IHSA Infrastructure Health & Safety Association Certified Coach — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which document legally obligates US employers to report a workplace fatality to OSHA?

Annual Summary Form 300A
OSHA Form 301 Incident Report
OSHA Form 300 Log
Verbal or written report within 8 hours of learning of the fatality (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verbal or written report within 8 hours of learning of the fatality

29 CFR 1904.39 requires employers to notify OSHA within 8 hours of a work-related fatality.

Question 2: OSHA's Emergency Action Plan standard (29 CFR 1910.38) requires employers with more than how many employees to maintain a written emergency action plan?

25 employees
10 employees (Correct answer)
5 employees
15 employees

Correct answer: 10 employees

Employers with more than 10 employees must keep a written emergency action plan; smaller employers may communicate it orally.

Question 3: A TUE application for a prohibited substance should be submitted:

Only after a positive doping test
In advance before use, except in emergency situations allowing retroactive TUEs (Correct answer)
At the end of the competitive season
Only for substances on the monitoring list

Correct answer: In advance before use, except in emergency situations allowing retroactive TUEs

TUEs must typically be granted before using a prohibited substance; retroactive TUEs are only allowed in genuine medical emergencies.

Question 4: A certified coach discovers that a colleague is falsifying safety inspection records at a job site. What is the coach's ethical obligation?

Ignore it to avoid workplace conflict
Wait to see if the colleague self-corrects
Report the falsification to the appropriate authority or supervisor (Correct answer)
Confront the colleague privately and take no further action

Correct answer: Report the falsification to the appropriate authority or supervisor

IHSA professional standards require coaches to report safety violations and misconduct to protect workers and uphold the integrity of the profession.

Question 5: Under OSHA's Personal Protective Equipment standard, who bears the cost of required PPE for general industry employees?

Costs are split 50/50 between employer and employee
The employer must provide PPE at no cost to the employee (Correct answer)
The union is responsible for providing PPE under collective bargaining
The employee must purchase and maintain their own PPE

Correct answer: The employer must provide PPE at no cost to the employee

OSHA requires employers to provide required PPE at no cost to general industry employees, with limited exceptions for everyday clothing.

Question 6: A safety trainer is asked to create a training program for a task with zero prior incidents. Which approach is most appropriate?

Conduct a job hazard analysis to identify potential risks before developing training content (Correct answer)
Focus training exclusively on regulatory compliance requirements for the task
Defer training development since no incidents indicate the task is inherently safe
Use generic industry training materials without task-specific customization

Correct answer: Conduct a job hazard analysis to identify potential risks before developing training content

A job hazard analysis identifies exposures before incidents occur, ensuring proactive training rather than reactive response to injury data.

Question 7: What is the key to delivering an impactful safety training session?

Focusing on basic safety facts.
The trainer speaking for the entire session.
Using only written materials.
Incorporating interactive activities and real-world examples (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Incorporating interactive activities and real-world examples

To deliver an impactful safety training session, it's essential to incorporate interactive activities and real-world examples. This approach moves beyond passive listening, actively engaging participants and making the information relatable and memorable. By connecting theoretical knowledge to practical scenarios, employees can better understand the relevance of safety procedures and how to apply them effectively in their daily tasks.

Question 8: An IHSA coach suspects a participant is under the influence of substances during a safety-sensitive training session. The most ethical immediate action is to:

Complete the session and report afterward to avoid embarrassing the participant
Ask other participants to monitor the impaired individual
Administer a field sobriety test independently
Remove the participant from the session and follow the organization's impairment policy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remove the participant from the session and follow the organization's impairment policy

The safety of all participants requires immediate action; the coach must follow organizational policy which typically involves removing the impaired individual from the training environment.

Question 9: A coach is pressured by an employer to overlook a serious safety hazard to avoid production downtime. Ethically, the coach must:

Defer to the employer's judgment as they bear ultimate responsibility
Agree to overlook the hazard temporarily if corrective action is promised
Document the hazard and report it through appropriate channels regardless of employer pressure (Correct answer)
Resign immediately without reporting the hazard

Correct answer: Document the hazard and report it through appropriate channels regardless of employer pressure

Professional ethics and legal obligations require coaches to report serious safety hazards regardless of employer pressure, as worker safety is paramount.

Question 10: What does the term 'scope of practice' mean for a IHSA professional?

Activities assigned by the employer
Only procedures learned in school
The legally defined activities, procedures, and processes that a professional is authorized to perform (Correct answer)
Any treatment the professional feels comfortable performing

Correct answer: The legally defined activities, procedures, and processes that a professional is authorized to perform

Scope of practice defines the legal boundaries of what procedures and services a licensed professional is qualified and authorized to perform, based on education, certification, and state regulations.

Question 11: A coach discovers an athlete is using a peptide hormone purchased online without a prescription. The most appropriate response is to:

Report the athlete directly to the national anti-doping authority without discussion
Confiscate the substance and say nothing
Allow it since it was self-purchased
Inform the athlete of the legal and anti-doping risks and refer to team medical staff (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inform the athlete of the legal and anti-doping risks and refer to team medical staff

Coaches should educate athletes on prohibited substance risks, confiscation authority depends on jurisdiction, and referral to medical staff ensures proper handling.

Question 12: An employer receives an OSHA citation and wants to contest it. The employer must notify OSHA of the intent to contest within how many working days of receiving the citation?

5 working days
10 working days
15 working days (Correct answer)
30 working days

Correct answer: 15 working days

Employers have 15 working days from receipt of an OSHA citation to file a Notice of Contest.

Question 13: In IHSA practice, what is evidence-based practice?

