LAPD Multiple Choice Test โ Questions and Answers
Question 1: In LAPD terminology, what is a 'beat'?
- A designated geographic area assigned to an officer for patrol (Correct answer)
- The rhythm of a police radio broadcast
- A shift rotation schedule
- A suspect who resists arrest
Correct answer: A designated geographic area assigned to an officer for patrol
A beat is a specific patrol area assigned to an officer or unit, ensuring consistent coverage of that zone.
Question 2: The following appears in a crime report: 'The complainant stated she returned home at approximately 1730 hours and discovered her front door had been forced open. Nothing appeared to be missing from the living room. The master bedroom was ransacked, and her jewelry box was empty.' What can be inferred about the suspect's likely motive?
- The suspect was primarily interested in valuables such as jewelry (Correct answer)
- The suspect targeted the residence randomly with no specific motive
- The suspect was looking for documents
- The suspect was searching for a specific person
Correct answer: The suspect was primarily interested in valuables such as jewelry
The ransacked bedroom and empty jewelry box indicate the suspect specifically targeted valuables, most likely jewelry.
Question 3: A report notes the suspect had a 'clandestine' meeting. What does clandestine mean?
- done secretly, especially for illicit reasons (Correct answer)
- scheduled in advance
- court-ordered and documented
- public and announced
Correct answer: done secretly, especially for illicit reasons
Clandestine describes something done secretly or covertly, typically for unlawful or unauthorized purposes.
Question 4: The term 'chain of custody' refers to which of the following?
- The process of arresting multiple suspects
- The assignment of officers to patrol zones
- The documented record tracking evidence from collection to court (Correct answer)
- The hierarchy of command within a police department
Correct answer: The documented record tracking evidence from collection to court
Chain of custody is the chronological documentation showing how evidence was collected, handled, and preserved.
Question 5: Read the following: 'Officers must complete Form 15-A within 24 hours of any use-of-force incident. Supervisors must review and sign the form within 48 hours of submission.' If an officer uses force at 6:00 PM on Monday, by when must the supervisor sign the form?
- Wednesday at 6:00 PM (Correct answer)
- Wednesday at 6:00 AM
- Tuesday at 6:00 PM
- Thursday at 6:00 PM
Correct answer: Wednesday at 6:00 PM
The officer must submit by Tuesday 6:00 PM, and the supervisor has 48 hours from submission, making the deadline Wednesday at 6:00 PM.
Question 6: Read this passage: 'Probable cause exists when the facts and circumstances within the officer's knowledge are sufficient to warrant a reasonable person to believe that an offense has been or is being committed.' Which situation BEST meets this standard?
- An officer observes a person matching a robbery suspect description near the crime scene moments after the robbery (Correct answer)
- An officer dislikes the look of someone's car
- An officer has a hunch a person is suspicious
- An officer receives an anonymous tip with no corroborating evidence
Correct answer: An officer observes a person matching a robbery suspect description near the crime scene moments after the robbery
Matching the suspect description near the crime scene shortly after the crime provides articulable facts sufficient for probable cause.
Question 7: An LAPD directive states: 'Officers responding to a silent alarm at a commercial establishment shall, upon arrival, establish a perimeter and await the arrival of a backup unit before making entry. The primary responding unit should position their vehicle to provide optimal observation of the main entrance while maintaining a safe distance. Any observed activity should be immediately communicated to dispatch.' An officer arrives at a silent alarm, sees no signs of forced entry, and decides to enter the building alone to investigate more quickly. Which part of the directive did the officer disregard?
- Awaiting backup and establishing a perimeter before entry. (Correct answer)
- Maintaining a safe distance from the establishment.
- Immediately communicating observed activity to dispatch.
- Positioning the vehicle for optimal observation.
Correct answer: Awaiting backup and establishing a perimeter before entry.
The directive explicitly states that officers shall 'await the arrival of a backup unit before making entry.' By entering the building alone, the officer directly violated this key safety protocol.
Question 8: What does 'NCIC' stand for and what is its purpose?
- National Crime Information Center โ a nationwide database for wanted persons, stolen property, and criminal records (Correct answer)
- National Communications Integration Center โ manages radio frequencies
- National Criminal Intelligence Center โ stores arrest records only
- National Command and Incident Center โ coordinates SWAT responses
Correct answer: National Crime Information Center โ a nationwide database for wanted persons, stolen property, and criminal records
NCIC is the FBI's National Crime Information Center, a nationwide database officers use to check for warrants, stolen vehicles, and criminal histories.
Question 9: What is the primary purpose of administering the Physical Fitness Qualifier in the LAPD hiring process?
- To replace the written examination as the sole selection tool
- To identify candidates suited only for administrative roles
- To ensure recruits can physically handle the demands of police work (Correct answer)
- To rank candidates competitively by pure athletic performance
Correct answer: To ensure recruits can physically handle the demands of police work
The PFQ ensures that incoming recruits possess the baseline fitness needed to perform essential police functions safely and effectively.
