HESI Admission Assessment (A2) Exam â Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which of the following is not a property of water?
- High surface tension
- High boiling point compared to other hydrogen compounds
- Can absorb/release large quantities of heat without large temperature change.
- Density of liquid form is less than solid form (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Density of liquid form is less than solid form
The correct answer is that the density of liquid water is *greater* than its solid form (ice), which is an unusual property. Most substances become denser when they solidify. Water's unique hydrogen bonding causes ice to form an open, crystalline structure that is less dense than liquid water, allowing ice to float.
Question 2: Which valve is in charge of stopping blood from flowing backward from the right ventricle to the right atrium?
- Pulmonary valve
- Semilunar valve
- Mitral valve
- Tricuspid valve (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Tricuspid valve
The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle of the heart. Its essential function is to prevent the backflow of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium when the ventricle contracts. This ensures that blood flows in the correct direction towards the pulmonary artery.
Question 3: A reader encounters an unfamiliar word but understands it from the surrounding sentence. The reader used:
- A glossary index
- Context clues (Correct answer)
- The title only
- The page number
Correct answer: Context clues
Determining meaning from surrounding text is the use of context clues.
Question 4: Which of the following causes cramps during strenuous exercise?
- Glucose
- Lactate (Correct answer)
- Pyruvate
- Protein
Correct answer: Lactate
During strenuous exercise, when oxygen supply to muscles is insufficient, cells switch to anaerobic respiration, producing lactate (lactic acid) as a byproduct. While lactate itself is not the direct cause of cramps, its accumulation and the associated drop in pH within muscle cells contribute to muscle fatigue, soreness, and can play a role in the sensation of cramping.
Question 5: What is the best definition of the word dichotomy?
- Truncation
- Achievement
- Trepidation
- Division (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Division
Dichotomy refers to a division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed or entirely different. It highlights a sharp separation or contrast between two distinct parts, ideas, or categories. For example, the dichotomy between good and evil.
Question 6: There are 200 ounces in 6 liters. How many milliliters (ml) are in 6 liters? (Enter numerical value only).
- 60,000 milliliters
- 6,100 milliliters
- 6 milliliters
- 6,000 milliliters (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 6,000 milliliters
To convert liters to milliliters, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 liter (L) is equal to 1,000 milliliters (ml). Therefore, to find the milliliters in 6 liters, you multiply 6 by 1,000. This calculation yields 6,000 milliliters.
Question 7: Solve the equation for m: 2m + 1 = -3m - 1
- -5\/2
- 0
- 2\/5
- -2\/5 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: -2\/5
To solve the equation 2m + 1 = -3m - 1 for m, first gather all terms with 'm' on one side and constant terms on the other. Add 3m to both sides to get 5m + 1 = -1. Next, subtract 1 from both sides, resulting in 5m = -2. Finally, divide both sides by 5 to isolate m, which gives m = -2/5.
Question 8: What is the longest muscle in the human body?
- Vastus lateralis
- Vastus medialis
- Adductor longus
- Sartorius (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sartorius
The sartorius muscle is indeed the longest muscle in the human body. It is a long, thin, superficial muscle that runs obliquely down the length of the thigh, from the hip to the medial side of the knee. It plays a role in various movements of the hip and knee, including flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation.
Question 9: Citric acid is found in lemon juice. Which of the following pH levels is most likely for lemon juice?
- 7
- 2 (Correct answer)
- 9
- 15
Correct answer: 2
Citric acid is a common acid found in citrus fruits like lemons. Acids are characterized by a pH value less than 7, with stronger acids having lower pH values. Lemon juice is known to be quite acidic, making a pH of 2 the most appropriate choice among the given options for a highly acidic substance.
Question 10: Which statement best reflects the critical thinking concept of intellectual humility in nursing practice?
- I have enough experience that I rarely need to look things up anymore.
- I recognize the limits of my knowledge and actively seek information when uncertain. (Correct answer)
- I follow the protocols exactly as written, regardless of the clinical situation.
- I trust my instincts over textbook knowledge because every patient is different.
Correct answer: I recognize the limits of my knowledge and actively seek information when uncertain.
Intellectual humility means acknowledging the limits of one's knowledge and being willing to seek additional information â a core critical thinking disposition.
Question 11: A solution that contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute is said to be what?
- Unsaturated
- Concentrated
- Saturated (Correct answer)
- Dilute
Correct answer: Saturated
A saturated solution contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a specific temperature. At this point, no more solute can dissolve, and any additional solute added will typically remain undissolved or precipitate out. This state represents an equilibrium between dissolved and undissolved solute.
Question 12: What is the correct way to write the missing words in this sentence? Cara chose to study Jupiter, Saturn, ____ for her science project.
- Neptune, and the Sun (Correct answer)
- Neptune, and The Sun
- neptune, and the sun
- Neptune, and the sun
Correct answer: Neptune, and the Sun
Planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune) are proper nouns and must always be capitalized. Additionally, 'Sun' is capitalized when referring to our specific star, especially when listed alongside other celestial bodies in an astronomical context. The conjunction 'and' and the article 'the' are not capitalized in this list.
Question 13: What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean?
- Around or surrounding
- Above or excessive (Correct answer)
- Under or below normal
- Between or among
Correct answer: Above or excessive
'Hyper-' means above or excessive, as in hypertension (high blood pressure).
Question 14: The word 'bilateral' means:
- On both sides of the body (Correct answer)
- On the back of the body
- On one side of the body
- On the front of the body
Correct answer: On both sides of the body
'Bilateral' means pertaining to or affecting both sides, from 'bi' (two) and 'lateral' (side).
Question 15: Which organelle is the primary site of ATP production in eukaryotic cells?
- Lysosome
- Mitochondria (Correct answer)
- Ribosome
- Golgi apparatus
Correct answer: Mitochondria
Mitochondria generate most cellular ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
Question 16: What does -COOH mean?
- Carboxyl group (Correct answer)
- Carbonyl group
- Hydroxyl group
- Amino group
Correct answer: Carboxyl group
The functional group -COOH represents a carboxyl group. This group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to one oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl (-OH) group. Carboxyl groups are characteristic of organic acids, such as carboxylic acids, and play a crucial role in many biological molecules.
Question 17: Which of the following is the best definition of an author's 'tone'?
- The author's attitude toward the subject (Correct answer)
- The main idea of the text
- The number of supporting details
- The sequence of events
Correct answer: The author's attitude toward the subject
Tone refers to the writer's attitude or emotional stance toward the topic.
Question 18: A passage states: 'The pediatric nurse must consider developmental stages when assessing pain. Neonates may exhibit facial grimacing and increased heart rate. Toddlers may cry and cling to caregivers. School-age children can often use numeric pain scales.' Which statement best summarizes the passage?
- Pain assessment in children must be adapted to developmental level (Correct answer)
- School-age children are the most reliable reporters of pain
- Pain assessment tools are the same across all age groups
- Neonates experience more pain than older children
Correct answer: Pain assessment in children must be adapted to developmental level
The passage demonstrates that different age groups express pain differently, requiring developmentally appropriate assessment approaches.
Question 19: Which statement reflects sound clinical judgment when data conflict?
- Average the numbers
- Pick the first value seen
- Ignore both values
- Reassess to clarify the discrepancy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reassess to clarify the discrepancy
Conflicting data should prompt reassessment for accuracy.
Question 20: Which word is spelled correctly?
- receive (Correct answer)
- receve
- recieve
- receeve
Correct answer: receive
Following the "i before e except after c" rule, "receive" is correct.
Question 21: To what does the word salpingo refer?
- A tube (Correct answer)
- The spleen
- A bone
- An artery
Correct answer: A tube
The prefix 'salpingo-' is derived from the Greek word 'salpinx,' meaning 'trumpet' or 'tube.' In medical terminology, it specifically refers to a tube, most commonly the fallopian tube (e.g., salpingectomy for removal of a fallopian tube) or sometimes the Eustachian tube.
Question 22: Based on a passage: 'Nurse practitioners (NPs) have prescriptive authority in all 50 states, though scope of practice varies. In full-practice states, NPs can evaluate, diagnose, and treat patients independently. In restricted-practice states, NPs must maintain a collaborative agreement with a physician.' What is the main idea of this passage?
- NP prescriptive authority exists nationwide but practice scope varies by state (Correct answer)
- Full-practice states have better healthcare than restricted-practice states
- Nurse practitioners should have full practice authority everywhere
- Physician collaboration improves patient outcomes
Correct answer: NP prescriptive authority exists nationwide but practice scope varies by state
The main idea summarizes the central point: NPs have prescriptive authority everywhere, but the scope of independent practice varies by state regulation.
Question 23: Which type of bond forms when electrons are transferred from a metal to a nonmetal?
- Ionic (Correct answer)
- Covalent
- Metallic
- Hydrogen
Correct answer: Ionic
Ionic bonds form when electrons transfer from a metal to a nonmetal, creating charged ions.
Question 24: In a passage about wound healing: 'The inflammatory phase, lasting 1-6 days, involves vascular response and cellular defense. Subsequently, the proliferative phase spans days 3-21, characterized by granulation tissue formation. Finally, the maturation phase may continue for up to 2 years.' What organizational pattern does this passage use?
- Problem and solution
- Cause and effect
- Chronological/sequential order (Correct answer)
- Compare and contrast
Correct answer: Chronological/sequential order
The passage organizes information in time-based sequential order, using temporal markers like 'subsequently' and 'finally' to describe phases in order.
Question 25: Which type of joint allows the greatest range of motion in multiple directions?
- Ball-and-socket joint (Correct answer)
- Hinge joint
- Pivot joint
- Saddle joint
Correct answer: Ball-and-socket joint
Ball-and-socket joints, such as the hip and shoulder, allow movement in multiple planes including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation, making them the most mobile joint type in the body.
Question 26: The change in state from a gas to liquid is called what?
- Evaporation
- Condensation (Correct answer)
- Vaporization
- Disposition
Correct answer: Condensation
Condensation is the process where a substance changes its physical state from a gas to a liquid. This occurs when gas particles lose enough thermal energy to slow down and come closer together, allowing intermolecular forces to pull them into a liquid form. A common example is water vapor turning into liquid water droplets, forming clouds or dew.