Relying solely on personal clinical experience
Following only the most recent research studies
Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values (Correct answer)
Using only manufacturer recommendations

Correct answer: Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values

Evidence-based practice combines the best available research evidence with the clinician's professional expertise and the individual patient's preferences and values to guide clinical decision-making.

Question 14: Which bloodborne pathogen poses the greatest occupational exposure risk due to its high concentration in infected blood and its ability to survive on environmental surfaces for up to 7 days?

Hepatitis B (HBV) (Correct answer)
HIV
MRSA
Hepatitis C (HCV)

Correct answer: Hepatitis B (HBV)

HBV can survive on dry surfaces for up to 7 days and is 50–100 times more infectious than HIV, making it the highest bloodborne transmission risk.

Question 15: A respiratory illness is spreading through a sports team during a tournament. The coach implements cohorting as an infection control strategy, which means:

Canceling the tournament to prevent further transmission
Sending all symptomatic athletes home immediately
Grouping ill athletes together and separating them from healthy athletes (Correct answer)
Requiring all athletes to wear masks regardless of symptom status

Correct answer: Grouping ill athletes together and separating them from healthy athletes

Cohorting is the practice of grouping infected individuals together to prevent exposure of uninfected persons while minimizing disruption.

Question 16: The practice of 'universal precautions' in athletics means treating:

Infectious materials only from athletes with known diagnoses
All body fluids equally, including sweat and saliva
Only visibly soiled blood as potentially infectious
All blood and certain body fluids from every person as potentially infectious (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All blood and certain body fluids from every person as potentially infectious

Universal precautions assume all blood and specified body fluids are potentially infectious regardless of the perceived infection status of the source.

Question 17: Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards?

Conditions that cause environmental pollution
All of the above
Conditions that cause strain on the body (Correct answer)
Hazards from electrical equipment

Correct answer: Conditions that cause strain on the body

Ergonomic hazards are workplace conditions or job demands that put stress on the body, leading to musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) over time. These can include repetitive motions, awkward postures, excessive force, or poorly designed workstations. Addressing ergonomic hazards involves designing tasks, tools, and environments to fit the worker, reducing physical strain.

Question 18: Which medication class is most associated with masking agents in anti-doping contexts because it increases urinary output and can dilute drug metabolites?

Antihistamines
Corticosteroids
NSAIDs
Diuretics (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diuretics

Diuretics are classified as masking agents under WADA because they can dilute urine and reduce detectable concentrations of prohibited substances.

Question 19: A comprehensive PPE program required by OSHA should include which of the following key elements?

Hazard assessment, PPE selection, employee training, and program evaluation (Correct answer)
Hazard assessment and PPE purchase records only
Written safety policy and annual OSHA inspection schedules
Employee training and a PPE sign-out log only

Correct answer: Hazard assessment, PPE selection, employee training, and program evaluation

An effective OSHA-compliant PPE program encompasses four core elements: hazard assessment to identify needs, proper PPE selection, thorough employee training, and ongoing program evaluation for effectiveness.

Question 20: An athlete with a known peanut allergy accidentally ingests a food product containing peanuts. The first intervention a coach should take is:

Wait five minutes to assess whether symptoms develop before calling for help
Have the athlete lie down and apply a cold pack to the throat
Activate EMS and use the athlete's prescribed epinephrine auto-injector if available (Correct answer)
Offer water to dilute the allergen

Correct answer: Activate EMS and use the athlete's prescribed epinephrine auto-injector if available

Anaphylaxis is life-threatening; immediate EMS activation and epinephrine administration are the correct first-line interventions.

Question 21: The Exposure Control Plan (ECP) required by OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard must be reviewed and updated at minimum:

Only when an exposure incident occurs
Every 5 years or when new technology becomes available
Every 2 years as part of a biennial compliance audit
Annually and whenever tasks or procedures change that affect exposure risk (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Annually and whenever tasks or procedures change that affect exposure risk

OSHA mandates annual ECP review and updates whenever new tasks are introduced or procedures change that could affect bloodborne pathogen exposure.

Question 22: Which behavior demonstrates a conflict of interest for an IHSA Certified Coach?

Documenting coaching session outcomes for employer review
Recommending a safety procedure based on current research
Referring a participant to another specialist when appropriate
Evaluating a safety program in which the coach has a financial stake (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Evaluating a safety program in which the coach has a financial stake

Having a financial interest in a program being evaluated creates a conflict of interest that compromises the objectivity required of a professional coach.

Question 23: In a multi-casualty situation during a large track meet, which triage color tag indicates a victim who is deceased or has unsurvivable injuries?

Green
Black (Correct answer)
Yellow
Red

Correct answer: Black

In START triage, a black tag indicates the victim is deceased or has injuries too severe to survive with available resources.

Question 24: A coach is aware that an athlete has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr virus). Beyond splenomegaly precautions, the coach should also advise the athlete to avoid sharing:

Athletic shoes and socks
Resistance bands and weight equipment
Water bottles, eating utensils, and lip balm (Correct answer)
Protective padding and helmets

Correct answer: Water bottles, eating utensils, and lip balm

EBV is transmitted primarily through saliva ('kissing disease'), so sharing items that contact the mouth is the key transmission risk to communicate.

Question 25: In the context of infrastructure and facilities safety documentation, what should a pre-participation inspection log record?

Athlete academic performance and eligibility data
Financial budgets for equipment replacement
Equipment and facility condition, hazards identified, and corrective actions taken (Correct answer)
Athlete personal health history and physical examination results

Correct answer: Equipment and facility condition, hazards identified, and corrective actions taken

Pre-participation inspection logs must document facility and equipment conditions, any identified hazards, and the corrective actions taken to protect athlete safety.