Question 10: What does 'perimeter' mean in an active police operation?
- The paperwork filed after an incident
- A boundary established to contain a scene, suspect, or hazard (Correct answer)
- The area inside a police station
- A list of witnesses at a crime scene
Correct answer: A boundary established to contain a scene, suspect, or hazard
A perimeter is a controlled boundary set up around an incident to secure the area and prevent a suspect from escaping.
Question 11: Choose the correctly spelled word for a person who intentionally sets fire to property:
- arsonist (Correct answer)
- arsonest
- arsenist
- aronist
Correct answer: arsonist
Arsonist is spelled a-r-s-o-n-i-s-t, the person who commits the crime of arson.
Question 12: Every time burglaries increase in Sector 7, foot patrols are doubled. Foot patrols in Sector 7 are currently at normal levels. What can be concluded?
- Sector 7 is a low-crime area
- Burglaries in Sector 7 have not increased (Correct answer)
- Burglaries in Sector 7 have increased
- Foot patrols will be doubled soon
Correct answer: Burglaries in Sector 7 have not increased
Contrapositive: if patrols are not doubled, burglaries have not increased.
Question 13: What is a 'crime scene log' used for?
- Recording all persons who enter and exit a secured crime scene (Correct answer)
- Tracking officer patrol hours
- Listing the evidence collected from a scene
- Documenting radio communications during an incident
Correct answer: Recording all persons who enter and exit a secured crime scene
A crime scene log records the identity and time of entry/exit for everyone accessing a crime scene to protect evidence integrity.
Question 14: An LAPD officer observes their partner conduct a search of a vehicle's trunk without establishing clear probable cause. The search does not uncover any illegal items. Which of the following actions is the officer ethically and professionally required to take?
- Make a note of the incident in case the partner develops a pattern of such behavior.
- Immediately report the partner's potential misconduct to a supervisor, as required by department policy. (Correct answer)
- Ignore the action since no evidence was found and no harm was done.
- Casually mention to the partner later that the search might have been questionable.
Correct answer: Immediately report the partner's potential misconduct to a supervisor, as required by department policy.
LAPD policy requires that when an employee becomes aware of possible misconduct by another member of the Department, the employee shall immediately report the incident to a supervisor. This duty exists regardless of the outcome of the misconduct (i.e., whether evidence was found or not). Upholding constitutional standards and departmental integrity is paramount, and failing to report misconduct can impair public trust.
Question 15: A field report states: 'Upon arrival, Officer Chen observed the front door ajar, lights on inside, and a broken window on the east side of the residence. No occupants responded to announcements.' What does this scene MOST suggest?
- The occupants left voluntarily through the front door
- The occupants are asleep inside
- The residence may have been burglarized or is the scene of a crime (Correct answer)
- The broken window was caused by weather
Correct answer: The residence may have been burglarized or is the scene of a crime
Multiple indicators โ ajar door, broken window, no response โ suggest a possible burglary or crime scene.
Question 16: Which spelling is correct for a formal charge of a serious crime?
- indicment
- indightment
- indictment (Correct answer)
- inditement
Correct answer: indictment
Indictment is spelled i-n-d-i-c-t-m-e-n-t; the 'c' is silent, making it sound like 'in-DITE-ment.'
Question 17: An interview panel asks a candidate, "Describe a significant professional failure and what you learned from it." What is the primary purpose of this question?
- To assess the candidate's honesty, self-awareness, and capacity for growth and learning. (Correct answer)
- To find a reason to disqualify the candidate based on a past mistake.
- To determine if the candidate is willing to be deceptive to appear flawless.
- To test the candidate's memory and ability to recall specific details under pressure.
Correct answer: To assess the candidate's honesty, self-awareness, and capacity for growth and learning.
Interviewers ask about failures not to dwell on the mistake itself, but to evaluate the candidate's response to it. They are looking for individuals who can take accountability, demonstrate that they have learned a valuable lesson, and explain how they have improved as a result, which indicates maturity and integrity.
Question 18: An officer is writing a report about a suspect who was uncooperative and hostile. Which of the following words is the correct spelling for this behavior?
- Beligerent
- Belegerent
- Belligerent (Correct answer)
- Belligerant
Correct answer: Belligerent
The correct spelling is 'Belligerent,' which means hostile and aggressive. This is a common word in police reports and is frequently misspelled.
Question 19: Which word correctly fills the blank? 'The officer ___ the suspect of his rights before the interview.'
- aprised
- apprized
- apprised (Correct answer)
- appraised
Correct answer: apprised
Apprised (a-p-p-r-i-s-e-d) means informed or notified; 'appraised' means assessed for value, which is a different word.
