A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with a 2-month history of exertional chest pain.
An exercise stress test is positive for ischemia.
Coronary angiography reveals three-vessel coronary artery disease with 80% stenosis in the left main coronary artery.
His left ventricular ejection fraction is 45%.
According to the 2021 ACC/AHA/SCAI Guideline for Coronary Artery Revascularization, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?