Question 26: What is the primary purpose of quality improvement (QI) in IHSA practice?

To increase billing revenue
To systematically improve patient outcomes and healthcare processes through data-driven analysis (Correct answer)
To reduce staff workloads
To satisfy accreditation requirements only

Correct answer: To systematically improve patient outcomes and healthcare processes through data-driven analysis

Quality improvement uses systematic, data-driven approaches to analyze healthcare processes and outcomes, identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes that enhance patient care and safety.

Question 27: A coach is advising workers on PPE limitations. Which statement accurately describes a key limitation of PPE that workers must understand?

PPE eliminates the hazard at its source
PPE is effective regardless of fit or condition
PPE reduces exposure but the hazard remains present (Correct answer)
PPE is the most reliable control because it is always visible to supervisors

Correct answer: PPE reduces exposure but the hazard remains present

PPE does not eliminate or control the hazard; it only serves as a barrier between the worker and the hazard, meaning exposure continues if PPE fails or is removed.

Question 28: A safety coach notices that workers consistently bypass a machine guard because it slows production. This is best classified as:

A disciplinary matter requiring immediate termination
An insignificant observation not requiring corrective action
An acceptable trade-off between productivity and safety
A systemic hazard requiring a redesigned engineering control rather than a behavioral fix alone (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A systemic hazard requiring a redesigned engineering control rather than a behavioral fix alone

When workers routinely bypass a control, the control itself is inadequate; an engineering solution that doesn't impede productivity must be found.

Question 29: Which principle best describes 'risk transfer' in an athletic risk management program?

Shifting financial liability to another party through insurance or waivers (Correct answer)
Training coaches to personally handle all medical incidents
Reducing participation numbers to lower overall exposure
Eliminating all hazardous activities from the program schedule

Correct answer: Shifting financial liability to another party through insurance or waivers

Risk transfer moves financial or legal responsibility to another party, typically through liability insurance or properly executed waivers.

Question 30: A stimulant medication prescribed for ADHD (e.g., amphetamine) used by a competing athlete without a TUE would be classified as:

A permitted therapeutic drug
A supplement under the athlete's own discretion
A prohibited substance in-competition requiring a TUE (Correct answer)
Legal without restriction in US domestic competitions only

Correct answer: A prohibited substance in-competition requiring a TUE

Amphetamines are prohibited in-competition under the stimulants category and athletes with ADHD must obtain a TUE to compete while taking them.

Question 31: NFPA 70E establishes requirements for electrical safety. What type of PPE is required to protect against arc flash hazards?

Chemical-resistant suits and respirators
Arc-rated (AR) clothing and face shields with the appropriate arc rating (cal/cm²) (Correct answer)
Standard leather gloves and a Class G hard hat
High-visibility vests and steel-toed boots

Correct answer: Arc-rated (AR) clothing and face shields with the appropriate arc rating (cal/cm²)

NFPA 70E requires arc-rated (AR) clothing, face shields, and other PPE selected based on the incident energy exposure level (in cal/cm²) determined by an arc flash hazard analysis.

Question 32: An athlete collapses and is unresponsive with no normal breathing. The first action a coach should take is:

Place the athlete in the recovery position and observe
Wait for a trainer to arrive before touching the athlete
Administer water to prevent dehydration-related unconsciousness
Call 911 and begin CPR immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Call 911 and begin CPR immediately

An unresponsive athlete with no normal breathing requires immediate 911 activation and CPR, as every minute without intervention reduces survival rates by 7-10%.

Question 33: What does the term 'scope of practice' mean for a IHSA professional?

Only procedures learned in school
Activities assigned by the employer
The legally defined activities, procedures, and processes that a professional is authorized to perform (Correct answer)
Any treatment the professional feels comfortable performing

Correct answer: The legally defined activities, procedures, and processes that a professional is authorized to perform

Question 34: Ibuprofen taken chronically by an endurance athlete poses the greatest risk of:

Peripheral neuropathy
Gastrointestinal ulceration and renal impairment (Correct answer)
Cardiac hypertrophy
Liver failure within one week

Correct answer: Gastrointestinal ulceration and renal impairment

Chronic NSAID use, especially during endurance events with dehydration, significantly raises the risk of GI ulcers and acute kidney injury.

Question 35: Which AVPU level best describes a patient who only responds when you apply a sternal rub?

Unresponsive
Alert
Voice
Pain (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pain

A patient who responds only to painful stimuli is classified as 'P' (Pain) on the AVPU scale.

Question 36: Which scenario BEST illustrates 'tertiary prevention' within an IHSA treatment protocol?

Routine annual health checkups
Pre-employment screening before a worker is hired
Ergonomic training for workers without injuries
Vocational rehabilitation to help a worker with a permanent disability return to modified work (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vocational rehabilitation to help a worker with a permanent disability return to modified work

Tertiary prevention minimizes the impact of an established injury or disability, such as vocational rehabilitation for permanent functional limitations.

Question 37: The Noise Reduction Rating (NRR) of a hearing protector is 30 dB. Using OSHA's derating method, what is the estimated real-world noise reduction applied to the NRR?

15 dB (Correct answer)
10 dB
30 dB
25 dB

Correct answer: 15 dB

OSHA requires the NRR to be derated by 50% for earmuffs and most earplugs; thus 30 dB × 0.50 = 15 dB of effective protection is applied in OSHA's exposure calculations.

Question 38: Under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030), athletic programs that employ staff must provide hepatitis B vaccination to at-risk employees:

Within 30 days of initial assignment
Within 10 working days of initial assignment (Correct answer)
Only after a documented exposure incident
Before the start of each athletic season

Correct answer: Within 10 working days of initial assignment

OSHA requires employers to offer the HBV vaccine series to exposed employees within 10 working days of their initial assignment.

