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Nephrology and Kidney Injury Flashcards

7 cards from real Internal Medicine Exam practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 42-year-old woman with a history of nephrolithiasis has urine pH persistently above 6.5, serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L, and normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. Urine anion gap is positive. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Distal (Type I) renal tubular acidosis

    Distal RTA is characterized by inability to acidify urine below pH 5.5, positive urine anion gap, normal anion gap acidosis, and predisposition to calcium phosphate nephrolithiasis.

  2. A 55-year-old man on hemodialysis three times weekly complains of pruritus, bone pain, and a palpable neck mass. His PTH is 1,200 pg/mL and calcium is 10.8 mg/dL. What is the best treatment?

    Answer: Parathyroidectomy

    Tertiary hyperparathyroidism with autonomous PTH secretion, hypercalcemia, and PTH >800 pg/mL refractory to medical therapy requires parathyroidectomy.

  3. A 33-year-old woman presents with bilateral renal masses on ultrasound and a family history of early-onset renal cell carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and retinal hemangioblastomas. Which genetic syndrome is most likely?

    Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau disease

    Von Hippel-Lindau disease (VHL mutation) causes clear cell RCC, pheochromocytoma, hemangioblastomas, and pancreatic cysts with autosomal dominant inheritance.

  4. A 70-year-old man with BPH undergoes bilateral hydronephrosis relief by Foley catheter insertion. Over the next 24 hours he produces 8 liters of urine and his creatinine falls from 8.2 to 3.1 mg/dL. What electrolyte abnormality requires monitoring?

    Answer: Hypokalemia and hyponatremia from post-obstructive diuresis

    Post-obstructive diuresis causes massive urinary losses of sodium, potassium, and water; close monitoring and replacement are required to prevent dangerous electrolyte depletion.

  5. A 48-year-old man with cirrhosis develops AKI with creatinine rising to 3.4 mg/dL. Urine sodium is 8 mEq/L and urinalysis is bland. He does not respond to 1.5 L albumin infusion. What is the next step?

    Answer: Start terlipressin and albumin

    Hepatorenal syndrome type 1 (HRS-AKI) is treated with vasoconstrictors (terlipressin preferred in US; norepinephrine as alternative) plus albumin to restore effective circulating volume.

  6. A patient with ESRD on peritoneal dialysis develops fever, abdominal pain, and cloudy dialysate. Dialysate WBC count is 380 cells/µL (>50% neutrophils). Gram stain is negative. What is the most likely organism?

    Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

    Coagulase-negative staphylococci (S. epidermidis) are the most common cause of peritoneal dialysis-associated peritonitis, typically from touch contamination.

  7. A 52-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis on long-term NSAIDs has a GFR of 35 mL/min/1.73m². Renal biopsy reveals interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and minimal inflammation. What pattern does this represent?

    Answer: Chronic analgesic nephropathy (chronic interstitial nephritis)

    Long-term NSAID/analgesic use causes chronic interstitial nephritis with interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy, often progressing silently to CKD.