Question 20: What is a 'Field Interview' (FI) in police terminology?
- A brief investigative stop where an officer questions a suspicious person (Correct answer)
- A formal arrest procedure
- An interrogation of a crime suspect
- A witness interview conducted at the station
Correct answer: A brief investigative stop where an officer questions a suspicious person
A Field Interview is a brief, non-custodial contact where an officer questions someone under suspicious circumstances.
Question 21: All officers assigned to the night shift must complete a safety briefing. Officer Torres is on the night shift. Which conclusion is valid?
- Officer Torres must complete the safety briefing (Correct answer)
- Officer Torres may or may not complete the briefing
- Officer Torres completes briefings only on weekdays
- Officer Torres is exempt if she has prior training
Correct answer: Officer Torres must complete the safety briefing
Since all night-shift officers must complete the briefing and Torres is on the night shift, she must complete it.
Question 22: What is the primary purpose of an LAPD officer completing a Field Interview (FI) card or report?
- To document contacts and gather intelligence for future investigations. (Correct answer)
- To serve an active arrest warrant on a known suspect.
- To issue a formal citation for a traffic violation.
- To immediately process an individual for arrest.
Correct answer: To document contacts and gather intelligence for future investigations.
Field Interview (FI) cards or reports are used to document information about individuals, vehicles, and circumstances that an officer observes during patrol. This information, which may not be related to a specific crime at that moment, serves as an intelligence-gathering tool that can be crucial for solving future cases.
Question 23: Read the following policy excerpt: 'Officers shall not release the name of a victim of a sexual assault to the media or public without the expressed written consent of the victim.' An officer is asked by a reporter for the victim's name in a sexual assault case. The officer should:
- Decline to release the name without the victim's written consent (Correct answer)
- Provide the name only if the case is closed
- Refer the reporter to the Watch Commander, who can release the name
- Release the name only if the victim was not injured
Correct answer: Decline to release the name without the victim's written consent
Policy requires expressed written consent from the victim before releasing their name in sexual assault cases.
Question 24: Why does the LAPD background investigation include a review of an applicant's credit history?
- To confirm the applicant has no outstanding student loan debt
- To verify that the applicant can afford required uniforms and equipment
- To determine whether the applicant qualifies for health insurance benefits
- To assess financial responsibility and vulnerability to bribery or corruption (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To assess financial responsibility and vulnerability to bribery or corruption
Poor financial management can indicate irresponsibility, and significant debt can make officers susceptible to corruption or bribery, both of which are serious integrity concerns for law enforcement.
Question 25: Which spelling is correct for a person who gives false testimony under oath?
- perjurer (Correct answer)
- perjerer
- purjurer
- perjuror
Correct answer: perjurer
Perjurer is spelled p-e-r-j-u-r-e-r, derived from 'perjury,' the crime of lying under oath.
Question 26: An investigator notes that vandalism incidents spike every third weekend of the month. The current date is the third weekend. What is the most defensible action?
- Ignore the pattern until more data is collected
- Assume no vandalism will occur since patterns can break
- Arrest known vandals preemptively
- Increase patrols as a precautionary measure based on the pattern (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Increase patrols as a precautionary measure based on the pattern
A consistent pattern justifies proactive resource deployment without overstepping legal authority.
Question 27: What is 'arraignment' in the criminal justice process?
- A hearing to determine bail eligibility
- The initial court appearance where a defendant is formally charged and enters a plea (Correct answer)
- The final review before a case is dismissed
- The sentencing phase after a guilty verdict
Correct answer: The initial court appearance where a defendant is formally charged and enters a plea
Arraignment is the court proceeding where a defendant is formally read their charges and asked to enter a plea of guilty, not guilty, or no contest.
Question 28: A police report states: 'The suspect fled northbound on Main Street, turned east on 5th Avenue, and was last seen entering a gray building with a red awning.' Which direction was the suspect traveling when last seen?
- Westbound
- Eastbound (Correct answer)
- Southbound
- Northbound
Correct answer: Eastbound
The suspect turned east on 5th Avenue and was last seen entering a building, so they were last traveling eastbound.
Question 29: An impound lot stores 15 vehicles in a row. Each vehicle takes up 8 feet of space with 2 feet between vehicles. What is the minimum length needed for one row?
- 135 feet
- 158 feet
- 148 feet (Correct answer)
- 150 feet
Correct answer: 148 feet
15 vehicles ร 8 ft = 120 ft; 14 gaps ร 2 ft = 28 ft; 120 + 28 = 148 ft.
Question 30: The following notice is posted: 'All personnel requesting overtime must submit requests no later than 72 hours before the scheduled shift. Requests submitted after the deadline will be denied except in cases of staffing emergency declared by the Watch Commander.' An officer submits an overtime request 48 hours before the shift. What will likely happen?