Question 27: What part of the cell regulates what enters and leaves the cell?
- Cell membrane (Correct answer)
- Nucleus
- Cytoplasm
- Cell wall
Correct answer: Cell membrane
The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, acts as a selectively permeable barrier that encloses the cell's contents. Its critical function is to control which substances can enter and exit the cell, thereby maintaining the cell's internal environment and facilitating communication with its surroundings.
Question 28: Which strategy is best when encountering an unfamiliar word?
- Guess its meaning randomly
- Look at surrounding words for clues (Correct answer)
- Ignore it if itâs not a noun
- Skip the word entirely
Correct answer: Look at surrounding words for clues
When encountering an unfamiliar word, the most effective strategy is to use context clues by looking at the surrounding words, sentences, and paragraphs. These clues often provide definitions, synonyms, antonyms, or examples that help readers deduce the word's meaning without interrupting their reading flow. This approach enhances comprehension and vocabulary development.
Question 29: Convert 250 milliliters to litters
- 2.5 L
- 25L
- 250000L
- 0.25L (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.25L
To convert milliliters (mL) to liters (L), you must divide the milliliter value by 1000, as there are 1000 milliliters in 1 liter. Therefore, 250 mL divided by 1000 equals 0.25 L.
Question 30: What is the atomic number of an element determined by?
- Atomic mass
- Number of electrons plus neutrons
- Number of neutrons
- Number of protons (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Number of protons
The atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom's nucleus.
Question 31: Which organ system is primarily responsible for transporting nutrients and oxygen?
- Excretory system
- Digestive system
- Circulatory system (Correct answer)
- Respiratory system
Correct answer: Circulatory system
The circulatory system, composed of the heart, blood vessels, and blood, is specifically designed to transport essential substances throughout the body. Its primary role is to deliver oxygen and nutrients to all cells and remove metabolic waste products like carbon dioxide, ensuring proper cellular function.
Question 32: Which sentence uses the apostrophe correctly?
- The patients' chart's are updated.
- The patient's' chart is updated.
- The patients chart is updated.
- The patient's chart is updated. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The patient's chart is updated.
A singular possessive adds apostrophe + s, so "patient's" is correct.
Question 33: What is the role of the cell membrane's phospholipid bilayer?
- Regulating what enters and exits the cell (Correct answer)
- Storing genetic information
- Producing proteins
- Generating ATP
Correct answer: Regulating what enters and exits the cell
The selectively permeable bilayer controls movement of substances in and out.
Question 34: Viscosity increases in what circumstance?
- Temperature increase
- When carbon is introduced
- Temperature decrease (Correct answer)
- Noneâviscosity is constant
Correct answer: Temperature decrease
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. When temperature decreases, the kinetic energy of the fluid's particles also decreases, causing them to move slower and experience stronger intermolecular forces. This increased resistance to movement among particles leads to an increase in the fluid's viscosity.
Question 35: How far does a runner run (in kilometers) in a 1,000 meter race?
- 0.10 km
- 1 km (Correct answer)
- 3 km
- 1\/2 km
Correct answer: 1 km
To convert meters to kilometers, you need to know that 1 kilometer (km) is equal to 1,000 meters (m). Therefore, to find how many kilometers are in a 1,000-meter race, you divide 1,000 by 1,000. This calculation results in 1 kilometer.
Question 36: Which of the following best describes a hypertonic solution relative to a cell?
- Equal solute concentration, no net water movement
- No solutes present in the solution
- Lower solute concentration outside, cell swells
- Higher solute concentration outside, water leaves the cell (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Higher solute concentration outside, water leaves the cell
In a hypertonic environment water moves out, causing the cell to shrink.
Question 37: What's the connection between sarcomeres, myofibrils, and muscle cells?
- Sarcomeres are found in muscle cells, which are made up of myofibrils.
- Sarcomeres include muscle cells, which are composed of sarcomeres.
- Sarcomeres, which are made up of muscle cells, are found in myofibrils.
- Muscle cells include myofibrils, which are composed of sarcomeres. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Muscle cells include myofibrils, which are composed of sarcomeres.
Muscle cells, also known as muscle fibers, are the basic units of muscle tissue. Within these cells are numerous rod-like structures called myofibrils, which are responsible for muscle contraction. Myofibrils, in turn, are composed of repeating functional units called sarcomeres, which are the smallest contractile units of a muscle.
Question 38: What does 'pneumo-' refer to?
- Blood
- Lung or air (Correct answer)
- Kidney
- Heart
Correct answer: Lung or air
'Pneumo-' refers to lung or air, as in pneumonia (lung infection) or pneumothorax (air in the chest cavity).
Question 39: Where is the pyloric sphincter located?
- Between the stomach and small intestine (Correct answer)
- Between the esophagus and stomach
- Between the rectum and anus
- Between the small and large intestine
Correct answer: Between the stomach and small intestine
The pyloric sphincter is a ring of smooth muscle located at the distal end of the stomach, specifically at the junction where the stomach connects to the first part of the small intestine, called the duodenum. Its primary function is to regulate the flow of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the small intestine, preventing rapid emptying and allowing for proper digestion.
Question 40: Write 1,763 as a Roman numeral
- MDCCLXIII (Correct answer)
- MDCCLII
- \tMCDXXXVI
- MDCCLXII
Correct answer: MDCCLXIII
To write 1,763 as a Roman numeral, break down the number by place value. M represents 1000, DCC represents 700 (500 + 100 + 100), LX represents 60 (50 + 10), and III represents 3 (1 + 1 + 1). Combining these, 1,763 becomes MDCCLXIII.
Question 41: A passage reads: 'While antibiotics have saved countless lives since their discovery, their overuse has led to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria such as MRSA. Public health experts warn that without significant changes in prescribing practices, we may enter a post-antibiotic era.' The tone of this passage is best described as:
- Neutral and indifferent
- Hostile and accusatory
- Cautionary and concerned (Correct answer)
- Optimistic and encouraging
Correct answer: Cautionary and concerned
The passage acknowledges benefits but emphasizes risks with warning language ('warn,' 'post-antibiotic era'), creating a cautionary and concerned tone.
Question 42: Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.
- I studied hard, however, I failed.
- I studied hard; however, I failed. (Correct answer)
- I studied hard, however I failed.
- I studied hard however, I failed.
Correct answer: I studied hard; however, I failed.
A semicolon before and comma after "however" correctly joins two independent clauses.
Question 43: Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
- Hydrogen bond
- Covalent bond (Correct answer)
- Ionic bond
- Metallic bond
Correct answer: Covalent bond
Covalent bonds form when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons, typically occurring between nonmetal elements.
Question 44: Kath's car went from 0 to 60 miles per hour in 2.5 seconds. What was the car's rate of acceleration?
- -26 m/s²
- 0 m/s²
- 25 m/s²
- 24 m/s² (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 24 m/s²
Acceleration is calculated as the change in velocity divided by the time taken. If we assume the question intended for the final velocity to be 60 m/s (as 60 mph is approximately 26.82 m/s), then dividing 60 m/s by 2.5 seconds gives an acceleration of 24 m/s². This calculation aligns with the provided correct answer, suggesting a potential simplification or unit interpretation in the question.
Question 45: What is the speed of sound in a vacuum?
- 0 m/s (Correct answer)
- 331.4 m/s
- 222 m/s
- 25 m/s
Correct answer: 0 m/s
Sound waves are mechanical waves, meaning they require a medium (like air, water, or solids) to propagate. They travel by vibrating particles within that medium, transmitting energy. In a vacuum, there are no particles to vibrate, so sound cannot travel, and its speed is therefore 0 m/s.
Question 46: Which macromolecule serves as the primary long-term energy storage molecule in animals?
- Starch
- Cellulose
- Glycogen
- Triglycerides (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Triglycerides
Triglycerides (fats) are the primary long-term energy storage molecules in animals, storing more energy per gram than carbohydrates.
Question 47: A quantity that describes the rate at which an object's position changes over time and must be represented in both magnitude and direction of motion.
- Scalar Quantity
- Acceleration
- Vector quantity (Correct answer)
- Average Velocity
Correct answer: Vector quantity
A vector quantity is a physical quantity that requires both magnitude (size) and direction for its complete description. The definition provided, 'rate at which an object's position changes over time and must be represented in both magnitude and direction of motion,' perfectly describes a vector quantity, such as velocity or acceleration.
Question 48: Which type of chemical bond is formed when two nonmetal atoms share electrons equally?
- Metallic bond
- Polar covalent bond
- Nonpolar covalent bond (Correct answer)
- Ionic bond
Correct answer: Nonpolar covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond forms when electrons are shared equally between two atoms of the same or similar electronegativity, as seen in molecules like Oâ or Nâ.
Question 49: When a care plan states a patient is 'ambulatory,' it means the patient is:
- Confined to bed rest
- Scheduled for surgery
- Able to walk (Correct answer)
- Receiving intravenous fluids
Correct answer: Able to walk
'Ambulatory' derives from the Latin 'ambulare,' meaning to walk. An ambulatory patient is capable of walking and does not require a stretcher or bed transport.
Question 50: Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels and the gastrointestinal tract?
- Striated voluntary muscle
- Cardiac muscle
- Skeletal muscle
- Smooth muscle (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Smooth muscle
Smooth muscle is involuntary, non-striated muscle found in the walls of hollow organs including blood vessels, the GI tract, bladder, and uterus.
Question 51: 27 students attended a HESI session in the Math Lab if 8 out of 11 were females, how many were male? (Round to a whole number)
- 3 males
- 7 males (Correct answer)
- 15
- 17
Correct answer: 7 males
First, determine the proportion of male students. If 8 out of 11 students were females, then 11 - 8 = 3 out of 11 students were males. To find the number of male students, multiply this proportion by the total number of students: (3/11) * 27. This calculation yields 81/11, which is approximately 7.36. Rounding to the nearest whole number, there were 7 male students.
Question 52: What type of bond holds the two strands of a DNA double helix together?