Question 39: Why is personal protective equipment (PPE) important?

It reduces risk of injury and illness (Correct answer)
It reduces the need for safety training
It improves work productivity
It helps employees feel more comfortable

Correct answer: It reduces risk of injury and illness

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) serves as a critical barrier between workers and workplace hazards. By wearing appropriate PPE such as safety glasses, gloves, hard hats, or respirators, employees can significantly reduce their exposure to risks like impacts, chemical splashes, falls, or airborne contaminants. This directly minimizes the likelihood of injuries and occupational illnesses.

Question 40: An IHSA Certified Coach is working with a team that includes workers from diverse cultural backgrounds. Ethical practice requires the coach to:

Adapt communication and coaching approaches to be culturally sensitive and inclusive (Correct answer)
Separate workers by cultural background for efficiency
Focus training only on workers who are fluent in English
Apply identical methods to all workers regardless of background

Correct answer: Adapt communication and coaching approaches to be culturally sensitive and inclusive

Ethical coaching requires cultural competency and adapting methods to ensure all workers receive equitable, effective safety education.

Question 41: Which documentation practice best supports risk management after an athlete sustains an injury during practice?

Verbal reporting to the athletic director with no written record
Waiting until the athlete sees a physician before recording anything
Completing a written incident report with date, time, mechanism of injury, and witness names (Correct answer)
Noting the injury only in the coach's personal training journal

Correct answer: Completing a written incident report with date, time, mechanism of injury, and witness names

A formal written incident report creates an objective, contemporaneous record that is essential for risk management, insurance, and potential legal defense.

Question 42: FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) is distinguished from FTA because FMEA:

Is used only for chemical process hazard analysis
Works top-down from a system failure to find root causes
Works bottom-up from individual component failures to assess system-level effects (Correct answer)
Focuses exclusively on human error as the cause of failure

Correct answer: Works bottom-up from individual component failures to assess system-level effects

FMEA takes a bottom-up approach, analyzing how individual component failures propagate to affect the overall system.

Question 43: What is the primary purpose of quality improvement (QI) in IHSA practice?

To increase billing revenue
To systematically improve patient outcomes and healthcare processes through data-driven analysis (Correct answer)
To satisfy accreditation requirements only
To reduce staff workloads

Correct answer: To systematically improve patient outcomes and healthcare processes through data-driven analysis

Question 44: Erythropoietin (EPO) is prohibited in sport primarily because it:

Increases red blood cell production, enhancing oxygen delivery to muscles (Correct answer)
Reduces inflammation and speeds recovery
Stimulates the central nervous system to reduce fatigue
Promotes muscle protein synthesis

Correct answer: Increases red blood cell production, enhancing oxygen delivery to muscles

EPO stimulates erythropoiesis, raising hematocrit and hemoglobin levels to increase aerobic capacity, providing a significant performance advantage.

Question 45: Which of the following is a leading indicator used in proactive hazard identification programs?

Number of safety observations completed per week (Correct answer)
Workers' compensation claim costs
Lost-time injury frequency rate
Total recordable incident rate

Correct answer: Number of safety observations completed per week

Safety observations measure proactive safety activity before incidents occur, making them a leading indicator rather than a lagging measure.

Question 46: Under OSHA's multi-employer worksite policy, which employer type is responsible for hazards it creates, even if its own employees are not exposed?

Exposed employer
Creating employer (Correct answer)
Correcting employer
Controlling employer

Correct answer: Creating employer

The 'creating employer' bears responsibility for hazards it generates on a multi-employer worksite regardless of whose workers are exposed.

Question 47: Which coaching behavior is most likely to undermine a safety coaching relationship?

Following up after coaching sessions to check on progress
Providing specific positive feedback immediately after a safe behavior is observed
Asking permission before delivering corrective feedback
Combining praise with criticism in every interaction regardless of context (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Combining praise with criticism in every interaction regardless of context

Reflexively combining praise with criticism (the 'sandwich' approach) can make positive feedback feel insincere and dilute both messages.

Question 48: What is the role of incident management during an emergency situation?

Directing employees to work through the emergency.
Managing the cleanup and recovery of the workplace.
Coordinating emergency response and minimizing harm. (Correct answer)
Handling only the immediate injury.

Correct answer: Coordinating emergency response and minimizing harm.

Incident management plays a vital role during an emergency by coordinating the overall response and minimizing harm. This involves establishing clear communication channels, allocating resources, and making critical decisions to control the situation and protect lives and property. Effective incident management ensures a structured and efficient approach, reducing chaos and improving outcomes.

Question 49: A coach discovers that a previous entry in an athlete's record was made with an incorrect date. What is the appropriate corrective action?

Add an addendum with the current date noting the correction to the original entry (Correct answer)
Alter the original entry digitally to show the correct date without notation
Leave the error uncorrected to avoid drawing attention to the mistake
Delete the incorrect entry and re-enter it with the correct date

Correct answer: Add an addendum with the current date noting the correction to the original entry

An addendum dated today that references and corrects the original error preserves record integrity and is the legally appropriate method for addressing documentation mistakes.

Question 50: After an incident is resolved, which step in the post-incident process identifies systemic failures rather than individual blame?

Root cause analysis (Correct answer)
Near-miss reporting
Disciplinary review
Insurance claim filing

Correct answer: Root cause analysis

Root cause analysis examines systemic, organizational, and procedural failures to prevent recurrence rather than attributing blame to individuals.

Question 51: What does the term 'scope of practice' mean for a IHSA professional?

