Gastroenterology and Hepatology Flashcards
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Read the first 6 Gastroenterology and Hepatology flashcards as text
A 52-year-old man with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and ulcerative colitis presents with a 6-week history of progressive jaundice, weight loss, and a dominant biliary stricture on MRCP. CA 19-9 is 450 U/mL. Brush cytology of the stricture is negative for malignancy. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer: Repeat brush cytology with fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
In PSC with a dominant stricture, a single negative brush cytology does not exclude cholangiocarcinoma (CCA). FISH detects chromosomal polysomy and has significantly higher sensitivity (~40–60%) than routine cytology alone (~20%) for CCA in PSC. FISH is the recommended adjunct when cytology is negative but clinical suspicion remains high. High-dose UDCA is not recommended (and may be harmful in PSC). EUS-FNA is technically difficult for proximal bile duct strictures and carries seeding risk. OLT evaluation is premature without confirmed CCA diagnosis via established Mayo criteria.
A 38-year-old woman is found to have a 2.8 cm hepatic adenoma on imaging done for right upper quadrant pain. She takes oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). Biopsy demonstrates β-catenin mutation subtype. She desires future pregnancy. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Immediate surgical resection given β-catenin mutation subtype
Hepatocellular adenomas with β-catenin activation mutations carry a significantly elevated risk of malignant transformation to hepatocellular carcinoma (estimated 10–fold higher than other subtypes). Current guidelines recommend resection for β-catenin–mutated adenomas regardless of size because of this malignant potential, particularly in a patient who desires future pregnancy (which increases rupture and growth risk). The standard size threshold of 5 cm applies to non-β-catenin subtypes. Embolization is reserved for hemorrhagic or symptomatic adenomas not amenable to resection.
A 61-year-old man with a 20-year history of well-controlled Crohn's disease on azathioprine presents with painless jaundice, pruritus, and a 12 kg weight loss over 4 months. CT scan shows a 3.5 cm hypodense mass in the pancreatic head and dilated intrahepatic ducts. CA 19-9 is 9 U/mL (normal). Serum IgG4 is 620 mg/dL (normal <140). What is the most critical next step before proceeding to Whipple resection?
Answer: Initiate a 2–4 week steroid trial and reassess imaging to exclude IgG4-related disease
A markedly elevated IgG4 (>2× upper limit of normal, here ~4.4× ULN) in the context of obstructive jaundice and a pancreatic mass raises serious concern for type 1 autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP), which can mimic pancreatic adenocarcinoma on imaging. AIP is dramatically steroid-responsive; a short empirical steroid trial (prednisone 40 mg/day for 2–4 weeks) with repeat imaging is an established diagnostic maneuver recommended by international consensus (HISORt criteria). If the mass resolves or significantly decreases, AIP is confirmed and surgery is avoided. Proceeding directly to Whipple risks unnecessary major surgery for a benign, treatable condition. EUS-FNA has poor sensitivity for AIP and may not be conclusive.
A 44-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of refractory ascites. She has no history of liver disease, alcohol use, or malignancy. Paracentesis reveals: total protein 4.2 g/dL, LDH 320 U/L, glucose 78 mg/dL, SAAG 0.8 g/dL, cytology negative. Right heart catheterization shows: PCWP 28 mmHg, right atrial pressure 24 mmHg, pulmonary artery pressure 42/20 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Constrictive pericarditis
The key findings are a low SAAG (1.1) from hepatic venous obstruction. Sinusoidal obstruction syndrome also causes high-SAAG ascites and typically follows bone marrow transplant or hepatotoxin exposure. Tuberculous peritonitis produces exudative, low-SAAG ascites but would not explain the cardiac catheterization findings.
A 57-year-old man with compensated cirrhosis (Child-Pugh A, MELD-Na 12) due to NASH is found on surveillance ultrasound to have a 1.8 cm arterially enhancing hepatic nodule with washout appearance on gadoxetate-enhanced MRI (LI-RADS 5). AFP is 18 ng/mL. He has no extrahepatic disease. Which treatment modality offers the best long-term survival benefit for this patient?
Answer: Liver transplantation within Milan criteria
For a patient with cirrhosis and a single HCC ≤2 cm (well within Milan criteria: single lesion ≤5 cm or ≤3 lesions each ≤3 cm), liver transplantation provides the only curative treatment for both the HCC and the underlying cirrhosis, offering the best long-term survival and lowest recurrence rates (~10–15% at 5 years vs. ~50–70% after ablation). With a MELD-Na of 12 and Child-Pugh A status, this patient is an excellent transplant candidate. RFA achieves excellent local control for small HCC but does not address the cirrhotic liver field defect, leading to high intrahepatic recurrence. TACE is palliative for intermediate-stage HCC and is not the preferred modality for early-stage resectable/transplantable disease.
A 29-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe epigastric pain, nausea, and elevated lipase (peak 1,800 U/L) over the past 2 years. She has no gallstones, drinks no alcohol, takes no medications, and has normal triglycerides. Genetic testing reveals a heterozygous SPINK1 N34S variant and a heterozygous CFTR F508del variant. MRCP is normal. What is the pathophysiologic basis for her recurrent pancreatitis?
Answer: Compound heterozygosity creates a threshold effect that overwhelms pancreatic trypsin inhibitor capacity
SPINK1 encodes the pancreatic secretory trypsin inhibitor (PSTI), which serves as a fail-safe by inhibiting prematurely activated trypsin. The N34S variant reduces PSTI inhibitory capacity but alone is insufficient to cause disease (present in ~2% of the general population). CFTR mutations impair ductal bicarbonate secretion and fluid flow, increasing pancreatic juice viscosity and acinar cell stress. The combination (compound heterozygosity) creates a threshold effect: each variant independently provides a modest susceptibility, but together they overwhelm compensatory mechanisms — a 'two-hit' model. SPINK1 does not directly activate trypsinogen; it inhibits trypsin. CFTR mutations alone rarely cause recurrent acute pancreatitis without additional modifiers. F508del does cause exocrine insufficiency in cystic fibrosis, but this is not the mechanism driving acute pancreatitis.