- The officer must resubmit with a supervisor signature
- The request will be denied unless a Watch Commander declares a staffing emergency (Correct answer)
- The Watch Commander must approve all late requests
- The request will be approved automatically
Correct answer: The request will be denied unless a Watch Commander declares a staffing emergency
The request was submitted late, so it will be denied unless the Watch Commander declares a staffing emergency.
Question 31: Choose the correctly spelled word: the legal concept of taking someone's property without compensation.
- confiskation
- confescation
- confiscation (Correct answer)
- confiscasion
Correct answer: confiscation
Confiscation is spelled c-o-n-f-i-s-c-a-t-i-o-n, from Latin 'fiscus' meaning public treasury.
Question 32: What is a 'search incident to lawful arrest'?
- A warrantless search of an arrestee and the area within their immediate control at the time of arrest (Correct answer)
- A search conducted at the police station after booking
- A warrant required before searching an arrested person
- A search authorized only by a supervising officer
Correct answer: A warrantless search of an arrestee and the area within their immediate control at the time of arrest
Search incident to lawful arrest allows officers to search an arrested person and the area within their immediate reach without a warrant.
Question 33: You are the first officer on scene at a shooting. A wounded suspect is conscious and begins confessing to a murder without being questioned. What should you do?
- Stop him immediately and read him his Miranda rights before he says anything more
- Allow him to speak freely since Miranda warnings are only required before custodial interrogation (Correct answer)
- Record his statement on your phone immediately to preserve the evidence
- Tell him to stop and wait for detectives who are trained to handle confessions
Correct answer: Allow him to speak freely since Miranda warnings are only required before custodial interrogation
Miranda warnings are required before custodial interrogation; spontaneous, unelicited statements do not require a Miranda advisement and are admissible.
Question 34: Select the correctly spelled word for unlawfully entering a building with intent to commit a crime:
- burglury
- burglary (Correct answer)
- burglary
- burglery
Correct answer: burglary
Burglary is spelled b-u-r-g-l-a-r-y, and it is a felony under California Penal Code 459.
Question 35: Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?
- Surveillance
- Recurrance (Correct answer)
- Prevalent
- Misdemeanor
Correct answer: Recurrance
The correct spelling is 'Recurrence'. The other words, 'Misdemeanor', 'Prevalent', and 'Surveillance', are all spelled correctly and are common in law enforcement vocabulary.
Question 36: What is a 'misdemeanor' as opposed to a 'felony' in California law?
- A crime that results in no jail time
- A less serious crime typically punishable by up to one year in county jail (Correct answer)
- A crime punishable by more than one year in state prison
- Any crime committed by a juvenile
Correct answer: A less serious crime typically punishable by up to one year in county jail
A misdemeanor is a less serious offense with a maximum sentence of up to one year in county jail.
Question 37: A court subpoena states: 'You are commanded to appear at the above-referenced court on the date and time specified to provide testimony regarding your personal knowledge of the incident described herein. Failure to comply may result in contempt of court.' What is the main purpose of this document?
- To legally require the recipient to testify in court (Correct answer)
- To notify the recipient of their right to remain silent
- To request a voluntary statement from the recipient
- To inform the recipient of a pending lawsuit against them
Correct answer: To legally require the recipient to testify in court
A subpoena legally compels an individual to appear and testify, as stated in the document.
Question 38: Which of the following words is defined as 'a crime, typically one involving violence, regarded as more serious than a misdemeanor, and usually punishable by imprisonment for more than one year or by death'?
- Felony (Correct answer)
- Affidavit
- Infraction
- Arraignment
Correct answer: Felony
A 'Felony' is a serious crime that carries a significant penalty. An 'Arraignment' is a court proceeding, an 'Affidavit' is a written statement under oath, and an 'Infraction' is a minor violation.
Question 39: An LAPD training bulletin states: 'Confirmation bias occurs when an investigator focuses on evidence that supports an initial theory while discounting contradictory evidence.' Which investigative behavior BEST demonstrates confirmation bias?
- Focusing exclusively on one suspect's background after initially suspecting them, while ignoring evidence pointing to others (Correct answer)
- Arresting a suspect only after reviewing all available evidence
- Interviewing multiple witnesses before drawing conclusions
- Documenting all evidence, both inculpatory and exculpatory
Correct answer: Focusing exclusively on one suspect's background after initially suspecting them, while ignoring evidence pointing to others
Focusing only on one suspect and ignoring contradictory evidence is the definition of confirmation bias as stated in the bulletin.
Question 40: An officer describes a witness as 'corroborating' a statement. This means the witness is:
- disputing the evidence
- contradicting the account
- confirming or supporting the account (Correct answer)
- refusing to testify
Correct answer: confirming or supporting the account
To corroborate means to confirm or give support to a statement, theory, or finding.