Only procedures learned in school
Activities assigned by the employer
The legally defined activities, procedures, and processes that a professional is authorized to perform (Correct answer)
Any treatment the professional feels comfortable performing

Correct answer: The legally defined activities, procedures, and processes that a professional is authorized to perform

Question 52: Who should be trained in emergency response procedures?

Only the safety officers.
All employees, regardless of their role. (Correct answer)
Only the designated emergency response team.
Only managers and supervisors.

Correct answer: All employees, regardless of their role.

All employees, regardless of their role, should be trained in emergency response procedures. Every individual in the workplace has a part to play in ensuring their own safety and potentially assisting others during an emergency. Universal training creates a collective understanding and capability, leading to a more coordinated and effective response when an incident occurs.

Question 53: When establishing a unified command at a multi-agency infrastructure incident, which statement BEST describes its function?

Representatives of all agencies with jurisdiction jointly develop objectives and strategies without a single incident commander (Correct answer)
One agency assumes full command and the others act in support only
Unified command applies only when incidents span multiple states
A federal agency automatically assumes command over local agencies

Correct answer: Representatives of all agencies with jurisdiction jointly develop objectives and strategies without a single incident commander

Unified command allows agencies with different legal, geographic, or functional responsibilities to jointly manage an incident by sharing command authority while maintaining agency accountability.

Question 54: Which federal agency, in partnership with OSHA, administers the Mine Safety and Health Act for underground and surface mines?

NIOSH
MSHA (Correct answer)
EPA
DOT

Correct answer: MSHA

The Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) enforces safety and health regulations in mining operations.

Question 55: What is the first step in conducting a hazard analysis?

Waiting until accidents occur.
Assessing risks without identifying hazards.
Ignoring any hazards.
Identifying and documenting all hazards. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identifying and documenting all hazards.

The first step in conducting a hazard analysis is to identify and document all potential hazards present in the workplace. This foundational step involves a thorough examination of tasks, equipment, processes, and the environment to pinpoint anything that could cause harm. Without a comprehensive list of hazards, effective risk assessment and control measures cannot be developed.

Question 56: When must a treatment plan include a mental health component for an injured worker?

When psychosocial factors are identified as barriers to recovery (Correct answer)
Only in cases of workplace fatality
Only when directed by a physician
Never, as mental health is outside the coach's scope

Correct answer: When psychosocial factors are identified as barriers to recovery

Psychosocial barriers such as fear-avoidance or depression are recognized recovery barriers and must be addressed in the plan.

Question 57: What is the correct procedure for IHSA professionals when a medication error occurs?

Hide the error to avoid liability
Assess the patient, notify the provider, document the event, and report through the incident reporting system (Correct answer)
Only tell the patient if they ask
Wait to see if any adverse effects develop

Correct answer: Assess the patient, notify the provider, document the event, and report through the incident reporting system

When a medication error occurs, the immediate priority is patient safety—assess the patient, notify the physician, provide any necessary interventions, then document accurately and report through the facility's incident reporting system.

Question 58: Which scenario best illustrates a 'dynamic risk assessment'?

An annual safety audit conducted by the health and safety committee
Completing a written JHA before starting a routine maintenance task
A HAZOP study performed during facility design
A worker re-evaluating hazards on the spot when site conditions change unexpectedly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A worker re-evaluating hazards on the spot when site conditions change unexpectedly

Dynamic risk assessment is an on-the-spot evaluation performed in real time when conditions deviate from what was anticipated.

Question 59: A certified coach discovers that a staff member who handles first aid did not complete the required annual bloodborne pathogen training. Under OSHA standards, the APPROPRIATE response is to:

Restrict the staff member from exposure-risk tasks until training is completed and documented (Correct answer)
Have the staff member sign a waiver acknowledging the missed training
Allow the staff member to continue duties until the next scheduled training cycle
Report the lapse directly to OSHA before taking internal action

Correct answer: Restrict the staff member from exposure-risk tasks until training is completed and documented

OSHA requires training before initial assignment and annually thereafter; a staff member who is non-compliant must not perform tasks that create exposure risk until training is completed.

Question 60: In which scenario does the 'Good Samaritan Law' typically protect a coach who administers first aid?

When a written liability waiver is signed immediately after the incident
When the coach charges a fee for the emergency assistance provided
When the coach performs procedures outside their training scope with positive outcomes
When the coach acts in good faith without expectation of compensation during an emergency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When the coach acts in good faith without expectation of compensation during an emergency

Good Samaritan laws generally protect rescuers who act voluntarily, in good faith, without compensation, and within the scope of their training during emergencies.

Question 61: Under OSHA's hearing conservation program (29 CFR 1910.95), employers must implement a program when workers are exposed to noise at or above what action level as an 8-hour time-weighted average?

75 dBA
80 dBA
85 dBA (Correct answer)
90 dBA

Correct answer: 85 dBA

OSHA's hearing conservation program is triggered at an 8-hour TWA noise exposure of 85 dBA (the action level).

Question 62: When a IHSA practitioner faces a conflict between beneficence and patient autonomy, what is the correct approach?

Ignore the conflict and document nothing
Seek a court order to proceed
Respect the patient's informed decision even if it differs from the recommended treatment (Correct answer)
Override the patient's wishes for their own good

Correct answer: Respect the patient's informed decision even if it differs from the recommended treatment

When a competent, informed patient makes a decision that conflicts with what the practitioner believes is best, patient autonomy generally takes precedence. The provider should ensure the patient understands the implications and document the discussion.

Question 63: During IHSA patient assessment, what does the SOAP format stand for?

