Mixed Deck — All LPN Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real LPN practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All LPN Topics flashcards as text
Which of the following best describes how doctors listen for bowel sounds?
Answer: Auscultation
Auscultation is the medical term for listening to the internal sounds of the body, typically using a stethoscope. This technique is specifically employed by healthcare professionals to assess bowel sounds, as well as heart sounds, lung sounds, and blood flow. Percussion involves tapping, palpation involves touching, and a rectal examination is a different type of physical assessment.
Which positioning is most appropriate for a patient following a below-knee amputation to prevent contractures?
Answer: Position the patient prone for 20–30 minutes several times daily
Prone positioning helps prevent hip flexion contractures that commonly develop after lower-limb amputation.
Which dressing type is BEST suited for a heavily exudating wound to maintain a moist environment without causing maceration?
Answer: Alginate
Alginate dressings are highly absorbent and ideal for heavily exudating wounds while still maintaining a moist wound environment.
Which action is correct when removing contaminated gloves?
Answer: Grasp the outside of one glove at the wrist and peel it off, then slide fingers under the remaining glove's cuff
The correct technique avoids touching the contaminated outer surface by peeling the first glove off from the wrist and using the clean inner surface of the second glove to remove it.
Which action by the LPN best demonstrates correct wound care for a stage 2 pressure injury?
Answer: Covering the wound with a moisture-retentive dressing after gentle cleansing
Moist wound healing environments promote epithelialization; stage 2 injuries require moisture-retentive dressings after cleansing with saline.
A nurse is assisting with the management of a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report following epidural placement?
Answer: Blood pressure 89/54 mmHg
Hypotension is a common and serious complication following epidural anesthesia, as it can cause vasodilation and a significant decrease in blood pressure. A blood pressure of 89/54 mmHg is dangerously low and can compromise uteroplacental perfusion, potentially harming the fetus. This finding requires immediate nursing intervention to restore adequate blood pressure.
When teaching a patient about taking iron supplements, the LPN should instruct the patient to:
Answer: Expect stools to turn black while taking iron supplements
Iron supplements cause black or tarry stools, which is a normal and expected side effect, not a sign of GI bleeding.
A patient cannot swallow oral medications due to dysphagia. Which alternative route is most appropriate for analgesic delivery?
Answer: Rectal suppository or IV route per order
When a patient cannot take oral medications due to dysphagia, alternative routes such as rectal suppository, IV, or transdermal delivery may be ordered depending on the medication.
The LPN is performing a head-to-toe assessment and notes that a patient's abdomen is rigid and board-like with guarding. The priority action is to:
Answer: Report the finding to the RN immediately
A rigid, board-like abdomen with guarding indicates peritoneal irritation, a medical emergency requiring immediate reporting.
A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension and develops a persistent dry cough. What is the nurse's best response?
Answer: Document the finding and report it to the provider
A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and should be reported so an alternative medication class can be considered.
Which action is a fundamental component of Standard Precautions that should be applied to all patients?
Answer: Performing hand hygiene before and after patient contact
Standard Precautions are based on the principle that all blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions (except sweat), nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may contain transmissible infectious agents. Hand hygiene is the single most important practice to reduce the transmission of infections in healthcare settings.
Which medication is classified as a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain?
Answer: Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic and antipyretic that works centrally and is first-line for mild to moderate pain without opioid side effects.
An LPN is preparing to administer insulin. Which type of insulin is the ONLY type that can be given intravenously?
Answer: Regular insulin
Regular insulin is the only insulin formulation approved for intravenous administration; all others are given subcutaneously.
Which sign or symptom is most indicative of acetaminophen overdose in the later stages?
Answer: Jaundice and right upper quadrant pain
Acetaminophen overdose causes hepatotoxicity, manifesting as jaundice and right upper quadrant pain due to liver damage in later stages.
A patient tells the LPN they want to leave the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The LPN's first action should be to:
Answer: Notify the RN and charge nurse immediately
The LPN must immediately notify the RN and charge nurse so the provider can be notified, risks explained, and proper AMA procedures followed.
A client with dysphagia is being advanced to a diet as tolerated. Which diet would be most appropriate to start with to minimize the risk of aspiration?
Answer: Pureed diet
A pureed diet consists of foods that are blended to a smooth, pudding-like consistency. This texture is easier to swallow for clients with dysphagia and reduces the risk of food particles entering the airway (aspiration). Mechanical soft, regular, and full liquid diets contain textures that can be more difficult to manage.
A patient refuses pain medication despite rating pain at 7/10. What is the appropriate nursing action?
Answer: Document the refusal, explore the patient's concerns, and notify the RN
Patients have the right to refuse treatment; the nurse must document the refusal, explore the reasons, provide education, and notify the RN of the patient's pain and refusal.
A patient's blood glucose before lunch is 245 mg/dL. The sliding scale orders 4 units of regular insulin for glucose 201–250 mg/dL. The patient also has a scheduled mealtime dose of 8 units of regular insulin. What total dose should the LPN prepare?
Answer: 12 units (8 scheduled + 4 correction)
Scheduled mealtime insulin and sliding-scale correction insulin are additive; both are given together and drawn into the same syringe if both are regular insulin.
A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has ARDS with absent breath sounds in the lower lobes and dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Answer: Administer oxygen via a high-flow mask
The client has dyspnea and absent breath sounds, indicating significant respiratory distress and impaired gas exchange. The immediate priority is to address the hypoxemia by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask to improve oxygenation. Ensuring adequate oxygenation is a life-saving intervention that takes precedence over other diagnostic or less immediate actions.
The nurse is providing care to a client who is diagnosed with a personality disorder. Which finding indicates the treatment plan has been beneficial for this client?
Answer: The client sits with others in the lounge area conversing about current affairs
A key goal in treating personality disorders, especially those involving social difficulties, is to improve social interaction and engagement. The client conversing with others about current affairs demonstrates improved social skills, appropriate engagement, and a reduction in isolation. This indicates a beneficial treatment plan that is helping the client integrate more effectively into social settings.