Question 41: Read the following excerpt from an incident report: 'Upon arrival at the scene of the traffic collision, I observed two vehicles: a blue sedan with major front-end damage and a white SUV with significant rear-end damage. The driver of the sedan, John Doe, stated that the SUV stopped abruptly in front of him. The driver of the SUV, Jane Smith, claimed Mr. Doe was following too closely. Both parties declined medical attention.' Based on the report, which of the following can be concluded as a fact?
- The driver of the sedan was following too closely.
- The collision involved a blue sedan and a white SUV. (Correct answer)
- The driver of the SUV caused the collision.
- Both drivers will be issued citations for the accident.
Correct answer: The collision involved a blue sedan and a white SUV.
The report factually describes the officer's observation of a 'blue sedan' and a 'white SUV' at the scene. The statements from the drivers are presented as claims, not established facts, and there is no mention of citations being issued.
Question 42: An LAPD officer's overtime rate is 1.5 times her regular hourly rate of $34 per hour. How much does she earn for 6 hours of overtime?
- $270
- $340
- $306 (Correct answer)
- $204
Correct answer: $306
Overtime rate = $34 ร 1.5 = $51/hr; $51 ร 6 = $306.
Question 43: In police terminology, what is a 'CI'?
- Crime Index
- Civilian Inspector
- Confidential Informant (Correct answer)
- Critical Incident
Correct answer: Confidential Informant
A Confidential Informant is a person who provides information to law enforcement, typically under an agreement of anonymity.
Question 44: An officer's report describes a vehicle as 'stationary.' What does this mean?
- not moving; at a standstill (Correct answer)
- traveling in the wrong direction
- moving slowly through traffic
- illegally parked in a no-stop zone
Correct answer: not moving; at a standstill
Stationary (with an 'a') means not moving or fixed in one place; do not confuse with 'stationery' (writing paper).
Question 45: What is 'modus operandi' (MO) in criminal investigation?
- The official classification code for a crime
- The legal motive behind a crime
- The timeline of events during an incident
- A suspect's particular method or pattern of committing crimes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A suspect's particular method or pattern of committing crimes
Modus operandi refers to a criminal's distinctive pattern or method of operation, used to link crimes or identify suspects.
Question 46: A use-of-force policy states: 'Officers shall use only the force that is objectively reasonable, necessary, and proportional to the threat or resistance presented.' An officer applies a firm grip to guide a cooperative, non-resistant individual. Which term from the policy BEST justifies this action?
- Necessary โ the officer had no choice
- Proportional โ the level of force matches the level of compliance (Correct answer)
- Objectively reasonable โ any officer would do the same
- All of the above, as all three criteria are met
Correct answer: Proportional โ the level of force matches the level of compliance
Proportionality is most directly addressed โ a minimal amount of force was used for a cooperative subject, matching the level of compliance.
Question 47: A robbery victim states: 'He grabbed my purse and ran. I'm pretty sure he had a gun โ I saw something in his waistband.' How should this statement be classified?
- Hearsay: the victim is speculating
- Irrelevant: the victim cannot confirm a weapon was used
- Unconfirmed: the victim believes the suspect may have been armed (Correct answer)
- Confirmed fact: the suspect was armed
Correct answer: Unconfirmed: the victim believes the suspect may have been armed
The victim expresses belief based on what she saw but did not confirm a firearm, making it an unconfirmed observation.
Question 48: What is an 'APB' in law enforcement?
- Arrest Probable Basis
- All Points Bulletin โ a broadcast alert to all officers about a suspect or vehicle (Correct answer)
- Annual Police Budget
- Active Patrol Beat
Correct answer: All Points Bulletin โ a broadcast alert to all officers about a suspect or vehicle
An All Points Bulletin is a broadcast to all law enforcement units describing a wanted suspect or vehicle.
Question 49: Detectives know that only employees with keycard access can enter the server room. The suspect does not have keycard access. What follows?
- The suspect is innocent of all charges
- The suspect did not enter the server room (Correct answer)
- The suspect borrowed a keycard
- The suspect entered through a different route
Correct answer: The suspect did not enter the server room
Without keycard access, entering the server room is impossible under the stated rule.
Question 50: The term 'perpetrator' in a police report refers to:
- the officer filing the report
- the victim of the crime
- the person who committed the crime (Correct answer)
- a witness to the crime
Correct answer: the person who committed the crime
A perpetrator is the person who carries out or commits a harmful, illegal, or immoral act.
Question 51: In police reports, what does 'R/O' typically stand for?
- Record of Operations
- Release Order
- Responding Officer
- Reporting Officer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reporting Officer
R/O stands for Reporting Officer, the officer who documents and writes the official incident or crime report.
Question 52: How does carrying excess body fat generally affect LAPD PFQ performance?
