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Cardiovascular Medicine Flashcards

7 cards from real ITE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 55-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension has a resting ECG showing left bundle branch block. He presents with 2 hours of chest pain. Which statement is correct regarding diagnosis?

    Answer: New or presumably new LBBB with ischemic symptoms should be treated as STEMI equivalent

    Per Sgarbossa criteria and current guidelines, new or presumably new LBBB with ischemic symptoms should be managed as a STEMI equivalent with emergent reperfusion therapy.

  2. A patient with long-standing hypertension presents with an aortic dissection beginning just distal to the left subclavian artery (Type B). Blood pressure is 165/95 mmHg and he is pain-free. What is the preferred initial management?

    Answer: Medical management with IV beta-blockers targeting HR <60 and SBP 100-120 mmHg

    Uncomplicated Type B (Stanford) aortic dissections are initially managed medically with heart rate and blood pressure control using IV beta-blockers.

  3. Which of the following is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in athletes under 35 years of age in the United States?

    Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

    Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young US athletes, typically from ventricular arrhythmias during intense exertion.

  4. A 62-year-old woman with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, EF 30%) is on optimal medical therapy. QRS duration is 155ms with LBBB morphology. Which intervention improves mortality?

    Answer: Cardiac resynchronization therapy with defibrillator (CRT-D)

    CRT-D is indicated in HFrEF patients with LBBB and QRS ≥150ms on GDMT, reducing mortality and hospitalization by resynchronizing ventricular contraction.

  5. A 48-year-old man is found to have an LDL of 310 mg/dL despite high-intensity statin therapy. Genetic testing confirms heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia. What is the most appropriate add-on therapy?

    Answer: Ezetimibe plus a PCSK9 inhibitor

    Ezetimibe plus a PCSK9 inhibitor (evolocumab or alirocumab) provides additive LDL lowering and is recommended for FH patients not at goal on maximally tolerated statins.

  6. A 70-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (EF 25%) has a fasting blood glucose of 115 mg/dL. Which antidiabetic agent has demonstrated cardiovascular mortality benefit in patients with heart failure with reduced EF?

    Answer: Empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor)

    SGLT2 inhibitors like empagliflozin and dapagliflozin reduce cardiovascular death and heart failure hospitalizations in HFrEF, even in patients without diabetes.

  7. A 53-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnea. Echo shows mean pulmonary arterial pressure 35 mmHg, normal left heart filling pressures (PCWP 10 mmHg), and PVR 4.5 Wood units. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Group 1 pulmonary arterial hypertension

    Elevated mPAP (>25 mmHg), normal PCWP (3 Wood units) define pre-capillary pulmonary hypertension consistent with Group 1 PAH.