International English Language Testing System (IELTS) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which strategy is most effective for True/False/Not Given questions?

Locate the relevant section of the passage and compare it carefully to the statement (Correct answer)
Always choose NOT GIVEN when unsure
Read every word of the passage before answering any question
Use your general knowledge to fill in gaps

Correct answer: Locate the relevant section of the passage and compare it carefully to the statement

Locating the relevant part of the passage and carefully comparing it to the statement is the most reliable approach.

Question 2: In a 'discuss both views and give your opinion' essay, what must you include?

Only the opposing view
Neither side, just facts
Only your opinion
Both sides plus your own clear opinion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Both sides plus your own clear opinion

This prompt requires discussing both perspectives and clearly stating your own view.

Question 3: Which sentence correctly uses 'despite' to show a concession?

Despite that the cost is high, renewable energy is sustainable.
Despite the high cost of renewable energy, but it remains sustainable.
Despite of the high cost of renewable energy, it remains sustainable.
Despite the high cost of renewable energy, it remains the most sustainable long-term solution. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Despite the high cost of renewable energy, it remains the most sustainable long-term solution.

'Despite' is a preposition followed by a noun phrase ('the high cost'), not a conjunction; 'despite of' and 'despite that' are common non-standard errors.

Question 4: You hear: 'The seminar starts at a quarter to three — so 2:45.' The notes say: Start time: ___. What should be written?

3:45
2:15
3:15
2:45 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2:45

The speaker clarifies 'quarter to three' by saying 'so 2:45', confirming the time.

Question 5: Why is paraphrasing the essay prompt in your introduction recommended?

It replaces the need for a thesis
It shows lexical range and avoids copying (Correct answer)
It increases the word count cheaply
It is required to be exactly 50 words

Correct answer: It shows lexical range and avoids copying

Paraphrasing demonstrates vocabulary skill and avoids penalty for copying the question.

Question 6: If a flow-chart completion task uses arrows, what do the arrows usually represent?

The sequence or order of steps in a process (Correct answer)
Time limits
Speaker changes
Incorrect options

Correct answer: The sequence or order of steps in a process

Arrows show the order of stages, so listen for sequencing words like 'then' and 'next'.

Question 7: Which organisation jointly owns and administers IELTS?

UNESCO and the Oxford University Press
British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia, and Cambridge Assessment English (Correct answer)
TOEFL and ETS only
IELTS is administered solely by Cambridge University

Correct answer: British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia, and Cambridge Assessment English

IELTS is co-owned and jointly administered by the British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia, and Cambridge Assessment English.

Question 8: What is Writing Task 1 in IELTS Academic?

Describe and interpret visual data such as graphs, charts, or diagrams (Correct answer)
Summarise a reading passage in your own words
Write a letter to a friend or manager
Write an opinion essay of at least 250 words

Correct answer: Describe and interpret visual data such as graphs, charts, or diagrams

IELTS Academic Writing Task 1 requires describing, summarising, or explaining visual data — graphs, charts, diagrams, or maps.

Question 9: Which is a key technique in Grammar & Sentence Structure?

Minor detail in Grammar & Sentence Structure.
Technique related to Grammar & Sentence Structure.
Useful strategy for Grammar & Sentence Structure. (Correct answer)
Complex aspect of Grammar & Sentence Structure.

Correct answer: Useful strategy for Grammar & Sentence Structure.

Similar to vocabulary, a 'key technique' in grammar and sentence structure refers to a practical and effective method for improvement or application. A 'useful strategy' precisely describes such a technique, offering a direct approach to mastering or applying grammatical rules and sentence construction effectively. It provides actionable steps for learning and applying the skill.

Question 10: Passage: 'Meditation and mindfulness practices have been clinically shown to reduce symptoms of anxiety and depression, offering a low-cost, accessible complement to pharmaceutical treatments.' Sentence to complete: Clinical studies have found that mindfulness can help ___ symptoms of anxiety and depression at low cost.

increase
reduce (Correct answer)
diagnose
ignore

Correct answer: reduce

'Reduce symptoms of anxiety and depression' is used directly in the passage.

Question 11: Choose the correct heading for Paragraph B

A limited case for subsidising micro-turbines.
The environmental costs of manufacture and installation. (Correct answer)
An indirect method of reducing carbon emissions.

Correct answer: The environmental costs of manufacture and installation.

Paragraph B probably discusses the negative environmental impact associated with producing and setting up micro-turbines. This heading suggests a focus on the 'hidden' or initial ecological footprint of the technology, rather than its operational benefits, which is a common topic when evaluating new technologies.

Question 12: Which of the following best describes 'Lexical Resource' in IELTS Writing Task 2?

The number of paragraphs included in the response
The ability to write grammatically long sentences
The range, accuracy, and appropriateness of vocabulary used (Correct answer)
The correct use of punctuation throughout the essay

Correct answer: The range, accuracy, and appropriateness of vocabulary used

Lexical Resource evaluates how varied, accurate, and contextually appropriate the candidate's vocabulary choices are.

Question 13: What does 'Coherence and Cohesion' primarily measure?

Handwriting neatness
Spelling only
Number of words
Logical organisation and effective linking of ideas (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Logical organisation and effective linking of ideas

It assesses how ideas are organised and connected.

Question 14: How long should a General Training Task 1 letter be?

At least 300 words
At least 100 words
At least 250 words
At least 150 words (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least 150 words

The letter must be at least 150 words.