- It always improves push-up scores due to the added upper-body mass
- It has no measurable effect on any PFQ event
- It increases the workload in running events and reduces performance on push-ups and sit-ups relative to body mass (Correct answer)
- It only affects the sit-and-reach flexibility event
Correct answer: It increases the workload in running events and reduces performance on push-ups and sit-ups relative to body mass
Excess non-functional body mass increases the effort required during running and raises the relative load for all bodyweight exercises like push-ups and sit-ups.
Question 53: Read this passage: 'An officer may conduct a pat-down search for weapons when the officer has reasonable, articulable suspicion that the individual is armed and dangerous.' Which situation MOST justifies a pat-down under this standard?
- The subject is nervous when approached by the officer
- The subject is wearing a heavy coat in warm weather and repeatedly reaches toward their waistband during questioning (Correct answer)
- The officer recognizes the subject from a previous arrest ten years ago
- The subject is standing in a high-crime area
Correct answer: The subject is wearing a heavy coat in warm weather and repeatedly reaches toward their waistband during questioning
Wearing a heavy coat in warm weather and repeatedly reaching toward the waistband provides articulable, specific indicators of possible weapon concealment.
Question 54: A policy reads: 'Officers are prohibited from conducting searches of digital devices, including cell phones, without a warrant, except when the device owner gives voluntary, knowing, and uncoerced consent.' A suspect says 'Fine, check it' after being told they do not have to allow a search. Is this valid consent?
- Yes, but only if a supervisor also approves the search
- No, because all phone searches require a warrant regardless of consent
- No, because the officer must still obtain a warrant
- Yes, because the suspect gave verbal consent and was informed they could refuse (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Yes, because the suspect gave verbal consent and was informed they could refuse
The suspect was informed they could refuse and still consented verbally, satisfying the voluntary, knowing, and uncoerced consent standard.
Question 55: While on patrol, you are dispatched to a scene. The report states the suspect is the alleged ________ of the crime. Which word correctly identifies the person believed to have committed the offense?
- Plaintiff
- Perpetrator (Correct answer)
- Deterrent
- Coroner
Correct answer: Perpetrator
A 'perpetrator' is a person who carries out a harmful, illegal, or immoral act. The other options are incorrect: a plaintiff is a person who brings a case against another in a court, a coroner is an official who investigates violent or sudden deaths, and a deterrent is something that discourages someone from doing something.
Question 56: Which of the following correctly uses a semicolon?
- He ran; but was caught.
- Officers arrived; and detained the suspect.
- The witness was uncooperative; so she left.
- The scene was secured; evidence was then collected. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The scene was secured; evidence was then collected.
A semicolon correctly joins two closely related independent clauses without a coordinating conjunction.
Question 57: A police report states the suspect was 'belligerent.' What does this mean?
- aggressively hostile or combative (Correct answer)
- cooperative and calm
- silent and unresponsive
- intoxicated beyond control
Correct answer: aggressively hostile or combative
Belligerent describes someone who is aggressively hostile, quarrelsome, or inclined to start fights.
Question 58: In a use-of-force report, 'proportional' response means:
- using lethal means as a first resort
- force matching the level of threat presented (Correct answer)
- force exceeding the threat level to ensure control
- force determined by department policy alone
Correct answer: force matching the level of threat presented
A proportional response uses force equivalent in degree to the threat, neither excessive nor insufficient.
Question 59: In a police report narrative, what is the best way to handle uncertain information provided by a witness?
- Omit it entirely to avoid inaccuracies
- Attribute it clearly: 'The witness stated that โฆ' (Correct answer)
- State it as fact to strengthen the report
- Place it in brackets to indicate uncertainty
Correct answer: Attribute it clearly: 'The witness stated that โฆ'
Attributing statements to their source ('the witness stated') preserves accuracy and distinguishes officer observations from third-party accounts.
Question 60: What does 'Miranda rights' require an officer to inform a suspect?
- Their right to remain silent and to have an attorney present during questioning (Correct answer)
- Their right to review the police report before booking
- Their right to refuse a field sobriety test
- Their right to a speedy trial before arraignment
Correct answer: Their right to remain silent and to have an attorney present during questioning
Miranda warnings, required before custodial interrogation, inform suspects of their Fifth and Sixth Amendment rights.
Question 61: Which of the following scenarios best defines a "Hot Prowl" burglary?
- A burglary where the suspect steals a vehicle from the location.
- A burglary of a commercial business after closing hours.
- A burglary of a residence that takes place while the occupants are present inside. (Correct answer)
- A series of burglaries in the same neighborhood committed by the same suspect.
Correct answer: A burglary of a residence that takes place while the occupants are present inside.
In police terminology, a "Hot Prowl" is a burglary of an occupied structure, most often a residence. This type of crime is considered particularly dangerous because of the increased potential for a violent confrontation between the suspect and the victim.