Standard Operating Assessment Protocol
Safety, Observation, Action, Prevention
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan (Correct answer)
Systematic Observation and Analysis Procedure

Correct answer: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

SOAP notes organize clinical documentation into four categories: Subjective (patient's reported symptoms), Objective (measurable findings), Assessment (clinical judgment), and Plan (treatment approach).

Question 64: When laundering uniforms potentially contaminated with blood, the coach or equipment manager should:

Pre-soak in cold water for 30 minutes before adding to the regular wash
Wash on the hottest water setting the fabric allows with a detergent, wearing gloves when handling (Correct answer)
Dry clean only to avoid cross-contaminating other garments
Discard uniforms if blood staining is visible

Correct answer: Wash on the hottest water setting the fabric allows with a detergent, wearing gloves when handling

Handling soiled laundry with gloves and using hot water with detergent significantly reduces pathogen load while preserving the garment.

Question 65: Which of the following best defines 'Protected Health Information' (PHI) under HIPAA?

Only information written in a formal medical chart by a licensed physician
Only digital health information stored in electronic health record systems
Health information that has been de-identified and stripped of all personal identifiers
Any individually identifiable health information held or transmitted by a covered entity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Any individually identifiable health information held or transmitted by a covered entity

PHI is any individually identifiable health information held or transmitted by a covered entity regardless of format — paper, electronic, or verbal.

Question 66: An employer must post OSHA's Job Safety and Health: It's the Law poster in a location that is:

Visible only to supervisors and managers
Accessible exclusively in the HR office
Displayed only during safety inspections
Conspicuous where notices to employees are customarily posted (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Conspicuous where notices to employees are customarily posted

OSHA requires the poster to be displayed in a conspicuous location where employee notices are normally posted.

Question 67: When inspecting a safety harness before each use, a certified coach should train workers to remove it from service if they observe which of the following?

Any dirt or debris that has not been cleaned off the webbing
Minor surface discoloration from UV exposure after 6 months of storage
A manufacturing date older than 2 years even without visible damage
Cuts, fraying, broken stitching, or deformation of metal hardware (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cuts, fraying, broken stitching, or deformation of metal hardware

Cuts, fraying, broken or burned stitching, and deformed or corroded hardware are definitive defects that compromise harness integrity and require immediate removal from service.

Question 68: A coach must maintain athlete medication confidentiality under HIPAA. Which action violates this obligation?

Recording medications in a secure, access-controlled log
Providing medication information to anti-doping authorities during a TUE process
Disclosing an athlete's medication list to media without consent (Correct answer)
Sharing medication information with treating team physicians

Correct answer: Disclosing an athlete's medication list to media without consent

Disclosing protected health information including medications to media without athlete consent violates HIPAA confidentiality requirements.

Question 69: In IHSA documentation, what does the acronym SMART stand for in goal setting?

Scientific, Meaningful, Applied, Reviewed, Therapeutic
Standard, Medical, Appropriate, Recorded, Tracked
Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound (Correct answer)
Simple, Moderate, Accurate, Reliable, Tested

Correct answer: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

SMART goals in healthcare documentation must be Specific (clearly defined), Measurable (quantifiable), Achievable (realistic), Relevant (related to patient needs), and Time-bound (with a target date).

Question 70: Why is regular safety training essential in the workplace?

To fulfill legal requirements only.
To improve employee knowledge and confidence during emergencies. (Correct answer)
To delay emergency response during incidents.
To avoid employee injuries during work.

Correct answer: To improve employee knowledge and confidence during emergencies.

Regular safety training is essential in the workplace to improve employee knowledge and confidence during emergencies. Well-trained employees are better equipped to understand risks, follow procedures, and react appropriately, which can significantly reduce injuries and save lives. This continuous education fosters a culture of safety and preparedness, making the workplace safer for everyone.

Question 71: What is the primary reason functional outcome measures should be documented throughout an athlete's rehabilitation?

To track progress objectively, guide treatment decisions, and support return-to-play determinations (Correct answer)
To justify the cost of treatment to insurance carriers only
To satisfy the athlete's curiosity about their own progress
To create marketing materials showing program effectiveness

Correct answer: To track progress objectively, guide treatment decisions, and support return-to-play determinations

Serial outcome measure documentation provides objective evidence of progress, informs clinical decisions, and creates defensible criteria for safe return to sport.

Question 72: Which factor MOST increases the risk of sudden cardiac arrest in young athletes?

Mild hypertension
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) (Correct answer)
Mild asthma
Overuse knee injuries

Correct answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young competitive athletes in the United States.

Question 73: When implementing a return-to-learn protocol following a concussion, which step comes BEFORE return-to-sport activities?

Unrestricted sport-specific training
Strength and conditioning sessions at full intensity
Symptom-free rest followed by gradual reintroduction of cognitive demands (Correct answer)
Full-contact practice participation

Correct answer: Symptom-free rest followed by gradual reintroduction of cognitive demands

Return-to-learn must be completed before return-to-sport; the brain must handle cognitive load symptom-free before being cleared for physical demands.

Question 74: A coach suspects an athlete has community-associated MRSA (CA-MRSA). Which clinical presentation is MOST consistent with this diagnosis?

Clear fluid-filled blisters along a nerve dermatome
A painful, warm, fluctuant abscess that resembles a spider bite (Correct answer)
Ring-shaped lesion with central clearing
Widespread red rash with no central focus

Correct answer: A painful, warm, fluctuant abscess that resembles a spider bite

CA-MRSA typically presents as a boil or abscess that is warm, erythematous, and fluctuant, which athletes often mistake for a spider bite.

Question 75: Why is employee involvement important in hazard identification?

Employee involvement causes delays in safety procedures.
Employees do not have any useful insights.
Employees help identify hazards based on experience. (Correct answer)
Employees should be excluded from risk discussions.

Correct answer: Employees help identify hazards based on experience.

Employee involvement is crucial in hazard identification because employees often have firsthand experience with daily tasks and the associated risks. Their practical knowledge allows them to identify hazards that might be overlooked by management or during formal inspections. Engaging employees fosters a stronger safety culture and ensures a more comprehensive and accurate understanding of workplace dangers.

Question 76: Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with severe muscle cramps during prolonged athletic activity in hot conditions?

Calcium deficiency
Sodium depletion (Correct answer)
Potassium excess
Magnesium toxicity

Correct answer: Sodium depletion

Sodium is lost in sweat; its depletion during prolonged exertion in heat is the primary electrolyte factor in exercise-associated muscle cramps.

Question 77: What is hazard identification in the context of risk management?

Identifying hazards before they cause harm. (Correct answer)
The process of analyzing risks after they occur.
Monitoring only after a hazard causes harm.
Ignoring potential risks.

Correct answer: Identifying hazards before they cause harm.

Hazard identification, in the context of risk management, is the crucial process of recognizing and documenting potential sources of harm before they cause an incident. This proactive step involves systematically looking for anything that could cause injury or illness. By identifying hazards early, organizations can take preventative measures to protect employees and prevent accidents.

Question 78: Under OSHA 29 CFR 1926.502, what is the maximum free-fall distance permitted for a personal fall arrest system (PFAS) in construction?

3 feet
6 feet (Correct answer)
4 feet
10 feet

Correct answer: 6 feet

OSHA 1926.502 requires that a personal fall arrest system limit the free-fall distance to 6 feet or less to minimize injury forces on the body.

Question 79: In ethical decision-making, the 'principle of non-maleficence' means that a coach must:

Never disagree with established organizational policies
Prioritize the majority group's needs over individual concerns
Always act in the best financial interest of the employer
Avoid causing harm to participants, even unintentionally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Avoid causing harm to participants, even unintentionally

Non-maleficence is the obligation to do no harm, which requires coaches to consider potential negative consequences of all their actions.

Question 80: Which of the following best defines a 'latent hazard' in infrastructure environments?

A hidden or dormant condition that may not cause harm until triggered by another event (Correct answer)
A chemical hazard listed on an SDS
A hazard that has already caused a recordable incident
A hazard that is visible and immediately obvious to workers

Correct answer: A hidden or dormant condition that may not cause harm until triggered by another event

Latent hazards lie dormant in systems and are often revealed only when combined with other failures or triggering events.

Question 81: An athlete asks about using a CBD (cannabidiol) product. Which statement is accurate under current WADA rules?

CBD itself is no longer prohibited, but THC remains on the prohibited list (Correct answer)
All hemp-derived products are permitted without restriction
All cannabis products including CBD are prohibited
Cannabis is only monitored, not prohibited

Correct answer: CBD itself is no longer prohibited, but THC remains on the prohibited list

WADA removed CBD from the prohibited list in 2018; however, THC and other cannabinoids remain prohibited in-competition.

Question 82: When a participant files a formal complaint against an IHSA coach, the coach is ethically required to:

Cooperate fully with any investigation and maintain confidentiality about the process (Correct answer)
Immediately counter-file a complaint against the participant
Discuss the complaint openly with other participants to provide context
Refuse to engage with participants until the complaint is resolved

Correct answer: Cooperate fully with any investigation and maintain confidentiality about the process

Professional ethics require cooperation with formal complaint investigations while maintaining confidentiality to protect all parties involved.

Question 83: Which scenario most clearly represents a breach of athlete health record confidentiality by a coach?

Posting an athlete's diagnosis and injury details on a public team social media page (Correct answer)
Sharing records with the team physician who is actively treating the athlete
Documenting an injury in the official athletic training log
Discussing an athlete's injury status with a parent who has signed a release form

Correct answer: Posting an athlete's diagnosis and injury details on a public team social media page

Publicly disclosing an athlete's diagnosis on social media without consent constitutes a clear confidentiality breach and potential HIPAA violation.

Question 84: A cross-country runner collapses near the finish line on a hot day with a core temperature of 104°F and is confused. This presentation is MOST consistent with:

Severe dehydration
Heat syncope
Exertional heat stroke (Correct answer)
Heat cramps

Correct answer: Exertional heat stroke

Exertional heat stroke is defined by core temperature ≥104°F combined with central nervous system dysfunction such as confusion.

Question 85: What is the correct order of physical assessment techniques used by IHSA practitioners?

Auscultation, percussion, inspection, palpation
Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation (Correct answer)
Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
Percussion, auscultation, palpation, inspection

Correct answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

The standard sequence is inspection (visual observation), palpation (touch), percussion (tapping), and auscultation (listening). This order prevents one technique from altering findings of subsequent ones.

Question 86: How should a coach document an athlete's refusal of recommended medical treatment?

Inform the athletic director and take no further documentation steps
Document the refusal, the information provided about risks, and have the athlete sign a refusal form (Correct answer)
Do not document it to avoid creating a liability record
Only note the refusal if the athlete's condition subsequently worsens

Correct answer: Document the refusal, the information provided about risks, and have the athlete sign a refusal form

Documenting a refusal of treatment, the risk information provided, and obtaining a signed refusal form protects both the athlete and the coach legally.

Question 87: What is the primary purpose of quality improvement (QI) in IHSA practice?

To increase billing revenue
To systematically improve patient outcomes and healthcare processes through data-driven analysis (Correct answer)
To reduce staff workloads
To satisfy accreditation requirements only

Correct answer: To systematically improve patient outcomes and healthcare processes through data-driven analysis

Question 88: After an exposure incident to bloodborne pathogens, which document must the exposed employee receive within 15 days of the completed medical evaluation?