Question 15: You hear: 'Flights are delayed this afternoon due to fog. The 14:30 to Amsterdam has been cancelled outright. The 15:00 to Paris is delayed by two hours. All other flights are operating normally.' What is happening to the 15:00 Paris flight?

It has been cancelled
It is delayed by two hours (Correct answer)
It has been rerouted
It is operating on time

Correct answer: It is delayed by two hours

The 15:00 Paris flight is delayed by two hours, not cancelled.

Question 16: Which Part 1 answer contains the most effective use of conditionals to extend a response?

'I will read books if I can.'
'I like coffee. I drink it every day.'
'If I had more time, I'd probably read more — I used to read a lot before my workload increased.' (Correct answer)
'Reading is good if you have time.'

Correct answer: 'If I had more time, I'd probably read more — I used to read a lot before my workload increased.'

A second conditional ('If I had more time, I'd…') adds grammatical range, and the past contrast shows tense variety.

Question 17: Which Part 1 topic is LEAST likely to appear?

Advanced macroeconomic theory (Correct answer)
Leisure activities and sports
Travel and transport
Home and accommodation

Correct answer: Advanced macroeconomic theory

Part 1 focuses on personal, everyday topics; abstract or specialised academic subjects belong to Part 3.

Question 18: In Academic Writing Task 1, which skill is most heavily tested?

Summarizing and comparing data accurately (Correct answer)
Persuading the reader to agree
Writing an informal letter
Telling a personal story

Correct answer: Summarizing and comparing data accurately

Academic Task 1 tests the ability to summarize, describe, and compare visual data objectively.

Question 19: Where in a paragraph is the main idea often found to aid heading matching?

In the footnotes
Never stated explicitly
Only in the middle
Topic sentence at the start or a concluding sentence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Topic sentence at the start or a concluding sentence

Topic and concluding sentences often state the main point.

Question 20: What does a 'distractor' refer to in IELTS Listening?

A second speaker interrupting
Information that seems correct but is later corrected or contradicted (Correct answer)
An unfamiliar accent
Background noise on the recording

Correct answer: Information that seems correct but is later corrected or contradicted

A distractor is information that misleads you before the speaker gives the real answer.

Question 21: Which verb tense is most appropriate to answer: 'Do you prefer reading books or watching films?'

Simple past: 'I preferred reading books.'
Future perfect: 'I will have preferred reading books.'
Past continuous: 'I was preferring reading books.'
Simple present: 'I prefer reading books because…' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Simple present: 'I prefer reading books because…'

General preferences are expressed with the simple present tense; using the wrong tense signals grammatical weakness.

Question 22: "My first name's spelled with a 'ph', so it's Stephen." How is it spelled?

Stephen (Correct answer)
Stephan
Steven
Stefen

Correct answer: Stephen

The 'ph' spelling gives Stephen rather than Steven.

Question 23: Which sentence best expresses an approximate figure?

Sales stood at exactly 487 units.
Sales stood at roughly 500 units. (Correct answer)
Sales totalled 487 units only.
Sales were 487.3 units precisely.

Correct answer: Sales stood at roughly 500 units.

'Roughly 500' appropriately approximates the figure.

Question 24: In IELTS, if a passage says a study 'suggests' something might be true, and a statement claims it 'proves' the same thing, what is the answer?

YES — academic language often uses these interchangeably
FALSE — 'suggests' and 'proves' have different levels of certainty (Correct answer)
NOT GIVEN — the passage is unclear
TRUE — the meaning is similar enough

Correct answer: FALSE — 'suggests' and 'proves' have different levels of certainty

'Suggests' implies possibility; 'proves' implies certainty. These are different, making the statement FALSE.

Question 25: A speaker says membership is "thirteen pounds a month." What is the monthly fee?

£13 (Correct answer)
£33
£30
£3

Correct answer: £13

"Thirteen" gives a monthly fee of £13.

Question 26: Which is the correct collocation for academic writing?

a strong rain
powerful rain
a heavy rain
heavy rain (Correct answer)

Correct answer: heavy rain

'Heavy rain' is the natural, standard collocation in English.

Question 27: Which sentence uses a clause of manner correctly?

He spoke as if he know everything.
As if he spoke knew everything.
He spoke as if, he knew everything.
He spoke as if he knew everything. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: He spoke as if he knew everything.

'As if he knew everything' is a manner clause describing how he spoke.

Question 28: You hear: 'You should park on level two — not level one, which is reserved for staff.' The notes say: Visitor parking: Level ___. What should be written?

B
3
1
2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2

Level 2 is for visitors; level 1 is explicitly reserved for staff.

Question 29: Passage: 'The human body requires eight essential amino acids from dietary sources because it cannot synthesise them independently.' Sentence to complete: Since the body cannot produce the eight essential amino acids itself, they must be obtained from ___.

exercise
supplements
dietary sources (Correct answer)
sunlight

Correct answer: dietary sources

'Dietary sources' is used directly in the passage as the origin of essential amino acids.

Question 30: Which sentence best demonstrates abstract noun use in Part 3?

'The proliferation of digital media has had a profound impact on social cohesion in many societies.' (Correct answer)
'People are educated and they learn things at school.'
'School is where learning happens and students study.'
'Many things happen because of the internet.'

Correct answer: 'The proliferation of digital media has had a profound impact on social cohesion in many societies.'

Abstract nouns ('proliferation', 'social cohesion') and formal vocabulary ('profound impact') are Band 7+ lexical resource features.

Question 31: In a map-labelling task, the speaker says 'the library is opposite the cafe'. If the cafe is north, where is the library?