Question 62: During a search authorized by a warrant, you find evidence of a different, serious crime not covered by the warrant. What should you do?
- Take photographs only and report it after completing the original search
- Ignore the evidence since it is outside the scope of the warrant
- Seize the evidence immediately under the plain view doctrine and notify a supervisor (Correct answer)
- Leave the premises and obtain a new warrant before returning to seize anything
Correct answer: Seize the evidence immediately under the plain view doctrine and notify a supervisor
The plain view doctrine permits seizure of evidence of a crime that is immediately apparent and discovered during a lawful search.
Question 63: A dispatch log reads: 'Unit 7-Adam-15 responded to 415 call at 0232 hours. Unit cleared at 0318 hours. Unit 7-Adam-22 requested backup at 0310 hours.' Based on this log, which unit was available to respond to the backup request at 0310?
- 7-Adam-22, which requested its own backup
- 7-Adam-15 only, as they had not yet cleared
- 7-Adam-15 was still on scene and potentially available (Correct answer)
- Neither unit was available
Correct answer: 7-Adam-15 was still on scene and potentially available
7-Adam-15 cleared at 0318, meaning they were still on their call at 0310 but potentially nearby and available.
Question 64: Which word is spelled correctly for the legal term meaning a crime less serious than a felony?
- misdemaner
- misdemeanor (Correct answer)
- misdemener
- misdemeanour
Correct answer: misdemeanor
Misdemeanor is the American English spelling (British: misdemeanour) for a lesser criminal offense.
Question 65: A police document uses the word 'acquittal.' This term means:
- a formal guilty verdict by a jury
- a formal judgment that a person is not guilty (Correct answer)
- the filing of additional charges
- a judge's decision to increase bail
Correct answer: a formal judgment that a person is not guilty
An acquittal is a formal court judgment that the defendant is not guilty of the charges.
Question 66: A suspect's statement reads: 'I was at my cousin's place all night. We watched movies until like midnight, then I slept there. I didn't leave until around 9 AM.' The crime occurred at 2:30 AM at a location 5 miles from the cousin's home. What is the significance of this statement to the investigation?
- It proves the suspect is lying
- It provides a potential alibi that investigators should verify (Correct answer)
- It conclusively eliminates the suspect
- It has no relevance to the investigation
Correct answer: It provides a potential alibi that investigators should verify
The statement is a potential alibi that must be corroborated or refuted through investigation before any conclusions can be drawn.
Question 67: When preparing for the LAPD Department Interview, a candidate's use of personal examples in response to behavioral questions should primarily aim to demonstrate which of the following?
- Their ability to connect past experiences to the core competencies required of a police officer. (Correct answer)
- That their previous jobs were more demanding than being a police officer.
- That they have an extensive knowledge of LAPD's internal policies and procedures.
- That they have never made a significant mistake in past professional roles.
Correct answer: Their ability to connect past experiences to the core competencies required of a police officer.
The interview panel uses behavioral questions (e.g., "Tell me about a time when...") to predict future performance based on past behavior. The most effective answers link specific personal experiences to required officer traits like integrity, problem-solving, and communication.
Question 68: In LAPD radio communications, what does the term "Code 4" signify?
- A supervisor is requested to respond to the location.
- No further assistance is needed; the scene is secure. (Correct answer)
- A vehicle has been reported stolen.
- An officer requires immediate, urgent assistance.
Correct answer: No further assistance is needed; the scene is secure.
"Code 4" is a standard and crucial radio code used by LAPD officers to indicate that a situation is under control and no more responding units are necessary. This prevents unnecessary responses and frees up resources for other calls.
Question 69: A police bulletin reads: 'Be advised that the suspect is described as a male, approximately 6'2", 220 lbs, with a tattoo of an eagle on his left forearm. The suspect is considered armed and dangerous.' Which detail is NOT mentioned in the bulletin?
- The suspect's weight
- The location of the suspect's tattoo
- The suspect's hair color (Correct answer)
- The suspect's height
Correct answer: The suspect's hair color
The bulletin describes height, weight, and tattoo location, but does not mention hair color.
Question 70: A crime analysis report states: 'Residential burglaries in Division 7 increased 18% in Q2 compared to Q1, with 73% of incidents occurring between 1000 and 1400 hours on weekdays.' Which deployment strategy is MOST directly supported by this data?
- Increased weekday midday patrols in Division 7 (Correct answer)
- Increased weekend night patrols in Division 7
- Increased patrols in all divisions equally
- Reduced patrol staffing in Division 7 during Q3
Correct answer: Increased weekday midday patrols in Division 7
The data shows most burglaries occur on weekdays between 10 AM and 2 PM, making increased midday weekday patrols the most logical response.