A copy of OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
A written opinion from the healthcare professional who performed the evaluation (Correct answer)
A completed OSHA 300 Log entry for the incident
A declination form for the hepatitis B vaccine series

Correct answer: A written opinion from the healthcare professional who performed the evaluation

OSHA requires the employer to provide the employee with a copy of the evaluating healthcare professional's written opinion within 15 days of completing the evaluation.

Question 89: What is the primary purpose of maintaining an injury surveillance log for a sports program?

To replace the need for individual athlete health records
To identify injury patterns and inform prevention strategies (Correct answer)
To document athlete academic eligibility status
To satisfy insurance billing requirements exclusively

Correct answer: To identify injury patterns and inform prevention strategies

Injury surveillance logs track patterns across the team, enabling coaches and medical staff to identify risk factors and implement targeted prevention programs.

Question 90: Which route of administration provides the fastest onset of action in emergency situations?

Transdermal (skin patch)
Intravenous (into a vein) (Correct answer)
Oral (by mouth)
Rectal suppository

Correct answer: Intravenous (into a vein)

Intravenous administration delivers drugs directly into the bloodstream, providing the fastest onset of action.

Question 91: Which documentation practice best supports continuity of care when an athlete is referred to an outside specialist?

Allowing the athlete to self-report their history to the specialist
Providing only the insurance information needed for billing
Sending a written referral summary including history, examination findings, and prior treatments (Correct answer)
Verbally summarizing the case to the specialist by phone

Correct answer: Sending a written referral summary including history, examination findings, and prior treatments

A written referral summary with comprehensive clinical information ensures the specialist has accurate data for diagnosis and treatment planning without gaps.

Question 92: Which technique uses structured 'What-If' questioning to systematically identify potential failure scenarios?

What-If Analysis (Correct answer)
Bow-Tie Analysis
HAZOP study
Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)

Correct answer: What-If Analysis

What-If Analysis uses structured brainstorming questions to explore deviations and failure scenarios.

Question 93: What obligation does an IHSA Certified Coach have regarding continuing professional development?

Complete development activities only upon receiving a formal performance review
Engage in development only in areas directly requested by current clients
Attend development opportunities only when paid to do so by the employer
Maintain and expand professional competence through ongoing learning as required for certification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain and expand professional competence through ongoing learning as required for certification

Maintaining certification requires ongoing professional development to ensure coaches remain current with evolving safety standards and best practices.

Question 94: Which factor most significantly increases the risk of sudden cardiac arrest (SCA) in young athletes during exercise?

Mild asthma controlled with an inhaler
Previous non-contact ankle sprain
Low body mass index
Undetected hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Undetected hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is the leading structural cause of sudden cardiac arrest in young athletes and is often undetected without screening.

Question 95: During a thunderstorm, work at height must be suspended based on the 30-30 lightning safety rule. What does the second '30' represent?

Wait 30 seconds after thunder before resuming work
Maintain a 30-foot clearance from all tall structures
Move workers at least 30 feet lower in elevation
Wait 30 minutes after the last thunder before resuming work (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wait 30 minutes after the last thunder before resuming work

The second 30 of the 30-30 rule means waiting at least 30 minutes after the last clap of thunder before resuming outdoor work, accounting for residual storm cell danger.

Question 96: An IHSA coach's personal values conflict with a legally required safety procedure they must teach. What is the appropriate course of action?

Refuse the assignment and escalate the conflict to certification body
Set aside personal values and deliver the legally required content professionally and accurately (Correct answer)
Teach only the portions of the procedure consistent with personal values
Teach personal values alongside the legal requirement as an alternative

Correct answer: Set aside personal values and deliver the legally required content professionally and accurately

Professional coaches must deliver legally required and certified content accurately, setting aside personal values that conflict with professional obligations.

Question 97: A coach learns that a student-athlete is being treated for a mental health condition. Under HIPAA and FERPA considerations, the coach should:

Contact the athlete's parents immediately without the athlete's consent
Maintain confidentiality and follow school policy on health information disclosure (Correct answer)
Post a health advisory on the team bulletin board for awareness
Share the information with all assistant coaches to ensure proper monitoring

Correct answer: Maintain confidentiality and follow school policy on health information disclosure

Health information is protected under HIPAA and FERPA; coaches must maintain confidentiality and follow institutional policy on disclosure.

Question 98: Which of the following best defines 'informed consent' in the context of IHSA coaching activities?

Workers sign a standard liability waiver
Management approves the coaching program on behalf of workers
Participants verbally agree to attend a session
Participants understand the purpose, risks, and their right to withdraw before agreeing to participate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Participants understand the purpose, risks, and their right to withdraw before agreeing to participate

Informed consent requires that participants receive full information about the activity, understand it, and voluntarily agree to participate.

Question 99: A coach suspects heat exhaustion in an athlete on a hot day. Which symptom distinguishes heat exhaustion from heat stroke and guides treatment priority?

Muscle cramps and dizziness without confusion
Hot, dry skin with temperature above 104°F and altered mental status (Correct answer)
Pale, moist skin and normal or slightly elevated temperature
Rapid heart rate with no sweating

Correct answer: Hot, dry skin with temperature above 104°F and altered mental status

Hot, dry skin with temperature above 104°F and altered mental status indicate heat stroke, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate cooling and EMS activation.

IHSA Infrastructure Health & Safety Association Certified Coach

The IHSA Certified Coach certification validates competency in health and safety coaching across key domains including hazard identification, infection control, patient assessment, pharmacology, clinical documentation, and professional ethics. It prepares individuals to coach workers and organizations on occupational health and safety standards.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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