West
East
North
South (Correct answer)

Correct answer: South

'Opposite' the cafe in the north places the library to the south.

Question 32: Why is proofreading the final minutes of the writing test valuable?

It adds more words automatically
It catches grammar, spelling, and cohesion errors that affect the score (Correct answer)
It replaces the need for planning
It is required by examiners to be visible

Correct answer: It catches grammar, spelling, and cohesion errors that affect the score

Reviewing helps fix errors across multiple band descriptors.

Question 33: How much does each of the four IELTS Writing assessment criteria contribute to the overall writing band score?

Each of the four criteria contributes 25% equally (Correct answer)
Grammatical Range and Accuracy counts 40%, the rest share 60%
Coherence and Cohesion counts 40%, the rest share 60%
Task Achievement counts 50%, the rest share 50%

Correct answer: Each of the four criteria contributes 25% equally

All four IELTS Writing criteria — Task Achievement, Coherence/Cohesion, Lexical Resource, and Grammatical Range/Accuracy — each contribute 25% to the final writing band.

Question 34: Why are 'extreme' words like 'never' or 'always' important to notice?

They mean Not Given automatically
They can make a statement False if the text is less absolute (Correct answer)
They are always correct
They should be ignored

Correct answer: They can make a statement False if the text is less absolute

Absolute words can create a contradiction if the passage is more qualified.

Question 35: Passage: 'Traditional fishing methods are being replaced by industrial-scale trawling, which catches enormous quantities of fish but causes significant damage to the ocean floor and marine ecosystems.' Summary to complete: Industrial trawling is displacing traditional fishing, but it damages ___ ecosystems and the seabed on a large scale.

river
coastal
marine (Correct answer)
freshwater

Correct answer: marine

'Marine ecosystems' is the exact term used in the passage.

Question 36: A Task 2 prompt asks: 'What are the advantages and disadvantages of working from home?' This is:

A problem-solution essay asking for causes and remedies
A discuss both views essay requiring a personal opinion
An advantages-disadvantages essay, NOT a discussion or problem-solution essay (Correct answer)
An opinion essay requiring agreement or disagreement

Correct answer: An advantages-disadvantages essay, NOT a discussion or problem-solution essay

'Advantages and disadvantages' is a distinct essay type; it does not ask for a personal opinion or a discussion of opposing views, and has its own structure.

Question 37: You hear: 'The emergency contact number is 07891-234-567.' The form has: Emergency contact: ___. What should be written?

07891 234 576
07981 234 567
07891 234 567 (Correct answer)
07891 243 567

Correct answer: 07891 234 567

The number 07891-234-567 is stated in that exact order.

Question 38: Passage: 'The Great Barrier Reef, extending over 2,300 kilometres, is the world's largest coral reef ecosystem and is visible from outer space.' Summary to complete: Stretching more than 2,300 km, the Great Barrier Reef is the largest coral reef ___ on Earth.

structure
landmark
reserve
ecosystem (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ecosystem

'Largest coral reef ecosystem' is taken directly from the passage.

Question 39: Passage: 'Soil erosion is accelerated by deforestation, as tree roots that would otherwise anchor soil are removed, leaving it vulnerable to being washed or blown away.' Sentence to complete: Without trees, which ___ the soil with their roots, erosion occurs more rapidly through wind and rain.

compress
drain
anchor (Correct answer)
nourish

Correct answer: anchor

'Tree roots that would otherwise anchor soil' is used directly in the passage.

Question 40: A Task 2 prompt reads: 'Some people think that governments should ban fast food. Others believe people should be free to eat whatever they want. Discuss both views and give your own opinion.' What essay type does this require?

A discussion essay that presents both sides and includes the writer's opinion (Correct answer)
An advantages-disadvantages essay with no personal opinion
A problem-solution essay that identifies causes and proposes solutions
A direct opinion essay with only one viewpoint presented

Correct answer: A discussion essay that presents both sides and includes the writer's opinion

'Discuss both views and give your own opinion' is the standard instruction for a discussion essay requiring balanced treatment of both sides plus a clear personal position.

Question 41: What is the key difference between 'False' and 'Not Given'?

False is shorter to write
Not Given means the answer is True
There is no difference
False contradicts the text; Not Given has no relevant information (Correct answer)

Correct answer: False contradicts the text; Not Given has no relevant information

'False' requires a contradiction, while 'Not Given' means the information is absent.

Question 42: You hear: 'The library card number is LB-8814-C.' The form asks: Card number: ___. What should be written?

LB-8841-C
LB-8814-C (Correct answer)
LB-8814-B
LB-8814-D

Correct answer: LB-8814-C

The card number LB-8814-C is stated directly.

Question 43: You hear: 'The delivery will arrive between nine and eleven in the morning — definitely before noon.' The notes say: Delivery time: between ___ and 11 a.m. What should be written?

8
10
7
9 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 9

The speaker says 'between nine and eleven', so nine (9) fills the gap.

Question 44: Which closing matches an informal letter to a friend?

Yours sincerely,
Respectfully submitted,
Yours faithfully,
Best wishes, (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Best wishes,

'Best wishes' is a friendly, informal sign-off.

Question 45: You hear: 'Please bring photographic ID — a passport or driving licence will do.' The notes say: Required documents: photographic ___. What should be written?

licence
ID (Correct answer)
certificate
passport

Correct answer: ID

The phrase 'photographic ID' is used directly; passport and licence are just examples.

Question 46: In matching-information questions, what are you typically asked to do?