Question 71: California Penal Code 859.5 requires electronic recording of custodial interrogations specifically in:
- All felony cases regardless of charge type
- Homicide and sexual assault cases (Correct answer)
- Any case where the suspect requests an attorney
- All cases involving firearms or gang enhancements
Correct answer: Homicide and sexual assault cases
California Penal Code 859.5 mandates electronic recording of custodial interrogations in homicide and sexual assault cases to preserve an accurate record.
Question 72: You are off duty and witness what appears to be a robbery in progress. You are not carrying your service weapon. What is the most appropriate action?
- Announce yourself as an LAPD officer and attempt to detain the suspects
- Call 911, observe safely, and provide a detailed description to responding officers (Correct answer)
- Physically intervene immediately to stop the robbery
- Do nothing since you are off duty and unarmed
Correct answer: Call 911, observe safely, and provide a detailed description to responding officers
An unarmed off-duty officer placing themselves in a dangerous confrontation creates unnecessary risk; calling 911 and acting as a witness is the safest ethical choice.
Question 73: An incident report describes injuries as 'superficial.' In this context, superficial means:
- deep and penetrating
- affecting only the surface, not serious (Correct answer)
- requiring immediate surgery
- life-threatening
Correct answer: affecting only the surface, not serious
Superficial injuries are shallow and affect only the surface of the skin, not penetrating deeply.
Question 74: What is the legal standard of 'probable cause' in police work?
- A hunch or suspicion based on intuition alone
- Reasonable grounds based on facts and circumstances to believe a crime has been or is being committed (Correct answer)
- A court order authorizing an arrest
- Absolute certainty that a crime occurred
Correct answer: Reasonable grounds based on facts and circumstances to believe a crime has been or is being committed
Probable cause requires articulable facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe a crime occurred.
Question 75: Which of the following best describes the LAPD's standard regarding a candidate's driving history?
- Parking tickets and minor infractions are completely ignored.
- A candidate's driving record is reviewed as an indicator of their judgment and respect for the law. (Correct answer)
- Only DUI convictions are considered for disqualification.
- Any at-fault traffic collision within the last two years is an automatic disqualification.
Correct answer: A candidate's driving record is reviewed as an indicator of their judgment and respect for the law.
The LAPD views a candidate's driving record as a reflection of their overall judgment, maturity, and willingness to obey laws and regulations. While a single ticket is unlikely to be an issue, a pattern of moving violations, at-fault accidents, or license suspensions can indicate poor judgment or a disregard for public safety, which are disqualifying traits.
Question 76: The following passage appears in an LAPD training manual: 'De-escalation techniques should be employed whenever tactically feasible before resorting to force. Feasibility is determined by the totality of circumstances present at the scene.' What does 'totality of circumstances' most likely mean?
- The legal statutes applicable to the incident
- The total duration of the encounter
- The total number of officers on scene
- All relevant factors of the situation considered together (Correct answer)
Correct answer: All relevant factors of the situation considered together
'Totality of circumstances' refers to evaluating all relevant factors of a situation collectively rather than in isolation.
Question 77: A department budget of $240,000 is divided equally among 6 divisions. One division spends $32,000. What percentage of its allocation did that division spend?
- 85%
- 80% (Correct answer)
- 75%
- 70%
Correct answer: 80%
Each division gets $240,000 รท 6 = $40,000; $32,000 รท $40,000 = 0.80 = 80%.
Question 78: What is 'reasonable suspicion' and how does it differ from probable cause?
- It is a standard only applicable to vehicle searches
- It is a lower standard based on specific articulable facts justifying a brief investigative stop (Correct answer)
- It refers to a jury's determination of guilt
- It is equal to probable cause and can justify an arrest
Correct answer: It is a lower standard based on specific articulable facts justifying a brief investigative stop
Reasonable suspicion is a lower threshold than probable cause, allowing officers to briefly detain someone for investigation.
Question 79: What does 'detain' mean as opposed to 'arrest' in police contacts?
- Detain requires a warrant while arrest does not
- Detain and arrest are legally identical terms
- Detain is a brief investigative hold without full custody; arrest is taking someone into formal custody (Correct answer)
- Detain is used only for juveniles while arrest applies to adults
Correct answer: Detain is a brief investigative hold without full custody; arrest is taking someone into formal custody
A detention is a temporary, investigative hold based on reasonable suspicion, while an arrest is a formal custodial action requiring probable cause.
Question 80: An LAPD officer's report uses the word 'perpetuate.' In this context, perpetuate most likely means:
- to hand over custody to another agency
- to bring an act to an immediate end
- to cause something to continue indefinitely (Correct answer)
- to document an event for official records
Correct answer: to cause something to continue indefinitely
Perpetuate means to make something continue indefinitely; it is distinct from 'perpetrate' (to commit a crime).
LAPD Multiple Choice Test
The LAPD written entrance exam evaluates reading comprehension and English usage through four equally weighted sections: spelling, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing clarity.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong โ answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds