Practice Test GeeksITE - Internal Medicine In-Training Exam Practice Test
← All ITE Flashcard Decks

Infectious Disease Management Flashcards

7 cards from real ITE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Infectious Disease Management flashcards as text

  1. A 45-year-old man with HIV (CD4 50 cells/µL) presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. CSF shows elevated protein, low glucose, and India ink positive organisms. What is the first-line treatment?

    Answer: Liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine

    Cryptococcal meningitis in HIV patients is treated with induction therapy using liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine for 2 weeks, followed by fluconazole consolidation.

  2. A 30-year-old woman presents with dysuria and urinary frequency. Urine culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of E. coli sensitive to all agents. She is 10 weeks pregnant. What is the appropriate antibiotic?

    Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x 5 days

    Nitrofurantoin is safe in the second trimester and is first-line for uncomplicated UTI in pregnancy; TMP-SMX and fluoroquinolones are avoided due to fetal risks.

  3. A 60-year-old man with COPD is hospitalized with healthcare-associated pneumonia. He has no prior antibiotic exposure. What empiric coverage is most appropriate?

    Answer: Piperacillin-tazobactam plus vancomycin

    Healthcare-associated pneumonia requires broad-spectrum coverage for MRSA and Pseudomonas, making piperacillin-tazobactam plus vancomycin the appropriate empiric regimen.

  4. A 55-year-old patient develops fever and diarrhea 4 days after starting clindamycin for a skin infection. Stool testing is positive for C. difficile toxin. She has her first episode. What is the preferred treatment?

    Answer: Fidaxomicin 200mg BID x 10 days

    Current IDSA guidelines recommend fidaxomicin as preferred first-line therapy for initial C. difficile infection due to lower recurrence rates compared to vancomycin.

  5. A 25-year-old man presents with a painless penile ulcer with indurated borders and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Dark-field microscopy confirms the diagnosis. What is the treatment of choice?

    Answer: Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM single dose

    Primary syphilis is treated with benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM as a single dose, which is curative for early syphilis.

  6. A 40-year-old woman from Southeast Asia presents with fever, night sweats, weight loss, and a productive cough for 3 months. AFB smear is positive. She starts RIPE therapy. After 2 months, cultures show full susceptibility. What is the total treatment duration?

    Answer: 6 months total

    Drug-susceptible pulmonary tuberculosis is treated with 2 months of RIPE followed by 4 months of rifampin and isoniazid, for a total of 6 months.

  7. A 35-year-old man with a dog bite to his hand 8 hours ago presents for evaluation. He is up to date on tetanus and the wound has been thoroughly irrigated. What organism most commonly causes infection in dog bites?

    Answer: Pasteurella multocida

    Pasteurella multocida is the most common pathogen isolated from dog and cat bite wounds, typically causing rapid-onset cellulitis within 24 hours.