Count the sentences
Translate the paragraph
Identify the author's nationality
Find which paragraph contains a specific piece of information (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Find which paragraph contains a specific piece of information

Matching-information tasks require locating which paragraph holds a given detail or example.

Question 47: Identify the correctly structured complex sentence.

Because she was tired, so she left the meeting early.
Because she was tired, she left the meeting early. (Correct answer)
Because of she was tired, she left early.
She was tired because, she left the meeting early.

Correct answer: Because she was tired, she left the meeting early.

A subordinate clause with 'because' joins the main clause without adding 'so'.

Question 48: What is the correct adverb to pair with the verb 'increase' to show a small change?

Dramatically
Steeply
Slightly (Correct answer)
Sharply

Correct answer: Slightly

'Slightly' indicates a small degree of increase.

Question 49: Which technique helps you quickly find a specific name or date in a passage?

Skimming
Intensive reading
Scanning (Correct answer)
Translating

Correct answer: Scanning

Scanning involves moving your eyes rapidly to locate specific details like names, numbers, or dates.

Question 50: The speaker says, "The library opens at half past eight." What time does it open?

7:30
8:15
8:30 (Correct answer)
9:30

Correct answer: 8:30

"Half past eight" means thirty minutes after eight, so 8:30.

Question 51: The passage says a method 'may reduce costs'; the statement says it 'reduces costs'. This is most likely:

Not Given
False (Correct answer)
Yes
True

Correct answer: False

'May reduce' is tentative, while 'reduces' is definite, creating a contradiction.

Question 52: Which sentence correctly uses 'while' to compare two map features?

While the northern area was dominated by housing in 1990, it is now an industrial zone. (Correct answer)
While the northern area was dominated by housing in 1990, it was now an industrial zone.
While the northern area dominates by housing in 1990, it is now an industrial zone.
While the northern area is dominated by housing in 1990, it is now an industrial zone.

Correct answer: While the northern area was dominated by housing in 1990, it is now an industrial zone.

The contrast requires past tense for 1990 ('was dominated') and present tense for now ('is now'), correctly handled in option A.

Question 53: Which of the following is a common mistake that can lower a candidate's score in the conclusion of an IELTS opinion essay?

Ending with a final thought or prediction related to the topic.
Paraphrasing the thesis statement from the introduction.
Introducing a new idea or argument not previously discussed. (Correct answer)
Summarizing the main points that were discussed in the body paragraphs.

Correct answer: Introducing a new idea or argument not previously discussed.

The conclusion's purpose is to summarize the arguments and restate the opinion. Introducing new information or a new argument at this stage is a significant error because there is no opportunity to develop it, which can confuse the reader and weaken the essay's coherence.

Question 54: Why should you transfer answers carefully onto the answer sheet in the paper test?

No extra transfer time is given, and spelling/grammar errors lose marks (Correct answer)
There is extra time given just for transferring
The examiner ignores the answer sheet
Answers are graded on neatness

Correct answer: No extra transfer time is given, and spelling/grammar errors lose marks

Unlike Listening, Reading gives no extra transfer time, and misspelled answers are marked incorrect.

Question 55: Which option correctly compares the highest category in a bar chart?

Category A had the most highest value.
Category A had highest value.
Category A was more high.
Category A had the highest value. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Category A had the highest value.

'The highest value' is the correct superlative form.

Question 56: You hear: 'The event runs for two days — Saturday the 12th and Sunday the 13th.' The notes say: Event dates: Saturday 12th and ___. What should be written?

Saturday 13th
Sunday 12th
Friday 13th
Sunday 13th (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sunday 13th

The second day is Sunday the 13th.

Question 57: A problem-solution essay uses the phrase 'If governments were to introduce free public transport, carbon emissions could fall significantly.' This is an example of:

A third conditional describing a past regret
A first conditional predicting a certain outcome
A zero conditional describing a general fact
A second conditional used to propose a hypothetical solution (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A second conditional used to propose a hypothetical solution

Second conditional ('If + past simple, would/could/might + base verb') presents a hypothetical proposal — appropriate for suggesting possible solutions.

Question 58: In a lecture about noise pollution, a professor says: 'Studies show traffic noise affects not only sleep but also cardiovascular health, cognitive performance in children, AND mental wellbeing in adults.' Which THREE areas are mentioned as affected by traffic noise?

Cognitive performance, hearing loss, and sleep quality
Sleep, cardiovascular health, and cognitive performance in children (Correct answer)
Cardiovascular health, mental wellbeing, and hearing loss
Sleep, learning ability, and mental wellbeing

Correct answer: Sleep, cardiovascular health, and cognitive performance in children

The professor explicitly lists sleep, cardiovascular health, and cognitive performance in children as three areas affected.

Question 59: Which quality is LEAST relevant to scoring well in IELTS Speaking Part 3?

Using a wide range of academic and idiomatic vocabulary
Having the factually correct view on every topic (Correct answer)
Ability to sustain complex arguments over multiple sentences
Demonstrating awareness of multiple perspectives

Correct answer: Having the factually correct view on every topic

IELTS examiners do not assess factual accuracy — they assess how well candidates express and develop ideas using English, not whether the ideas are objectively correct.

Question 60: According to the text which THREE of the following conditions have been scientifically proved to have a psychological effect on humans? Choose THREE letters A—G

sunny weather (Correct answer)
rainy weather (Correct answer)
lack of counselling facilities
high serotonin levels (Correct answer)
freedom from worry
lack of negative ions
food consumption

Correct answer: sunny weather

The text provides scientific evidence for 'rainy weather' affecting mood, stating a study showed a counselling service gets more calls from people with suicidal feelings when it rains. It also mentions 'high serotonin levels' making people 'more active and reactive and, possibly, more aggressive.' Furthermore, 'sunny weather' is linked to people becoming 'less sceptical and more optimistic' in studies by psychologists. These three conditions are explicitly supported by scientific findings in the passage.

Question 61: You hear a phone number read as 'double seven, three, oh, five'. How is it written?

77305 (Correct answer)
7035
7735
773 05

Correct answer: 77305

'Double seven' is 77, then 3, 'oh' is 0, and 5, giving 77305.

Question 62: If a question says 'Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS', which answer is acceptable?

the very small dog
a small brown dog
small dog (Correct answer)
a small dog

Correct answer: small dog

'Small dog' is two words and respects the word limit, while articles and extra words break it.

Question 63: You hear: 'The workshop will run from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. Lunch is provided. Please bring a laptop, a notebook, AND your course materials. You do not need to print any handouts — these will be provided.' What should participants NOT bring?

Printed handouts (Correct answer)
A laptop
Course materials
A notebook

Correct answer: Printed handouts

The speaker explicitly says participants do not need to print handouts as they will be provided.

Question 64: You hear: 'The meeting is on the third floor, in conference room C.' The notes say: Location: 3rd floor, room ___. What should be written?

B
D
C (Correct answer)
A

Correct answer: C

Conference room C on the third floor is stated clearly.

Question 65: Which sentence uses the conditional correctly?

If I have known, I would helped.
If I had known earlier, I would have helped. (Correct answer)
If I knew earlier, I had helped.
If I would have known, I will help.

Correct answer: If I had known earlier, I would have helped.

The third conditional uses 'had + past participle' in the if-clause and 'would have + past participle' in the main clause.

Question 66: After the National Literacy Crusade, the children of the women who remained illiterate were found to be severely malnourished.

YES
NO
NOT GIVEN (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NOT GIVEN

The correct answer is NOT GIVEN because the passage does not provide specific information about the nutritional status of children whose mothers *remained illiterate* after the National Literacy Crusade. While the study might discuss the positive impacts of literacy, it doesn't necessarily detail the severe malnourishment of children in the specific group of mothers who did not become literate. This particular detail is absent from the text.

Question 67: The examiner asks: 'Where are you from?' A Band 7+ candidate should:

Recite a memorised speech about their hometown's history and landmarks.
Refuse to answer personal questions.
Say the city name only.
Name their city and add one or two natural details about what it's like or why they like it. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Name their city and add one or two natural details about what it's like or why they like it.

Providing a brief, genuine elaboration shows communicative fluency without sounding scripted.

Question 68: According to the text which THREE of the following conditions have been scientifically proved to have a psychological effect on humans? Choose THREE letters A—G

freedom from worry
food consumption
lack of negative ions
high serotonin levels (Correct answer)
sunny weather (Correct answer)
lack of counselling facilities
rainy weather (Correct answer)

Correct answer: high serotonin levels

Question 69: On which band scale are both Academic and General Training results reported?

0 to 9 (Correct answer)
1 to 100
0 to 5
1 to 10

Correct answer: 0 to 9

Both versions report scores on the same 0–9 band scale.

Question 70: What is a good final-minute strategy if time is running out?

Leave remaining questions blank
Quickly fill in best guesses for every unanswered question (Correct answer)
Reread the first passage
Erase earlier answers

Correct answer: Quickly fill in best guesses for every unanswered question

Because there is no penalty for wrong answers, filling every blank with a guess maximizes your chances.

Question 71: What is the key difference between True/False/Not Given and Yes/No/Not Given questions?

T/F/NG uses a passage; Y/N/NG uses a graph
There is no difference — they are identical
Y/N/NG is harder than T/F/NG
T/F/NG tests facts; Y/N/NG tests the writer's opinions or claims (Correct answer)

Correct answer: T/F/NG tests facts; Y/N/NG tests the writer's opinions or claims

T/F/NG tests factual information; Y/N/NG tests whether statements agree with the writer's views or claims.

Question 72: Select the correct collocation: 'She has a wide ___ of knowledge.'

row
round
range (Correct answer)
rank

Correct answer: range

'A wide range of' is the standard collocation for variety or scope.

Question 73: A student hears in a lecture: 'The placebo effect is strongest when three conditions align: the patient believes the treatment will work, the doctor shows confidence in the treatment, AND the treatment is administered in a formal clinical setting. Without all three, the effect diminishes.' How many conditions are required?

One — patient belief alone is sufficient
Three — patient belief, doctor confidence, and clinical setting (Correct answer)
Two — patient belief and doctor confidence
Four — an additional unknown condition

Correct answer: Three — patient belief, doctor confidence, and clinical setting

The lecture specifies that all three conditions — patient belief, doctor confidence, and clinical setting — must align.

Question 74: If the instruction says 'ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER', which answer is acceptable?

'1990' (Correct answer)
'the year 1990'
'around 1990s'
'in 1990'

Correct answer: '1990'

'1990' alone respects the one-word-and/or-a-number limit, whereas the others exceed it.

Question 75: Passage: 'Wind turbines generate electricity by converting the kinetic energy of moving air into mechanical energy, which is then transformed into electrical power.' Sentence to complete: Wind turbines produce electricity by first converting wind's ___ energy into mechanical energy.

thermal
solar
kinetic (Correct answer)
chemical

Correct answer: kinetic

'Kinetic energy of moving air' is used directly in the passage.

Question 76: What is the main focus of Reading Comprehension?

The main topic of Reading Comprehension.
Secondary details in Reading Comprehension.
Summary of Reading Comprehension.
Key components of Reading Comprehension. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Key components of Reading Comprehension.

Reading comprehension focuses on understanding the meaning of a text, which involves identifying its key components such as the main idea, supporting details, vocabulary, and author's purpose. It's not just about the main topic, but about grasping all essential elements to build a complete understanding. This holistic approach ensures a deep and accurate interpretation of the material.

Question 77: What does Band 7 in IELTS represent?

Competent user — generally effective command with some inaccuracies
Expert user — full operational command
Good user — handles complex language well, with occasional inaccuracies (Correct answer)
Basic user — limited understanding

Correct answer: Good user — handles complex language well, with occasional inaccuracies

Band 7 is described as a 'Good user' — generally handles complex language well with occasional errors.

Question 78: You will hear a tour guide talking about a historic building. Which specific feature is NOT mentioned as being part of the original 17th-century structure?

The glass conservatory (Correct answer)
The oak-paneled library
The stone fireplace
The main staircase

Correct answer: The glass conservatory

The tour guide explicitly states that the main staircase, the stone fireplace in the great hall, and the oak-paneled library are all original features from when the house was first built. However, they later mention, 'The beautiful glass conservatory, while a stunning addition, was actually built much later in the Victorian era.' Therefore, the conservatory is not an original feature.

Question 79: Which statement about the conclusion is correct?

It should contradict the introduction
It should align with the opinion stated in the introduction (Correct answer)
It can omit your opinion entirely
It must introduce a third body argument

Correct answer: It should align with the opinion stated in the introduction

A coherent essay keeps the conclusion consistent with the thesis stated earlier.

Question 80: The examiner asks: 'Do you think social media has had a mostly positive or negative effect on society?' A candidate says: 'It's tempting to give a clear-cut answer, but I think the reality is more complicated.' What should they say next?

Apologise for not having a clear answer.
Change topic.
Stop — they have already answered the question.
Follow through with a genuinely developed argument that explores both sides with evidence and a reasoned position. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Follow through with a genuinely developed argument that explores both sides with evidence and a reasoned position.

Acknowledging complexity sets up a high-band answer but must be followed by substantive development — the opener alone earns nothing.

Question 81: Which of the following is a common band-lowering mistake in Task 2 essay conclusions?

Using 'In conclusion' as the opening phrase
Summarising the two main points made in the body paragraphs
Restating the main argument in different words
Introducing a new argument or piece of evidence that was not discussed in the body (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Introducing a new argument or piece of evidence that was not discussed in the body

Introducing new information in the conclusion is a structural error; all arguments must be developed in the body paragraphs.

Question 82: In a Task 2 'agree or disagree' essay, what is the safest thesis approach?

Change your opinion in the conclusion
Clearly state your position in the introduction (Correct answer)
List both sides without choosing
Avoid stating any position

Correct answer: Clearly state your position in the introduction

A clear, consistent position stated early scores higher for task response.

Question 83: You hear: 'The club meets every Wednesday evening at seven o'clock in the church hall.' The notes say: Meeting venue: ___. What should be written?

community centre
church hall (Correct answer)
town hall
sports centre

Correct answer: church hall

The venue stated is 'the church hall'.

Question 84: In a problem-solution essay about youth unemployment, which is the best thesis statement?

Youth unemployment is caused by laziness and lack of skills.
Some people think youth unemployment is a problem, while others disagree.
This essay will examine the principal causes of youth unemployment and propose several measures that governments and businesses could adopt to resolve this growing issue. (Correct answer)
Youth unemployment is a big problem and this essay will talk about it.

Correct answer: This essay will examine the principal causes of youth unemployment and propose several measures that governments and businesses could adopt to resolve this growing issue.

A strong thesis clearly signals the essay's structure (causes + solutions), uses formal vocabulary, and avoids both vague language and overly simplistic claims.

Question 85: Which phrase best introduces a contrasting trend in a Task 1 line graph?

In conclusion
For example
As a result
Whereas sales of tea fell, coffee sales rose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Whereas sales of tea fell, coffee sales rose

'Whereas' signals contrast between two trends.

Question 86: Passage: 'Many ancient civilisations developed independently in river valleys because the fertile soil created by seasonal flooding enabled consistent agricultural production.' Summary to complete: River valleys attracted early civilisations due to ___ soil that supported reliable farming.

rocky
saline
fertile (Correct answer)
dry

Correct answer: fertile

'Fertile soil' is used directly in the passage.

Question 87: Below is the list of steps in the bra ft process of turning wood chips into paper, which are numbered 1-8. Decide which steps are mentioned

the chips are put into the white liquor
the pulp is washed (Correct answer)
woodchips are put into a pile
the chips are cooked
the pulp is removed from the black liquor
the fibres are bound by lignin
the pulp is bleached
the pulp is dried

Correct answer: the pulp is washed

The correct answer is H) the pulp is washed. Within the passage's explanation of the 'bra ft process,' it would be mentioned that after the cooking and separation stages, the pulp undergoes washing. This step is essential to remove residual chemicals and impurities before further processing into paper.

Question 88: A speaker says 'the lecture is in Room B12, that's B as in Bravo, one, two'. What is the room?

B20
P12
B12 (Correct answer)
D12

Correct answer: B12

The clarification 'B as in Bravo' confirms the room is B12.

Question 89: Passage: 'Noise pollution from traffic and industry has been linked to elevated blood pressure, sleep disturbance, and increased levels of stress hormones in urban residents.' Summary to complete: Urban noise from traffic and industry can raise blood pressure, disrupt sleep, and increase ___ hormones.

immune
digestive
growth
stress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: stress

'Increased levels of stress hormones' is used directly in the passage.

Question 90: Which sentence best paraphrases the task instruction 'Describe what the maps show' in your introduction?

The two maps show what happened.
The two maps illustrate the changes that took place in the town between 1980 and 2020. (Correct answer)
I am going to describe the two maps below.
The maps are about a town.

Correct answer: The two maps illustrate the changes that took place in the town between 1980 and 2020.

A good introduction paraphrases the task using varied vocabulary ('illustrate', 'changes that took place') and includes the specific time frame.

Question 91: A speaker says the temperature will reach "minus five degrees tonight." What is the temperature?

-15°
5°
-5° (Correct answer)
-50°

Correct answer: -5°

"Minus five" means -5 degrees.

Question 92: You hear: 'The fire exit is NOT behind the stage. It is on the west wall, between the storeroom and the main entrance.' On a simple floor plan, where should you mark the fire exit?

On the north wall opposite the stage
Behind the stage on the east side
Adjacent to the main entrance on the east wall
On the west wall, between the storeroom and main entrance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: On the west wall, between the storeroom and main entrance

The speaker explicitly corrects a misconception and places the fire exit on the west wall between the storeroom and the main entrance.

Question 93: You hear 'approximately a quarter of the students passed'. What proportion is that?

About 50%
About 75%
About 40%
About 25% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: About 25%

A quarter equals roughly 25 percent.

Question 94: Which of these is NOT a recommended technique?

Underlining keywords
Using outside knowledge to decide (Correct answer)
Checking for synonyms
Reading questions before scanning

Correct answer: Using outside knowledge to decide

Using outside knowledge is discouraged; answers must come from the text.

Question 95: Select the sentence using countable and uncountable nouns correctly.

There is little informations and few detail available.
There is few information and little details available.
There is little information and few details available. (Correct answer)
There are little information and few details available.

Correct answer: There is little information and few details available.

'Information' is uncountable (little), while 'details' is countable (few).

Question 96: For what period of time has hearing loss in schoolchildren been studied in New Zealand?

decades
three decades
two decades (Correct answer)

Correct answer: two decades

The passage explicitly states that research or study into hearing loss among schoolchildren in New Zealand has been ongoing for 'two decades.' This timeframe indicates the duration of the focus or investigation into this specific issue within the country's educational and health sectors.

Question 97: Why should you avoid contractions like 'don't' in Task 2?

They add to your word count
They are required in conclusions
They improve grammar accuracy
They are too informal for academic writing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They are too informal for academic writing

Academic register favors full forms such as 'do not' over contractions.

Question 98: Which word is closest in meaning to 'alleviate'?

Increase
Ignore
Worsen
Relieve (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Relieve

'Alleviate' means to make pain or a problem less severe.

Question 99: What does an inference question ask you to do?

Draw a logical conclusion that is implied but not directly stated (Correct answer)
Identify spelling errors
Copy a sentence exactly
Count words

Correct answer: Draw a logical conclusion that is implied but not directly stated

Inference questions require reasoning from implied meaning rather than explicit statements.

Question 100: You hear: 'The supervisor's email is j.harrison@cityuni.ac.uk.' The notes say: Supervisor email: ___. What should be written?

j.harrison@cityuni.ac.uk (Correct answer)
j.harrison@cityuni.edu
j.harrisson@cityuni.ac.uk
j.harrison@cityuniv.ac.uk

Correct answer: j.harrison@cityuni.ac.uk

The email is stated clearly; common traps include double letters or wrong domains.

Question 101: A Task 2 prompt states: 'Many people think that social media has had a largely negative effect on society. To what extent do you agree or disagree?' This requires:

An opinion essay in which the writer clearly states and defends their position (Correct answer)
A discussion essay presenting both sides equally without a personal view
An advantages-disadvantages essay with no personal conclusion
A problem-solution essay outlining causes and remedies

Correct answer: An opinion essay in which the writer clearly states and defends their position

'To what extent do you agree or disagree?' explicitly requests the writer's personal stance and degree of agreement, making this an opinion essay.

Question 102: Map task: 'Stand at the fountain and face the clocktower. The museum is on your left, the library is on your right, and the town hall is behind you.' A tourist at the fountain, facing the clocktower, wants the library. Which direction should they turn?

Turn right (Correct answer)
Turn left
Go straight ahead toward the clocktower
Turn around

Correct answer: Turn right

With the clocktower ahead, the library is on the right.

Question 103: Roughly how much of your 60-minute Writing test should be spent on Task 2?

About 10 minutes
About 20 minutes
About 60 minutes
About 40 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: About 40 minutes

Task 2 is worth twice as much as Task 1, so allow around 40 minutes for it.

Question 104: Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 3? Serotonin is an essential cause of human aggression.

FALSE (Correct answer)
TRUE
NOT GIVEN

Correct answer: FALSE

The text states that high levels of serotonin 'make people more active and reactive and, possibly, more aggressive.' The use of the word 'possibly' indicates that serotonin is not an *essential cause* but rather a potential contributing factor to aggression. The statement makes a definitive claim that is not fully supported by the cautious language in the passage.

Question 105: What is the recommended time to spend on Task 1?

20 minutes (Correct answer)
40 minutes
10 minutes
30 minutes

Correct answer: 20 minutes

About 20 minutes is advised, leaving 40 for Task 2.

Question 106: What is the best first step when you encounter an unfamiliar word in a passage?

Stop reading immediately
Use surrounding context to infer its likely meaning (Correct answer)
Skip the whole paragraph
Look it up in a dictionary

Correct answer: Use surrounding context to infer its likely meaning

Context clues from nearby sentences usually reveal enough meaning to continue effectively.

Question 107: What is the best response if the examiner says 'stop' before you feel finished?

Ask to restart the topic
Keep talking until you finish
Stop immediately and calmly (Correct answer)
Refuse and continue louder

Correct answer: Stop immediately and calmly

When the examiner signals time is up, you should stop promptly without protest.

Question 108: Which collocation is correct?

make a research
make research
do research (Correct answer)
doing a research

Correct answer: do research

In English we 'do research'; 'research' is uncountable and takes 'do'.

Question 109: A guide says the tour lasts "about an hour and a quarter." How long is it?

90 minutes
75 minutes (Correct answer)
60 minutes
45 minutes

Correct answer: 75 minutes

An hour and a quarter is 60 + 15 = 75 minutes.

Question 110: In an IELTS Reading 'Matching Headings' task, what is the primary skill being tested?

Recognizing the author's opinion or bias.
Identifying specific details and dates within a paragraph.
Defining vocabulary words found in the text.
Understanding the main idea or topic of a paragraph. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Understanding the main idea or topic of a paragraph.

The 'Matching Headings' task is designed to assess a test taker's ability to identify the central theme or main idea of a paragraph and distinguish it from supporting details. Each heading represents a summary of a paragraph.

Question 111: In a 'discuss both views and give your opinion' essay, where should the writer's opinion typically appear?

Only in the conclusion, so as not to bias the discussion
In the introduction as part of the thesis and reiterated in the conclusion (Correct answer)
In a separate paragraph between the two body paragraphs
Never — the writer should remain neutral throughout

Correct answer: In the introduction as part of the thesis and reiterated in the conclusion

Stating your opinion in the thesis and reaffirming it in the conclusion ensures Task Achievement and gives the essay clear direction.

Question 112: Which sentence correctly uses 'compared to'?

Exports doubled compare to imports.
Exports doubled compared to imports. (Correct answer)
Exports doubled comparing imports.
Exports doubled compared with the more than imports.

Correct answer: Exports doubled compared to imports.

'Compared to imports' is grammatically correct.

Question 113: Passage: 'Dietary fibre is essential for digestive health, feeding beneficial gut bacteria and helping to regulate bowel movements, thereby reducing the risk of conditions such as colorectal cancer.' Sentence to complete: Eating enough fibre supports gut health by nourishing helpful bacteria and lowering the risk of ___ cancer.

colorectal (Correct answer)
lung
skin
breast

Correct answer: colorectal

The passage specifically names colorectal cancer as the condition fibre helps prevent.

Question 114: You hear: 'The workshop is in room 3B — on the ground floor, not the third floor.' The notes say: Room: ___. What should be written?

B3
3rd floor
3B (Correct answer)
Ground floor

Correct answer: 3B

The room number is 3B; the mention of 'third floor' is what it is NOT on.

Question 115: Which linking word best introduces a contrasting idea?

Moreover
However (Correct answer)
Furthermore
Therefore

Correct answer: However

'However' signals contrast, while the others add or conclude.

Question 116: In our attic, my dad made the decision to ____ the ants.\t

frustrate\t
reduce\t
relocate\t
eradicate\t (Correct answer)

Correct answer: eradicate\t

To 'eradicate' means to destroy completely or put an end to something, especially something undesirable. In the context of ants in an attic, the goal is typically to get rid of them entirely. The other options like 'relocate,' 'frustrate,' or 'reduce' do not convey the same sense of complete removal or destruction as 'eradicate' does for a pest problem.

Question 117: A passage says: 'Solar panels were first used commercially in the 1950s.' The statement reads: 'Commercial use of solar panels began in the twentieth century.' What is the answer?

TRUE (Correct answer)
NOT GIVEN
FALSE
CANNOT SAY

Correct answer: TRUE

The 1950s falls within the twentieth century, so the statement is confirmed by the passage — TRUE.

Question 118: Which skill helps most with correctly identifying the NOT GIVEN option in T/F/NG questions?

Using context clues to predict meaning
Careful comparison of what the passage addresses vs what the statement claims (Correct answer)
Fast reading for the main idea
Understanding complex grammar in the passage

Correct answer: Careful comparison of what the passage addresses vs what the statement claims

Careful comparison of passage coverage against statement scope is key to correctly identifying NOT GIVEN.

Question 119: Passage: 'Public libraries have evolved beyond mere book repositories to become community hubs offering digital access, learning programmes, and social services for all ages.' Sentence to complete: Modern libraries serve as community ___, providing digital access and services beyond simply lending books.

institutions
hubs (Correct answer)
centres
archives

Correct answer: hubs

'Community hubs' is used directly in the passage.

Question 120: What is the best mindset for True/False/Not Given questions?

Assume statements are usually true
Treat each statement as a claim to test against the text (Correct answer)
Answer Not Given when unsure every time
Guess randomly to save time

Correct answer: Treat each statement as a claim to test against the text

Each statement should be objectively tested against what the passage actually says.

International English Language Testing System (IELTS)

IELTS is an international standardized test of English language proficiency for non-native English language speakers.

120

Questions

165 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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