- Peptide bonds
- Covalent bonds between strands
- Hydrogen bonds (Correct answer)
- Ionic bonds
Correct answer: Hydrogen bonds
Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs hold the two DNA strands together.
Question 53: What process do plants use to make their own food?
- Digestion
- Photosynthesis (Correct answer)
- Fermentation
- Respiration
Correct answer: Photosynthesis
Photosynthesis is the fundamental process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose. This vital process uses carbon dioxide and water to produce sugars for food and releases oxygen as a byproduct, forming the basis of most food webs.
Question 54: Which of the following is the best definition of the word illustrious?
- eminent (Correct answer)
- tarnished
- vain
- shiny
Correct answer: eminent
The word 'illustrious' means well known, respected, and admired for past achievements. It describes someone or something famous and distinguished, often due to their accomplishments or reputation. Therefore, 'eminent' is the closest synonym, as it also refers to someone prominent and highly regarded.
Question 55: Which of the following states of matter has a definite volume?
- Liquid and solid (Correct answer)
- Gas and liquid
- Gas, liquid, and volume
- Gas and solid
Correct answer: Liquid and solid
Solids have a definite shape and a definite volume because their particles are tightly packed in fixed positions. Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of their container, as their particles are close but can move past each other. Gases, however, have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, expanding to fill any container.
Question 56: What does 'cardio-' mean?
- Heart (Correct answer)
- Lung
- Brain
- Blood
Correct answer: Heart
'Cardio-' refers to the heart, as in cardiology (study of the heart) and cardiovascular (heart and blood vessels).
Question 57: During meiosis, genetic diversity is increased by the exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes. What is this process called?
- Crossing over (Correct answer)
- Cytokinesis
- Nondisjunction
- Independent assortment
Correct answer: Crossing over
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material at points called chiasmata.
Question 58: Which structure contains the genetic material in a eukaryotic cell?
- Nucleus (Correct answer)
- Cytoplasm
- Cell wall
- Vacuole
Correct answer: Nucleus
The nucleus houses and protects the cell's DNA.
Question 59: What is the correct answer for MDCXLIV?
- 1644 (Correct answer)
- 1554
- 1544
- 1654
Correct answer: 1644
To convert the Roman numeral MDCXLIV to a number, break it down by value. M is 1000, D is 500, C is 100. XL is 40 (50-10, as X comes before L), and IV is 4 (5-1, as I comes before V). Adding these values together: 1000 + 500 + 100 + 40 + 4 equals 1644.
Question 60: The prefix 'arthr-' refers to:
- Joints (Correct answer)
- Nerves
- Blood vessels
- Muscles
Correct answer: Joints
'Arthr-' means joint, as in arthritis (inflammation of joints) or arthroscopy (visual examination of a joint).
Question 61: What is the frequency of a wave in a string that moves at 52 m/s and has a wavelength of 0.65 m?
- 0.0125 Hz
- 12.5 Hz
- 80 Hz (Correct answer)
- 65 Hz
Correct answer: 80 Hz
The relationship between wave speed (v), frequency (f), and wavelength (Îť) is given by the formula v = f * Îť. To find the frequency, rearrange the formula to f = v / Îť. Plugging in the given values, f = 52 m/s / 0.65 m = 80 Hz.
Question 62: The word 'prognosis' refers to:
- The predicted outcome of a disease (Correct answer)
- The cause of a disease
- The prevention of a disease
- The identification of a disease
Correct answer: The predicted outcome of a disease
'Prognosis' refers to the predicted course and outcome of a disease or condition, including the chance of recovery.
Question 63: Which of the following is the best definition of the word incongruent?
- Incompatible (Correct answer)
- Discouraged
- Discontented
- Sinister
Correct answer: Incompatible
The word 'incongruent' means not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. It describes things that are inconsistent, unsuitable, or do not fit well together. Therefore, 'incompatible' is the best definition, as it signifies a lack of suitability or agreement between things.
Question 64: Convert the fraction into decimals 7\/4=175% (Enter numerical value only).
- 1.75 (Correct answer)
- .175
- 175
- 17.5
Correct answer: 1.75
To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator. For the fraction 7/4, divide 7 by 4. The result of this division is 1.75. (The 175% is the decimal multiplied by 100, indicating the percentage equivalent).
Question 65: What is the author's purpose if a passage informs the reader?
- To entertain
- To inform (Correct answer)
- To persuade
- To describe a product
Correct answer: To inform
If a passage primarily presents facts, explanations, or instructions without attempting to sway opinion or evoke strong emotions, the author's purpose is to inform. This purpose aims to educate the reader by providing objective data, explaining concepts, or describing events. Recognizing the author's purpose helps readers understand the text's intent and interpret its content appropriately.
Question 66: Two atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called:
- Ions
- Allotropes
- Isotopes (Correct answer)
- Isomers
Correct answer: Isotopes
Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same atomic number/protons) that differ in their number of neutrons, giving them different mass numbers.
Question 67: Which question best helps a reader identify an author's purpose?
- What font is used?
- When was the paper printed?
- Why did the author write this? (Correct answer)
- How many words are in the passage?
Correct answer: Why did the author write this?
Asking why the author wrote the text reveals the purpose: to inform, persuade, or entertain.
Question 68: The suffix '-itis' means:
- Disease of
- Inflammation of (Correct answer)
- Study of
- Incision into
Correct answer: Inflammation of
'-Itis' means inflammation, as in appendicitis (inflammation of the appendix).
Question 69: What is the number of monosaccharides in an oligosaccharide?
- One
- Two or Three
- Three to six (Correct answer)
- Ten or more
Correct answer: Three to six
An oligosaccharide is a carbohydrate composed of a relatively small number of monosaccharide units linked together. The prefix "oligo-" means "few," and in biochemistry, it typically refers to chains containing between three and ten monosaccharide units. Among the given options, "three to six" best fits this definition, representing a small chain of sugar molecules.
Question 70: Unless operated on by an imbalanced force, the body at rest will remain at rest, and the body in motion will remain in motion with a constant velocity; F=ka
- Scalar quantity
- Average velocity
- Newton's First Law of Motion (Correct answer)
- Force
Correct answer: Newton's First Law of Motion
This statement is a direct description of Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the Law of Inertia. It states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. The formula F=ka is not part of Newton's First Law, which primarily describes inertia.
Question 71: Which macromolecule is responsible for storing genetic information?
- Lipids
- Proteins
- Carbohydrates
- Nucleic acids (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Nucleic acids
Nucleic acids, specifically DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid), are the macromolecules responsible for carrying genetic information. DNA stores the complete hereditary instructions for an organism's development and function, while RNA plays a crucial role in expressing these instructions to build proteins.
Question 72: In an exothermic reaction, what happens to energy?
- Energy remains unchanged
- Energy is converted entirely to matter
- Energy is released to the surroundings (Correct answer)
- Energy is absorbed from the surroundings
Correct answer: Energy is released to the surroundings
Exothermic reactions release energy (usually as heat) to the surroundings, resulting in a negative enthalpy change (ÎH < 0).
Question 73: A nurse recognizes personal bias may affect judgment. The most appropriate response is to:
- Let bias guide care
- Avoid the patient
- Trust the bias
- Consciously set aside bias and focus on objective data (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Consciously set aside bias and focus on objective data
Acknowledging and minimizing bias supports objective decision-making.
Question 74: Solve for x:\t5:50:: x:500
- 4
- 5.5
- 5
- 50 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 50
To solve a ratio and proportion problem like 5:50::x:500, you can set it up as a fraction: 5/50 = x/500. Cross-multiply to solve for x: 5 * 500 = 50 * x. This simplifies to 2500 = 50x, and dividing both sides by 50 yields x = 50.
Question 75: A passage states, 'The committee's proposal, while ambitious, lacked the funding necessary to succeed.' What is the author's attitude toward the proposal?
- Enthusiastically supportive
- Completely dismissive
- Skeptical of its feasibility (Correct answer)
- Indifferent and detached
Correct answer: Skeptical of its feasibility
The phrase 'lacked the funding necessary to succeed' signals doubt about whether the proposal can work.
Question 76: Which term describes an organism's observable physical traits?
- Allele
- Chromosome
- Genotype
- Phenotype (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Phenotype
Phenotype refers to the expressed, observable characteristics of an organism.
Question 77: The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is -9.8 m/s². Which part of this integer provides direction information, converting it to a vector quantity?
- Because the negative sign indicates the magnitude of the acceleration, we know it's a vector quantity.
- We know it's a vector quantity because the negative sign indicates a downward acceleration. (Correct answer)
- Because the seconds are squared in the units, we know it's a vector quantity.
- The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is upward, therefore we know it's a vector quantity.
Correct answer: We know it's a vector quantity because the negative sign indicates a downward acceleration.
A vector quantity is a physical quantity that has both magnitude (size) and direction. The value -9.8 m/s² for acceleration due to gravity includes a negative sign, which specifically indicates the direction of this acceleration. By convention, the negative sign signifies that the acceleration is directed downwards, towards the center of the Earth, thus providing directional information.
Question 78: When a passage contains both facts and the author's interpretation, a careful reader should:
- Accept everything as fact
- Distinguish facts from opinions (Correct answer)
- Read only the opinions
- Ignore the facts
Correct answer: Distinguish facts from opinions
Critical reading requires separating verifiable facts from the author's opinions.
Question 79: Which of the following is grammatically correct?
- The athlete ran quickly to the finish line. (Correct answer)
- The athlete ran quick to the finish line.
- The athlete did run quickly to the finish line.
- The athlete did ran quickly to the finish line.
Correct answer: The athlete ran quickly to the finish line.
The sentence 'The athlete ran quickly to the finish line' is grammatically correct. 'Ran' is the simple past tense of 'run,' and 'quickly' is an adverb that correctly modifies the verb 'ran,' describing how the athlete performed the action. Options A and D use an unnecessary auxiliary verb ('did') with 'ran' or 'run,' and option C incorrectly uses the adjective 'quick' instead of the adverb 'quickly'.
Question 80: Which of the following is not produced by an exocrine gland?
- Milk
- Digestive enzymes
- Saliva
- Adrenaline (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Adrenaline
Exocrine glands secrete their products, such as milk, digestive enzymes, or saliva, into ducts that lead to an external surface or internal cavity. Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, which are endocrine glands. Endocrine glands release their secretions (hormones) directly into the bloodstream, without using ducts.
Question 81: A patient education brochure says, 'Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.' What is the primary purpose of this statement?
- To entertain the reader
- To describe a scene
- To persuade the reader to buy
- To give instructions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To give instructions
The sentence directs the reader on how to take the medication, making it instructional.
Question 82: The term 'benign' in medical terminology means:
- Cancerous and spreading
- Requiring immediate treatment
- Of unknown origin
- Not harmful or not cancerous (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Not harmful or not cancerous
'Benign' means not harmful, not cancerous, or not threatening to health, as opposed to 'malignant' which indicates cancerous or harmful.
Question 83: A fresh egg will float in waterâŚ
- Always
- When the water is cold
- It will not float in any circumstance
- When salt is added to the water (Correct answer)
Correct answer: When salt is added to the water
An object floats when its density is less than the density of the fluid it displaces. Adding salt to water increases the water's density. If enough salt is dissolved, the saltwater solution becomes denser than the egg, causing the egg to float.
Question 84: A passage ends with, 'Without immediate action, these problems will only worsen.' This sentence functions as a:
- Warning or call to action (Correct answer)
- Neutral description
- Historical fact
- Definition
Correct answer: Warning or call to action
Predicting worsening problems without action urges the reader to respond, a call to action.
Question 85: In 'Her explanation was lucid, leaving no room for confusion,' the word 'lucid' means:
- Confusing and vague
- Clear and easy to understand (Correct answer)
- Long and detailed
- Loud and forceful
Correct answer: Clear and easy to understand
'Leaving no room for confusion' shows that 'lucid' means clear and understandable.
Question 86: John sat on the bed with his favorite dog and ___________ its head gently.
- pat
- petted (Correct answer)
- pet
- patted
Correct answer: petted
'Petted' is the correct simple past tense of the verb 'to pet,' meaning to stroke or caress an animal gently. 'Pet' is the present tense or a noun. 'Pat' and 'patted' refer to striking lightly, which is a different action than gently stroking an animal's head.
Question 87: Brian ___________ up ten minutes after his alarm was supposed to go off.
- woken
- woke (Correct answer)
- awoke
- awakened
Correct answer: woke
'Woke' is the simple past tense of the verb 'to wake,' which is appropriate for a completed action in the past. The phrasal verb 'woke up' is a common and natural way to express this. 'Woken' is the past participle and requires an auxiliary verb (e.g., 'had woken'). 'Awakened' is also correct but 'woke' is more common in this context.
Question 88: What is the closest definition of the word proximal?
- center (Correct answer)
- up
- far
- away
Correct answer: center
In anatomy, 'proximal' refers to a position closer to the center of the body or the point of attachment of a limb. For example, the elbow is proximal to the wrist because it is closer to the body's core. Among the given choices, 'center' best captures the idea of being closer to the main part or origin.
Question 89: Which clue helps identify the meaning of a word through contrast?
- Punctuation marks
- Words like 'however' or 'unlike' (Correct answer)
- The length of the sentence
- The title of the passage
Correct answer: Words like 'however' or 'unlike'
Words like 'however,' 'unlike,' 'but,' 'in contrast,' or 'on the other hand' are crucial contrast clues that help identify the meaning of an unfamiliar word. These signal words indicate that the information following them will present an opposite or different idea from what was previously stated. By understanding this opposition, readers can infer the meaning of the unknown term.
Question 90: Which of the following best describes a valid conclusion drawn from a passage?
- A guess unrelated to the text
- A judgment supported by the text's evidence (Correct answer)
- A random opinion
- The author's name
Correct answer: A judgment supported by the text's evidence
A valid conclusion must be logically supported by evidence in the passage.
Question 91: A patient states: 'My grandmother smoked her whole life and lived to 95, so smoking cannot be that harmful.' This reasoning demonstrates which logical fallacy?
- Slippery slope
- Appeal to authority
- Red herring
- Hasty generalization (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hasty generalization
Hasty generalization occurs when a broad conclusion is drawn from insufficient evidence â in this case, using one person's experience to negate established health risks.
Question 92: A physician orders 'NPO' for a patient before surgery. This means the patient should:
- Have nothing by mouth (Correct answer)
- Receive only clear liquids
- Be given pain medication only
- Limit physical activity
Correct answer: Have nothing by mouth
NPO stands for the Latin 'nil per os,' meaning 'nothing by mouth.' Patients are placed on NPO status before procedures or surgery to prevent aspiration.
Question 93: What is the best definition of the word obstinate?
- Angry
- Passive
- Stubborn (Correct answer)
- Careless
Correct answer: Stubborn
The word 'obstinate' describes someone who is stubbornly refusing to change one's opinion or chosen course of action, despite attempts to persuade them. It implies a strong resistance to persuasion or change, often due to a fixed mindset. Therefore, 'stubborn' is the most direct and accurate synonym.
Question 94: What does the prefix 'poly-' mean?
- Many or multiple (Correct answer)
- Two or double
- Half or partial
- One or single
Correct answer: Many or multiple
'Poly-' means many or multiple, as in polyuria (excessive urine production) or polyneuropathy (disease affecting many nerves).
Question 95: Which sentence is grammatically correct?
- Carefully wash the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap. (Correct answer)
- Wash the baby with carefully unscented, hypoallergenic soap.
- Wash, carefully, the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap.
- Wash the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap, carefully.
Correct answer: Carefully wash the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap.
Adverbs of manner, such as 'carefully,' should generally be placed close to the verb they modify to ensure clarity and proper emphasis. In this imperative sentence, 'carefully' modifies the verb 'wash.' Placing it at the beginning of the sentence or directly before the verb 'wash' is grammatically correct and creates a natural flow, emphasizing the manner in which the action should be performed.
Question 96: Which of the following words is a noun?<br/> The teenager jumped into the air to catch the ball.
- catch
- jumped
- air (Correct answer)
- into
Correct answer: air
A noun is a word that names a person, place, thing, or idea. In the given sentence, 'air' is a thing (a substance or space) that the teenager jumped into. 'Jumped' is a verb, 'into' is a preposition, and 'catch' is a verb in this context.
Question 97: In a medical journal abstract: 'This randomized controlled trial (n=500) found that early mobilization after hip replacement surgery reduced hospital stays by an average of 1.8 days (p<0.001) compared to standard care protocols.' What does 'p<0.001' indicate to the reader?
- The sample size was too small for valid conclusions
- The results are not clinically important
- The finding is statistically significant and unlikely due to chance (Correct answer)
- The intervention reduced costs by 0.1%
Correct answer: The finding is statistically significant and unlikely due to chance
A p-value less than 0.001 indicates very high statistical significance, meaning there is less than a 0.1% probability the results occurred by chance.
Question 98: During DNA replication, which enzyme unwinds the double helix at the replication fork?
- Ligase
- Helicase (Correct answer)
- Primase
- DNA polymerase
Correct answer: Helicase
Helicase unwinds the double-stranded DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs at the replication fork.
Question 99: What is the molarity of an aqueous solution containing 0.40 moles of sugar in 5 liters of water?
- 0.08 M (Correct answer)
- 400.0 M
- 8.0 M
- 0.04 M
Correct answer: 0.08 M
Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution. To calculate the molarity, you divide the given moles of sugar (0.40 moles) by the volume of water in liters (5 liters). Therefore, 0.40 moles / 5 L = 0.08 M.
Question 100: A passage says a new policy 'sparked outrage among employees.' The word 'sparked' suggests the policy:
- Was quietly accepted
- Triggered a strong reaction (Correct answer)
- Was forgotten quickly
- Saved money
Correct answer: Triggered a strong reaction
'Sparked outrage' indicates the policy triggered a strong negative reaction.
Question 101: How many valence electrons does an oxygen atom (atomic number 8) have?
- 8
- 2
- 6 (Correct answer)
- 4
Correct answer: 6
Oxygen has the electron configuration 2, 6 â meaning 2 electrons in the first shell and 6 in the second (valence) shell.
Question 102: A ball is kicked off the edge of a 34-meter-high roof. The ball is given a horizontal speed of 12.5 m/s. How far away from the building's base will the ball land if there is no air resistance?
- 19.35 m
- 28.44 m
- 30.80 m
- 32.86 m (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 32.86 m
First, calculate the time it takes for the ball to fall 34 meters using the vertical motion equation: d = 0.5 * g * t². So, 34 = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s² * t², which gives t â 2.634 seconds. Then, use this time with the horizontal speed to find the horizontal distance: distance = speed * time = 12.5 m/s * 2.634 s â 32.93 meters. The closest option is 32.86 m.
Question 103: Add 6 1\/4 + 8 1\/3 =
- 19\/4
- 175\/12
- 14 2\/7
- 14 7\/12 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 14 7\/12
To add the mixed numbers 6 1/4 and 8 1/3, first add the whole numbers: 6 + 8 = 14. Next, add the fractions: 1/4 + 1/3. Find a common denominator for 4 and 3, which is 12, converting them to 3/12 and 4/12 respectively. Adding these gives 7/12. Combine the whole number sum and the fraction sum to get 14 7/12.
Question 104: A reader concludes that a character is nervous because the text describes 'trembling hands and a shaky voice.' This is an example of:
- Counting syllables
- Drawing an inference (Correct answer)
- Stating a direct fact
- Identifying the title
Correct answer: Drawing an inference
Using described physical details to conclude the character's emotion is making an inference.
Question 105: The medical term 'dyspnea' refers to:
- Painful urination
- Abnormal heart rhythm
- Difficulty swallowing
- Labored or difficult breathing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Labored or difficult breathing
The prefix 'dys-' means difficult or abnormal, and '-pnea' refers to breathing. Together, dyspnea describes shortness of breath or labored breathing.
Question 106: Henry was able to help 4 out of 9 of students that requested help in the math lab and Michelle helped 45% of the total students who asked for help. Who helped more students, Henry or Michelle?
- The amount cannot be calculated.
- They both helped the same number of students.
- Michelle (Correct answer)
- Henry
Correct answer: Michelle
To compare who helped more students, convert Henry's fraction to a percentage. Henry helped 4 out of 9 students, which is 4 á 9 â 0.4444, or approximately 44.4%. Michelle helped 45% of the students. Comparing 44.4% to 45%, Michelle helped a slightly higher percentage of students.
Question 107: What is the complementary DNA base pairing for the sequence A-T-G-C?
- C-G-T-A
- A-T-G-C
- T-A-C-G (Correct answer)
- G-C-A-T
Correct answer: T-A-C-G
Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine.
Question 108: My dearest friend was in a terrible automobile accident last Sunday night that left him hurt ____________.
- worst
- bad
- baddest
- badly (Correct answer)
Correct answer: badly
'Badly' is an adverb that correctly modifies the verb 'hurt,' describing the extent or manner of the injury. 'Bad' is an adjective and should not be used to modify a verb. Therefore, 'hurt badly' is the grammatically correct way to express the severity of the injury.
Question 109: Ligaments connect which two structures?
- Bone to bone (Correct answer)
- Muscle to muscle
- Muscle to bone
- Tendon to bone
Correct answer: Bone to bone
Ligaments are strong, fibrous bands of connective tissue that primarily connect bones to other bones. Their main function is to stabilize joints, limit excessive movement, and prevent dislocations. In contrast, tendons connect muscles to bones.
Question 110: How many teaspoons are there in 5 tablespoons?
- 1.67 Tsps.
- 0.6 Tsps
- 1.5 Tsps
- \t15 Tsps. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: \t15 Tsps.
To convert tablespoons to teaspoons, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 tablespoon (tbsp) is equal to 3 teaspoons (tsp). Therefore, to find the number of teaspoons in 5 tablespoons, you multiply 5 by 3. This calculation yields 15 teaspoons.
Question 111: What is the closest definition of benign?
- Silent
- Painful
- Near
- Harmless (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Harmless
In a medical context, 'benign' describes a condition, tumor, or growth that is not cancerous and will not spread to other parts of the body. It implies that the condition is harmless and typically does not pose a serious threat to health. This is in contrast to 'malignant,' which means cancerous.
Question 112: The word 'edema' in a patient's chart most accurately describes:
- Muscle weakness or wasting
- A skin rash or irritation
- Excessive bleeding
- Abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling
Edema refers to the buildup of excess fluid in the body's tissues, resulting in visible swelling. It commonly occurs in the ankles, feet, or hands.
Question 113: Which word, meaning âto examine by touch,â fits best into this sentence? âThe pediatrician ____ the young patientâs abdomen to see if she could discover what was causing the girlâs pain.â
- Pondered
- Projected
- Perpetuated
- Palpated (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Palpated
To palpate means to examine by touch, especially for medical purposes. Doctors use palpation to feel for abnormalities, tenderness, or the size and consistency of organs or masses beneath the skin. This technique is a fundamental part of a physical examination.
Question 114: On the ice, a hockey puck comes to a slow stop. The puck has a mass of 0.5 kg and a friction force of 2.3 N between it and the ice. What is the puck's rate of acceleration?
- 4.2 m/s²
- -4.2 m/s²
- -4.6 m/s² (Correct answer)
- 4.6 m/s²
Correct answer: -4.6 m/s²
According to Newton's Second Law, Force (F) = mass (m) * acceleration (a). We are given the friction force (F) as 2.3 N and the mass (m) as 0.5 kg. To find acceleration, rearrange the formula to a = F/m. So, a = 2.3 N / 0.5 kg = 4.6 m/s². Since friction opposes motion and causes the puck to slow down, the acceleration is negative, indicating deceleration.
Question 115: What is the closest definition of the word cauterize?
- Cut
- Burn (Correct answer)
- Insert
- Repair
Correct answer: Burn
To 'cauterize' means to burn the skin or flesh of a wound with a heated instrument or caustic substance, typically to stop bleeding or prevent infection. The primary action involved in this medical procedure is burning tissue. Therefore, 'burn' is the most direct and accurate definition.
Question 116: A shoe company sends out 7 trucks loaded with nursing shoes that cost the company $1,572 per truck. If they send out 750 boxes per truck, what would be the profit if the cost per box is $ 125.40?
- 646,170.00 (Correct answer)
- 45,357.60
- 79,490.40
- 614,400.00
Correct answer: 646,170.00
This problem requires calculating total revenue and total cost to find the profit. Assuming '$125.40 per box' is the selling price, the total revenue is (7 trucks * 750 boxes/truck) * $125.40/box = 5250 boxes * $125.40/box = $658,350. If the total cost per truck was effectively $1740 (to match the given answer, implying an additional cost of $168 per truck beyond the stated $1572), then the total cost for 7 trucks is 7 * $1740 = $12,180. The profit is Total Revenue - Total Cost = $658,350 - $12,180 = $646,170.
Question 117: What do you call substances that cannot be broken down into simpler forms of matter?
- Nuclei
- Elements (Correct answer)
- Electron
- Molecules
Correct answer: Elements
Elements are fundamental substances that consist of only one type of atom and cannot be broken down into simpler chemical substances by ordinary chemical means. They are the basic building blocks of all matter. Molecules are combinations of elements, while electrons and nuclei are subatomic components.
Question 118: A human weighs 76 kg. What is this person's weight on the earth?
- 820 N
- 745 N (Correct answer)
- 455 N
- 690 N
Correct answer: 745 N
Weight is the force of gravity acting on an object's mass. It is calculated using the formula Weight (W) = mass (m) * acceleration due to gravity (g). On Earth, the approximate value for g is 9.8 m/s². Therefore, W = 76 kg * 9.8 m/s² = 744.8 N, which rounds to 745 N.
Question 119: The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in which chamber of the heart?
- Left atrium
- Right ventricle
- Right atrium (Correct answer)
- Left ventricle
Correct answer: Right atrium
The SA node is embedded in the wall of the right atrium near the superior vena cava. It initiates the electrical impulse that triggers each heartbeat, earning it the title of the heart's natural pacemaker.
Question 120: A meter is made up of how many centimeters?
- 100 (Correct answer)
- 10000
- 1\/1000
- 1000
Correct answer: 100
In the metric system, the prefix 'centi-' denotes one-hundredth. Therefore, a centimeter is one-hundredth of a meter, meaning there are 100 centimeters in 1 meter.
Question 121: A passage compares two treatments by listing similarities and differences. What text structure is this?
- Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
- Chronological order
- Description
- Cause and effect
Correct answer: Compare and contrast
Listing similarities and differences between items is the compare-and-contrast structure.
Question 122: A charge nurse must decide between two evidence-based interventions for fall prevention. Intervention A reduced falls by 30% in a large hospital study. Intervention B reduced falls by 45% in a small clinic study. Which factor is most important when deciding?
- Implement both interventions simultaneously
- Choose A because it was conducted in a hospital setting
- Evaluate whether the study settings and populations are comparable to your unit (Correct answer)
- Choose B because it shows a greater reduction percentage
Correct answer: Evaluate whether the study settings and populations are comparable to your unit
Critical appraisal requires evaluating whether study settings and populations are applicable to your specific clinical context before comparing outcomes.
Question 123: What type of tissue supports and structures the organs?
- Epithelial
- Nervous
- Connective (Correct answer)
- Muscle
Correct answer: Connective
Connective tissue is one of the four basic tissue types in the body, characterized by its diverse roles. It provides structural support, binds tissues and organs together, protects organs, stores fat, and transports substances. Examples include bone, cartilage, blood, and adipose tissue, all contributing to the body's framework and organ integrity.
Question 124: Who discovered the special theory of relativity?
- James Chadwick
- Alfred Nobel
- Max Plank
- Albert Einstein (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Albert Einstein
Albert Einstein is credited with developing the special theory of relativity, which he published in 1905. This revolutionary theory established that the laws of physics are the same for all non-accelerating observers and that the speed of light in a vacuum is constant for everyone.
Question 125: What type of reaction occurs when an acid reacts with a base to produce water and a salt?
- Oxidation-reduction
- Decomposition
- Neutralization (Correct answer)
- Synthesis
Correct answer: Neutralization
A neutralization reaction occurs when an acid and a base combine to form water and a salt, typically bringing the pH closer to 7.
Question 126: The instructor asked a question to the student, but she couldn't hear him since he responded so _____________.
- Loud
- Quietly (Correct answer)
- Loudly
- Quiet
Correct answer: Quietly
The blank space requires an adverb to modify the verb 'responded,' describing *how* the instructor responded. 'Quietly' is the adverbial form of the adjective 'quiet,' correctly indicating the manner of his response. Adverbs typically end in -ly and modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.
Question 127: In a military hospital, a nurse's shift runs from 1400 to 2100. When does the nurse start and finish her shift?
- 3 pm to 10 pm
- 3am to 8 pm
- 2 pm to 9 pm (Correct answer)
- 10 am to 3 pm
Correct answer: 2 pm to 9 pm
To convert military time to civilian time, subtract 12 from any hour greater than 12 and designate it as PM. Therefore, 1400 becomes 2 PM (14 - 12 = 2), and 2100 becomes 9 PM (21 - 12 = 9), meaning the nurse's shift is from 2 PM to 9 PM.
Question 128: Which of the following is the most abundant component of whole blood?
- Plasma (Correct answer)
- Platelets
- Red blood cells
- White blood cells
Correct answer: Plasma
Plasma is the liquid matrix of blood, making up approximately 55% of its total volume. It is primarily composed of water (about 92%) but also contains dissolved proteins, hormones, nutrients, electrolytes, and waste products. The cellular components like red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are suspended within this plasma.
Question 129: What is the most abundant element in the universe?
- Oxygen
- Nitrogen
- Helium
- Hydrogen (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hydrogen
Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the entire universe, making up approximately 75% of its baryonic mass. It is the fundamental building block of stars and is prevalent in interstellar gas and dust clouds.
Question 130: A reading passage describes steps in order: first, second, then finally. What text structure is being used?
- Cause and effect
- Problem and solution
- Compare and contrast
- Sequence/chronological order (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sequence/chronological order
Signal words like 'first,' 'then,' and 'finally' indicate sequence or chronological order.
Question 131: How many pounds are 10 kilograms?
- 22 pounds (Correct answer)
- 45 pounds
- 150 pounds
- 2.5 pounds
Correct answer: 22 pounds
To convert kilograms to pounds, use the conversion factor that 1 kilogram is approximately equal to 2.20462 pounds. Therefore, 10 kilograms * 2.20462 pounds/kilogram equals 22.0462 pounds. Rounding this to the nearest whole number gives 22 pounds.
Question 132: In Celsius, what are 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit?
- 37 degrees Celsius (Correct answer)
- 70.50 degrees Celsius
- 119 degrees Celsius
- 86.70 degrees Celsius
Correct answer: 37 degrees Celsius
To convert degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius, use the formula C = (F - 32) * 5/9. Substituting 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit, the calculation is (98.6 - 32) * 5/9 = 66.6 * 5/9 = 37 degrees Celsius. This is the standard normal human body temperature.
Question 133: A push or a pull on an item is defined as _________.
- Velocity
- Force (Correct answer)
- Average speed
- Vector quantity
Correct answer: Force
Force is defined as a push or a pull that can cause an object to accelerate, change its velocity, or deform. It is a vector quantity, possessing both magnitude and direction. Forces are fundamental to understanding motion and interactions in physics.
Question 134: What is the molarity of a solution containing 58.5 grams of NaCl dissolved in enough water to make 2 liters of solution? (Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)
- 1.0 M
- 2.0 M
- 0.25 M
- 0.5 M (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.5 M
Molarity = moles of solute / liters of solution. Moles of NaCl = 58.5g / 58.5g/mol = 1 mol. Molarity = 1 mol / 2 L = 0.5 M.
Question 135: Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?
- Pulmonary vein
- Superior vena cava
- Pulmonary artery (Correct answer)
- Aorta
Correct answer: Pulmonary artery
The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange.
Question 136: What does it mean to draw an inference?
- Make a guess with no basis
- Form a conclusion based on information (Correct answer)
- Rewrite the text
- Identify the author's name
Correct answer: Form a conclusion based on information
To draw an inference means to form a conclusion or make an educated guess based on the information explicitly provided in the text, combined with one's own prior knowledge and reasoning. It involves 'reading between the lines' to understand implied meanings or consequences that are not directly stated by the author. This skill is crucial for deeper comprehension and critical thinking.
Question 137: In its simplest form, express 0.125 as a fraction.
- 1\/15
- 1\/30
- 1\/10
- 1\/8 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1\/8
To express the decimal 0.125 as a fraction, write it as 125 over 1000, since there are three decimal places. Then, simplify the fraction 125/1000 by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 125, resulting in the simplest form 1/8.
Question 138: Convert the metric equivalent: 8,500 grams equals x kg. (Enter numerical value only).
- 0.8 kilograms
- 85 kilograms
- 8 kilograms
- 8.5 kilograms (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 8.5 kilograms
To convert grams to kilograms, you need to know that 1 kilogram (kg) is equal to 1,000 grams (g). Therefore, to convert 8,500 grams to kilograms, you divide 8,500 by 1,000. This calculation results in 8.5 kilograms.
Question 139: During cellular respiration, where does the electron transport chain occur in eukaryotes?
- Cytoplasm
- Nucleus
- Ribosome
- Inner mitochondrial membrane (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Inner mitochondrial membrane
The electron transport chain is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Question 140: What is the correct form of the missing words? The red car in the parking lot belonged to Sarah Jones. James knew that ____ car was new and fast.
- Sarah Joneâs
- Sarah Joneses
- Sarah Jones
- Sarah Jonesâs or Sarah Jonesâ (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sarah Jonesâs or Sarah Jonesâ
To show possession for a singular noun ending in 's' (like 'Jones'), both adding an apostrophe and an 's' (Sarah Jones's) or simply adding an apostrophe (Sarah Jones') are considered grammatically correct. Both forms clearly indicate that the car belongs to Sarah Jones. The other options are incorrect possessive forms.
Question 141: If medication is given 'bilaterally,' it affects:
- The center
- One side only
- The lower half
- Both sides (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Both sides
Bilaterally means relating to or affecting both sides.
Question 142: What would happen if the phrenic nerve was injured?
- Inability to control one's breathing (Correct answer)
- Irregular heart rate
- An increase in the number of facial spasms
- A rise in body temperature
Correct answer: Inability to control one's breathing
The phrenic nerve is crucial for respiration as it innervates the diaphragm, the primary muscle responsible for breathing. It transmits motor commands that cause the diaphragm to contract and relax, facilitating inhalation and exhalation. Therefore, an injury to the phrenic nerve would impair or halt the diaphragm's function, leading to an inability to control one's breathing.
Question 143: In the formula H2O, the subscript 2 indicates:
- Two hydrogen atoms (Correct answer)
- A charge of +2
- Two water molecules
- Two oxygen atoms
Correct answer: Two hydrogen atoms
The subscript 2 shows there are two hydrogen atoms in each water molecule.
Question 144: What is the primary function of transfer RNA (tRNA) during translation?
- Forming the ribosomal subunits
- Splicing introns from mRNA
- Carrying the genetic code from the nucleus
- Delivering amino acids to the ribosome (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Delivering amino acids to the ribosome
Transfer RNA carries specific amino acids to the ribosome during translation, matching its anticodon to the mRNA codon.
Question 145: A patient report contains both objective and subjective data. Which is an example of objective data?
- Temperature of 101.4°F (Correct answer)
- Patient states they feel feverish
- Patient says they are tired
- Patient reports chills
Correct answer: Temperature of 101.4°F
Objective data is measurable, like a recorded temperature.
Question 146: Which of the following is NOT a digestive system function?
- Absorbing nutrients into blood
- Get rid of unabsorbed waste
- Enzymatically breaking down food
- Performing gas exchange (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Performing gas exchange
Performing gas exchange (the intake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide) is the primary function of the respiratory system, specifically the lungs. The digestive system is responsible for the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food, absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream, and elimination of unabsorbed waste, but not for gas exchange.
Question 147: The word 'patent' as used in 'a patent airway' means:
- Blocked and closed
- Narrow and constricted
- Open and unobstructed (Correct answer)
- Swollen and inflamed
Correct answer: Open and unobstructed
Patent means open and unobstructed, as in a clear airway.
Question 148: The rate at which a vehicle's velocity changes over time?
- Acceleration (Correct answer)
- Force
- Velocity
- Projectile Motion
Correct answer: Acceleration
Acceleration is defined as the rate at which an object's velocity changes over time. Velocity includes both speed and direction, so acceleration can involve a change in speed, a change in direction, or both. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction.
Question 149: Convert 25.52 to a reduced fraction
- 638\/52
- 2552\/100
- 25 13\/25 (Correct answer)
- 25\/52
Correct answer: 25 13\/25
To convert 25.52 to a reduced fraction, separate the whole number (25) from the decimal part (0.52). Write 0.52 as a fraction: 52/100. Then, reduce this fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 4. This simplifies to 13/25. Combine the whole number and the reduced fraction to get 25 13/25.
Question 150: What is the closest definition of deficiency?
- Clarity
- Absence (Correct answer)
- Powerful
- Plenty
Correct answer: Absence
Deficiency refers to a lack or shortage of something essential. In a medical context, it often describes an inadequate supply of a nutrient, vitamin, or hormone necessary for proper bodily function. For example, an iron deficiency means there is an absence of sufficient iron.
Question 151: A 'distended' abdomen is best described as:
- Tender to touch
- Swollen or enlarged (Correct answer)
- Soft and flat
- Discolored
Correct answer: Swollen or enlarged
Distended means swollen or expanded from internal pressure.
Question 152: Which of the following is true of a negatively charged particle?
- It has more protons than electrons
- It has more electrons than protons (Correct answer)
- It has the same number of protons and electrons
- It has no electrons
Correct answer: It has more electrons than protons
A particle becomes negatively charged when it gains electrons, which carry a negative charge. This creates an imbalance where the number of negatively charged electrons exceeds the number of positively charged protons within the particle. Conversely, a positive charge indicates a deficit of electrons.
Question 153: When hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in a neutralization reaction, what are the products?
- Hâ gas and NaCl
- NaCl and HâO (Correct answer)
- NaOH and Clâ
- Na metal and HClO
Correct answer: NaCl and HâO
Acidâbase neutralization produces a salt and water. HCl + NaOH â NaCl (salt) + HâO.
Question 154: A passage presents two sides of an argument and then favors one. What is the author most likely trying to do?
- Tell a fictional story
- List random facts
- Persuade the reader (Correct answer)
- Provide a recipe
Correct answer: Persuade the reader
Presenting sides and favoring one is a persuasive technique meant to convince the reader.
Question 155: What does the prefix 'hypo-' indicate?
- Below normal (Correct answer)
- Against
- Above normal
- Around
Correct answer: Below normal
The prefix 'hypo-' means below, under, or less than normal, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypotension (low blood pressure).
Question 156: What is the tone of a passage?
- The authorâs attitude or mood (Correct answer)
- The text's font style
- The number of paragraphs
- The length of the passage
Correct answer: The authorâs attitude or mood
The tone of a passage refers to the author's attitude or emotional stance towards the subject matter or the audience. It is conveyed through specific word choices, sentence structure, and overall writing style, influencing how the reader perceives the text's message. Recognizing the tone helps readers understand the author's perspective and the underlying mood of the writing.
Question 157: A passage compares two pain management approaches: 'Pharmacological interventions provide rapid, measurable relief but carry risks of dependency and side effects. Non-pharmacological approaches such as guided imagery, massage, and music therapy offer holistic benefits with minimal risk, though their efficacy varies among individuals.' Which organizational pattern is used?
- Chronological order
- Problem and solution
- Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
- Spatial organization
Correct answer: Compare and contrast
The passage directly compares two approaches by presenting the advantages and disadvantages of each, which is the compare-and-contrast pattern.
Question 158: Which word is a context clue that signals a contrast in a sentence?
- Because
- Therefore
- Similarly
- However (Correct answer)
Correct answer: However
'However' introduces an idea that contrasts with what came before.
Question 159: A nurse validates a patient's reported symptom against objective findings to:
- Save time
- Avoid the patient
- Skip assessment
- Ensure accuracy of the data (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ensure accuracy of the data
Validation confirms that data is accurate and consistent.
Question 160: What % of 200 is 34?
- 68%
- 17% (Correct answer)
- 20%
- 34%
Correct answer: 17%
To find what percentage of 200 is 34, set up the equation: (Part / Whole) * 100% = Percentage. Here, the part is 34 and the whole is 200. So, (34 / 200) * 100%. Dividing 34 by 200 gives 0.17, and multiplying by 100% yields 17%.
Question 161: A passage is organized around a difficulty and a recommended fix. This structure is called:
- Description
- Compare and contrast
- Sequence
- Problem and solution (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Problem and solution
Presenting an issue followed by a remedy is the problem-and-solution structure.
Question 162: The prefix 'tachy-' means:
- Slow
- Heavy
- Fast (Correct answer)
- Painful
Correct answer: Fast
'Tachy-' means fast or rapid, as in tachycardia (abnormally fast heart rate).
Question 163: Two-thirds of an ounce of liquid is contained in a sample. What is the volume in milliliters (mL)?
- 25 mL
- 5 mL
- 20 mL (Correct answer)
- 35 mL
Correct answer: 20 mL
To convert ounces to milliliters, use the conversion factor that 1 ounce is approximately equal to 29.5735 mL. Therefore, two-thirds of an ounce is (2/3) * 29.5735 mL, which calculates to approximately 19.715 mL. Rounding this to the nearest whole number, or using a common approximation of 1 oz â 30 mL, gives 20 mL.
Question 164: A passage describes a research study: 'Participants who received the experimental drug showed a 40% reduction in symptoms compared to the placebo group. However, 15% of participants experienced significant side effects including nausea and dizziness.' Which statement represents an inference from this passage?
- Some participants experienced nausea
- The drug reduced symptoms by 40%
- Fifteen percent of participants had side effects
- Healthcare providers would need to weigh the benefits against the side effect risks (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Healthcare providers would need to weigh the benefits against the side effect risks
An inference goes beyond what is explicitly stated. The benefit-risk assessment is logically implied but not directly stated in the passage.
Question 165: Which process converts glucose into pyruvate in the cytoplasm without requiring oxygen?
- Electron transport chain
- Glycolysis (Correct answer)
- Krebs cycle
- Photosynthesis
Correct answer: Glycolysis
Glycolysis breaks glucose into two pyruvate molecules in the cytosol anaerobically.
Question 166: The suffix '-ectomy' refers to:
- Inflammation
- Disease of
- Surgical removal (Correct answer)
- Incision into
Correct answer: Surgical removal
'-Ectomy' comes from Greek and means surgical removal, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix).
Question 167: Reactions that absorb heat are called what?
- Thermal
- Endothermic (Correct answer)
- Combustion
- Exothermic
Correct answer: Endothermic
Endothermic reactions are chemical processes that absorb heat energy from their surroundings. This absorption of heat causes the temperature of the surroundings to decrease, making them feel cooler. The energy absorbed is stored within the chemical bonds of the products.
Question 168: Which detail would best support the main idea that 'regular handwashing prevents illness'?
- A description of soap colors
- A list of unrelated diseases
- The history of a hospital building
- A study showing fewer infections among frequent handwashers (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A study showing fewer infections among frequent handwashers
Data linking handwashing to fewer infections directly supports the main idea.
Question 169: An enzyme's activity is most affected by changes in which two environmental factors?
- Color and odor
- Mass and density
- Temperature and pH (Correct answer)
- Light and sound
Correct answer: Temperature and pH
Enzymes have optimal temperature and pH ranges that affect their shape and function.
Question 170: Covert the following military hours to civilian hours: 20:30
- 2:30 PM
- 9:30 AM
- 10:30 AM
- 8:30 PM (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 8:30 PM
To convert military time (24-hour format) to civilian time (12-hour format), if the hour is 13 or greater, subtract 12 from the hour and append 'PM'. For 20:30, subtracting 12 from 20 gives 8, so the civilian time is 8:30 PM.
Question 171: A doctor advises a patient to reduce their intake of diet soda by 25%... <br> The patient currently consumes four 12 oz. diet Coke cans per day. If the patient cuts his soda intake by 25%, how many ounces of diet soda may he drink?
- 30 oz
- 15 oz
- 10 oz
- 36 oz (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 36 oz
The patient currently consumes 4 cans * 12 oz/can = 48 ounces of diet soda per day. To reduce intake by 25%, calculate 25% of 48 oz, which is 0.25 * 48 = 12 oz. Subtract this reduction from the original intake: 48 oz - 12 oz = 36 oz. Alternatively, the patient will drink 75% of their original intake: 0.75 * 48 oz = 36 oz.
Question 172: What is the meaning of the word bifurcate?
- Divide (Correct answer)
- Shine
- Open
- Smell
Correct answer: Divide
To bifurcate means to divide into two branches or forks. This term is often used to describe anatomical structures, such as blood vessels or nerves, that split into two distinct pathways. For example, the trachea bifurcates into two main bronchi.
Question 173: Which process describes the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration?
- Osmosis (Correct answer)
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Exocytosis
Correct answer: Osmosis
Osmosis is the passive movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane toward the region of higher solute concentration.
Question 174: The average speed of a high velocity train is 200 kilometers per hour. The distance between Paris and Naples is 7,346 km (1 mile = 1.609 km). How long will the trip take? (Round to the nearest whole number).
- 37 hours (Correct answer)
- 3.8 hours
- 36.73 hours
- 38 hours
Correct answer: 37 hours
To find the time the trip will take, use the formula Time = Distance / Speed. The distance is 7,346 km and the speed is 200 km/h. Divide 7,346 by 200, which equals 36.73 hours. Rounding 36.73 to the nearest whole number gives 37 hours. The information about miles to kilometers is extraneous for this calculation.
Question 175: \tConvert 2\/3 to a decimal
- 1.5
- 0.2222(repeating)
- 0.3333 (repeating)
- 0.6666 (repeating) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.6666 (repeating)
To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator. For the fraction 2/3, divide 2 by 3. This division results in a repeating decimal, 0.6666..., where the 6 continues infinitely.
Question 176: Which of the following statements about a negatively charged particle is correct?
- It has the same amount of protons and electrons.
- There are more protons than electrons in it.
- There are more electrons than protons in it. (Correct answer)
- It is empty of electrons.
Correct answer: There are more electrons than protons in it.
An atom is electrically neutral when it has an equal number of protons (positive charge) and electrons (negative charge). For a particle to be negatively charged, it must have an excess of negative charges. Therefore, a negatively charged particle has more electrons than protons.
Question 177: A passage uses the word 'consequently.' This transition signals what relationship?
- Addition
- Contrast
- Cause and effect (Correct answer)
- Example
Correct answer: Cause and effect
'Consequently' indicates that what follows is a result of what came before.
Question 178: Choose the word that correctly completes the sentence: 'The medication had a significant _____ on the patient's blood pressure.'
- effect (Correct answer)
- affeckt
- effact
- affect
Correct answer: effect
'Effect' is the correct noun meaning a result or outcome. 'Affect' is typically used as a verb meaning to influence.
Question 179: What does 'erythro-' mean?
- Yellow
- White
- Red (Correct answer)
- Blue
Correct answer: Red
'Erythro-' means red, as in erythrocytes (red blood cells) and erythema (skin redness).
Question 180: What is the term for the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane?
- Phagocytosis
- Active transport
- Endocytosis
- Osmosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Osmosis
Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
Question 181: A passage reads: 'Florence Nightingale's environmental theory emphasized that clean air, clean water, proper drainage, cleanliness, and light were essential for patient recovery. While these concepts seem obvious today, they were revolutionary in the mid-1800s when germ theory had not yet been established.' What can be inferred about the historical context?
- Florence Nightingale discovered germ theory
- Hospital conditions in the 1800s likely lacked the environmental elements Nightingale advocated for (Correct answer)
- Germ theory was established before Nightingale's work
- Nightingale's theory is no longer relevant to modern nursing
Correct answer: Hospital conditions in the 1800s likely lacked the environmental elements Nightingale advocated for
If Nightingale's advocacy for cleanliness was 'revolutionary,' it can be inferred that these conditions were not standard in hospitals of that era.
Question 182: What is a summary?
- A list of vocabulary words
- A detailed analysis
- The first paragraph only
- A short version highlighting key ideas (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A short version highlighting key ideas
A summary is a concise restatement of the main points or key ideas of a longer text, presented in one's own words. Its purpose is to capture the essence of the original material, highlighting only the most important information without including minor details or personal opinions. Summarizing demonstrates comprehension and allows for quick recall of essential content.
Question 183: Which sentence states a fact rather than an opinion?
- Everyone should exercise more often.
- Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level. (Correct answer)
- Summer is the best season of the year.
- The movie was too long and boring.
Correct answer: Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level.
A boiling point is a measurable, verifiable fact, while the others express judgments.
Question 184: Which of the following does the diaphragm perform during exhalation?
- Contracts and lifts
- Does not move
- Relaxes and lifts (Correct answer)
- Relaxes and lowers
Correct answer: Relaxes and lifts
During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards, or lifts, into the thoracic cavity. This upward movement decreases the volume of the chest cavity, which in turn increases the pressure within the lungs, forcing air out. In contrast, during inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens.
Question 185: The term 'gastroenterology' is the study of:
- Heart and blood vessels
- Skin and hair
- Brain and nerves
- Stomach and intestines (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Stomach and intestines
'Gastro-' means stomach, 'entero-' means intestine, and '-ology' means study of, so gastroenterology covers the stomach and intestines.
Question 186: Where is the hyoid bone located?
- Rib cage
- Leg
- Pelvis
- Neck (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Neck
The hyoid bone is a unique, U-shaped bone located in the anterior part of the neck, situated between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. It is distinctive because it is the only bone in the human body that does not articulate directly with any other bone, instead being suspended by muscles and ligaments. It plays a vital role in speech, swallowing, and supporting the tongue.
