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Hematology Flashcards

7 cards from real Internal Medicine Exam practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 70-year-old man has a WBC of 45,000/µL with small mature lymphocytes on smear. Flow cytometry shows CD5+/CD19+/CD23+. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

    CLL is characterized by clonal expansion of mature B-lymphocytes co-expressing CD5 and CD23 (CD5+/CD19+/CD23+), distinguishing it from mantle cell lymphoma (CD23-).

  2. Reed-Sternberg cells on lymph node biopsy are pathognomonic for which hematologic malignancy?

    Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

    Reed-Sternberg cells—large binucleated cells with prominent nucleoli giving an 'owl-eye' appearance—are the hallmark pathologic finding of Hodgkin lymphoma.

  3. Which set of clinical features best describes the CRAB criteria used to diagnose symptomatic multiple myeloma?

    Answer: HyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, and Bone lesions

    CRAB criteria for multiple myeloma are: hyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, and Bone lytic lesions—end-organ damage that indicates symptomatic disease requiring treatment.

  4. Which finding on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) is characteristic of multiple myeloma?

    Answer: M-spike representing a monoclonal protein

    Multiple myeloma produces a single clone of plasma cells secreting identical immunoglobulin, creating a sharp M-spike (monoclonal protein) on SPEP.

  5. A patient develops fever, chills, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria 30 minutes into a blood transfusion. What is the most likely cause?

    Answer: Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility

    Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions from ABO incompatibility cause intravascular hemolysis, presenting with fever, chills, flank/back pain, and hemoglobinuria within minutes of transfusion.

  6. What is the first-line treatment for iron deficiency anemia in a hemodynamically stable patient?

    Answer: Oral ferrous sulfate supplementation

    Oral iron supplementation (ferrous sulfate) is the first-line treatment for iron deficiency anemia in stable patients because it is effective, inexpensive, and replenishes both hemoglobin and iron stores.

  7. The JAK2 V617F mutation is present in approximately what percentage of polycythemia vera cases?

    Answer: Greater than 95% of cases

    The JAK2 V617F point mutation is present in over 95% of polycythemia vera cases and is a major diagnostic criterion per WHO criteria.