, a person who never takes a chance of going too far in the name of moderation is actually failing to live a life of moderation; one must be moderate even when exercising moderation. Anthony and Martha disagree over

whether it is desirable for people occasionally to take great chances in life
how often a person ought to deviate from the middle course in life
What life of moderation requires of a person (Correct answer)
whether it is desirable for people occasionally to take great chances in life
whether it is desirable for people to be moderately spontaneous

Correct answer: What life of moderation requires of a person

Anthony defines a moderate existence as strictly adhering to the 'middle path,' noting its trade-offs. Martha challenges this definition, arguing that true moderation *itself* requires a degree of flexibility, implying that never deviating from the middle path is actually a failure of moderation. Their fundamental disagreement lies in their differing interpretations of what a 'life of moderation requires of a person' – whether it's strict adherence or a more nuanced approach that includes occasional risk-taking.

Question 72: In a sequencing Logic Game, if element X must come before element Y and Y must come before Z, which of the following is definitely true?

X is first
Y is in the middle
X comes before Z (Correct answer)
Z is last

Correct answer: X comes before Z

By transitivity, if X < Y and Y < Z, then X < Z must also hold, regardless of other elements' positions.

Question 73: A policy advocate argues that universal pre-kindergarten programs improve long-term educational outcomes for children. Which assumption, if true, most strengthens this argument? (A) Pre-kindergarten programs are less expensive to operate than elementary school programs. (B) The cognitive and social skills developed in early childhood are foundational to later academic success. (C) Parents who enroll children in pre-K programs tend to be more involved in their children's education overall. (D) Pre-K programs are currently underfunded in most states.

Pre-kindergarten programs are less expensive to operate than elementary school programs.
Pre-K programs are currently underfunded in most states.
The cognitive and social skills developed in early childhood are foundational to later academic success. (Correct answer)
Parents who enroll children in pre-K programs tend to be more involved in their children's education overall.

Correct answer: The cognitive and social skills developed in early childhood are foundational to later academic success.

Option B establishes the key causal link that early skills from pre-K translate into later academic success, directly supporting the argument about long-term outcomes.

Question 74: A committee of 3 is selected from 7 candidates: A, B, C, D, E, F, G. B and D cannot both be selected. If A is selected, C must also be selected. E cannot be selected with F. Which of the following could be a complete and accurate committee?

D, E, G
B, C, F
A, B, E
A, C, D
A, C, F (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A, C, F

Check A, C, F: A is selected and C is selected ✓ (A→C). B and D: neither is selected ✓. E and F: E not selected ✓. Valid committee.

Question 75: A server at a restaurant accepted verbal orders from a sizable crowd of customers without writing anything down, yet still managed to properly deliver everyone's meal. However, the waiter failed to identify the customer when he returned a few hours later to get something he had left behind. The waiter responded that he only recalled the specifics of each order until it was presented, which the customer saw as a mismatch between the waiter's prior good recollection of what each customer in the huge group had ordered and his present inability to recognize him. Which one of the following principles is best illustrated by the incident described above?

Restaurant waiters best remember those patrons that do not come in large groups.
The bigger and more complex a task is, the more difficult it is to remember its details.
When restaurant waiters are asked to help find an item forgotten by a patron, they feign temporary loss of memory.
Humans tend to remember unfinished tasks better than tasks that have been completed. (Correct answer)
The memory of restaurant patrons tends to make a strong distinction between finished and unfinished tasks.

Correct answer: Humans tend to remember unfinished tasks better than tasks that have been completed.

The waiter perfectly remembered complex orders while the task of delivering them was ongoing, but immediately forgot the customer's identity once the task was completed. His explanation, that he only recalled details 'until it was presented,' highlights this distinction. This incident illustrates the psychological phenomenon known as the Zeigarnik effect, where humans tend to retain information about unfinished or interrupted tasks more effectively than tasks that have been brought to completion.

Question 76: A doctor argues that patients who maintain a positive attitude recover from surgery faster because studies show patients with positive attitudes have shorter hospital stays. Which most weakens this argument?

Hospital staff may treat optimistic patients differently.
Positive attitude is difficult to measure objectively.
Surgical techniques have improved significantly over the past decade.
Patients who are physically healthier tend to both recover faster and maintain more positive attitudes, meaning health—not attitude—drives both outcomes. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patients who are physically healthier tend to both recover faster and maintain more positive attitudes, meaning health—not attitude—drives both outcomes.

Better underlying health is a confounding variable that independently causes both faster recovery and a more positive outlook.

Law School Admission Test (LSAT)

The LSAT is a standardized test administered to prospective law school candidates to assess skills essential for success in law school, including reading comprehension, analytical reasoning, and logical reasoning.

Questions

140 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
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