Question 187: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word contrite?
- Remorseful (Correct answer)
- Sad
- Lonely
- Excited
Correct answer: Remorseful
The word 'contrite' describes feeling or expressing deep regret or penitence for wrongdoing. It implies a sense of sorrow and guilt for one's actions. Therefore, 'remorseful' is the most fitting synonym, conveying a similar feeling of regret and sorrow for past actions.
Question 188: A book store contains 75,972 books, divided in three sections: Science, Business, and Math. The science section represents 1\/3 of the total books. Of the remaining books, 75% are business. How many books are in the math section?
- 25324
- 50,648
- 37986
- 12,662 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 12,662
First, calculate the number of science books: (1/3) * 75,972 = 25,324 books. Subtract these from the total to find the remaining books: 75,972 - 25,324 = 50,648 books. Next, calculate the number of business books: 75% of 50,648 = 0.75 * 50,648 = 37,986 books. Finally, subtract the business books from the remaining books to find the math books: 50,648 - 37,986 = 12,662 books.
Question 189: The prefix 'hypo-' means:
- Below normal (Correct answer)
- Between structures
- Above normal
- Around a structure
Correct answer: Below normal
'Hypo-' means below or under, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
Question 190: Which of the following is a function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
- DNA replication
- ATP production
- Protein synthesis and modification (Correct answer)
- Lipid digestion
Correct answer: Protein synthesis and modification
The rough ER, studded with ribosomes, synthesizes and processes proteins.
Question 191: Which enzyme catalyzes the transcription of DNA into mRNA?
- RNA polymerase (Correct answer)
- DNA polymerase
- Reverse transcriptase
- Helicase
Correct answer: RNA polymerase
RNA polymerase reads the DNA template strand and synthesizes a complementary mRNA molecule during transcription.
Question 192: A nurse documents that a patient is 'febrile.' This term means the patient has:
- An elevated body temperature (Correct answer)
- Difficulty breathing
- Decreased urine output
- Swelling in the extremities
Correct answer: An elevated body temperature
'Febrile' comes from the Latin 'febris,' meaning fever. A febrile patient has a body temperature above the normal range (above 38°C / 100.4°F).
Question 193: A car dealer sells ten different brands of automobiles. The dealer's typical daily sales are: <br> Honda has two versions, each of which sells 20 units per day. <br> Toyota has three models, each of which sells 15 units every day. <br> Kia has only one model, but it sells seven per day. <br> Ford has four models and sells six of each per day. <br> How many automobiles are sold every day in total?
- 100
- 50
- 116 (Correct answer)
- 35
Correct answer: 116
To find the total number of automobiles sold daily, calculate the sales for each brand and sum them up. Honda sells 2 versions * 20 units/version = 40 units. Toyota sells 3 models * 15 units/model = 45 units. Kia sells 1 model * 7 units/model = 7 units. Ford sells 4 models * 6 units/model = 24 units. Adding these totals: 40 + 45 + 7 + 24 = 116 automobiles sold daily.
Question 194: Which of these sentences contains an active verb tense?
- The lawyer presented his case to the jury. (Correct answer)
- The spaghetti was quickly devoured by the hungry children.
- The woman was given an engagement ring by her boyfriend.
- The boy was rewarded with a trophy for his win.
Correct answer: The lawyer presented his case to the jury.
An active verb tense means the subject of the sentence performs the action. In option B, 'the lawyer' is the subject, and 'presented' is the verb, indicating that the lawyer is actively performing the action of presenting. The other options use passive voice, where the subject receives the action (e.g., 'was given,' 'was rewarded,' 'was devoured') rather than performing it.
Question 195: Unless operated on by an imbalanced force, the body at rest will remain at rest, and the body in motion will remain in motion with a constant velocity; F=ka
- Scalar quantity
- Average velocity
- Newton's First Law of Motion (Correct answer)
- Force
Correct answer: Newton's First Law of Motion
Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the Law of Inertia, states that an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will remain in motion with a constant velocity, unless acted upon by an external, unbalanced force. The provided description perfectly encapsulates this principle. The formula F=ka is a misstatement; Newton's Second Law is F=ma.
Question 196: Read the following: 'Patients with chronic heart failure should limit sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Foods high in sodium include processed meats, canned soups, and fast food. Reading nutrition labels and choosing fresh, unprocessed foods can help patients manage their sodium consumption.' This passage is written for which audience?
- Hospital administrators creating dietary policies
- Pharmaceutical researchers developing heart failure drugs
- Patients and their caregivers managing heart failure at home (Correct answer)
- Cardiologists specializing in heart failure research
Correct answer: Patients and their caregivers managing heart failure at home
The practical, plain-language advice about reading labels and food choices indicates the intended audience is patients and caregivers managing the condition at home.
Question 197: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word succinct?
- Sweet
- Angry
- Short (Correct answer)
- Old
Correct answer: Short
The word 'succinct' means expressed clearly and precisely in few words; concise. It emphasizes brevity and clarity in communication, getting straight to the point without unnecessary detail. Therefore, 'short' is the most direct and accurate definition, implying conciseness.
Question 198: What does the prefix 'brady-' mean?
- Large
- Slow (Correct answer)
- Fast
- Small
Correct answer: Slow
'Brady-' is a Greek prefix meaning slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate).
Question 199: Which of the following would produce Hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution and would turn a litmus test from blue to red?
- Lye
- Vinegar (Correct answer)
- Ammonia
- Detergent
Correct answer: Vinegar
Acids are substances that produce hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in an aqueous solution and turn blue litmus paper red. Vinegar contains acetic acid, which exhibits these properties. Ammonia, lye, and detergent are bases, which produce hydroxide ions (OH-) and turn red litmus blue.
Question 200: A patient's condition changes unexpectedly. Critical thinking requires the nurse to:
- Ignore the change
- Wait for the next shift
- Continue the original plan
- Reassess and revise the plan of care (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reassess and revise the plan of care
Changing conditions require reassessment and plan revision.
Question 201: A passage describes the same event from a doctor's and a patient's view. This contrast helps the reader understand:
- The font choices
- Different perspectives on the event (Correct answer)
- The author's address
- The exact time of day
Correct answer: Different perspectives on the event
Presenting two viewpoints helps readers grasp differing perspectives on the event.
Question 202: Which one is the correct verb form to use in this sentence? My shower ___ a leak Friday night.
- spring
- sprung
- sprang (Correct answer)
- spranged
Correct answer: sprang
The sentence describes an event that occurred in the past ('Friday night'), so the simple past tense form of the verb 'to spring' is required. 'Sprang' is the correct simple past tense. 'Sprung' is the past participle and would require a helping verb, such as 'has sprung' or 'had sprung'.
Question 203: What is called by the release of prolactin during breastfeeding?
- Positive feedback (Correct answer)
- Cell permeability
- Gene regulation
- Negative feedback
Correct answer: Positive feedback
The release of prolactin during breastfeeding is a classic example of a positive feedback loop. When an infant suckles, sensory nerves in the nipple send signals to the hypothalamus, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release prolactin. Prolactin then promotes milk production, and increased suckling leads to even more prolactin release, amplifying the response until the stimulus is removed.
Question 204: Which statement best describes an exothermic chemical reaction?
- It absorbs heat energy from the surroundings.
- It only occurs at temperatures above 100 °C.
- It requires a catalyst to release energy.
- It releases heat energy to the surroundings. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It releases heat energy to the surroundings.
In an exothermic reaction, the products have less energy than the reactants, so the excess energy is released as heat into the surroundings (e.g., combustion).
Question 205: Why do biologists repeat experiments multiple times?
- To ensure consistent results (Correct answer)
- To confuse variables
- To extend the data range
- To impress peer reviewers
Correct answer: To ensure consistent results
Biologists repeat experiments multiple times, a practice known as replication, to ensure the consistency and reliability of their results. Repeating experiments helps to confirm that the observed outcomes are not due to random chance or experimental error, thereby increasing confidence in the validity of the findings.
Question 206: Which thinking error occurs when a nurse only seeks data supporting an initial guess?
- Open-mindedness
- Confirmation bias (Correct answer)
- Comprehensive analysis
- Reflective thinking
Correct answer: Confirmation bias
Confirmation bias is seeking only data that confirms a prior belief.
Question 207: Convert 0.60 to ratio in simplest form
- 2:6
- 3:5 (Correct answer)
- 1:6
- 2:50
Correct answer: 3:5
To convert the decimal 0.60 to a ratio in simplest form, first write it as a fraction: 60/100. Then, simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 20. This reduces the fraction to 3/5, which can be expressed as the ratio 3:5.
Question 208: Which of the following statements about most metals is false?
- They are gases at room temperature (Correct answer)
- They make up the majority of elements on the periodic table
- They are ductile
- None of the above
Correct answer: They are gases at room temperature
Most metals are known for properties like ductility, malleability, and being good conductors of heat and electricity. They constitute the majority of elements on the periodic table and are typically solid at room temperature, with mercury being a notable exception. Therefore, the statement that they are gases at room temperature is false.
Question 209: What does 'nephro-' refer to?
- Liver
- Lung
- Brain
- Kidney (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Kidney
'Nephro-' is derived from the Greek word for kidney, as in nephrology (study of the kidney).
Question 210: average speed = d/t <br/> is the distance an object travels divided by the time it takes to travel in the same direction.
- Force
- Acceleration
- Scalar Quantity
- Velocity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Velocity
Velocity is defined as the rate at which an object changes its position, and it includes both magnitude (speed) and direction. The given definition, 'distance an object travels divided by the time it takes to travel in the same direction,' explicitly includes direction, making it velocity rather than just speed.
Question 211: Which of the following best defines a supporting detail?
- A personal opinion
- Examples or facts that support the main idea (Correct answer)
- Repeated information
- Unrelated facts
Correct answer: Examples or facts that support the main idea
A supporting detail is a specific piece of information, such as an example, fact, statistic, or description, that serves to elaborate on and provide evidence for the main idea of a passage. These details strengthen the author's argument or explanation, making the central point more understandable, credible, and convincing. Without them, the main idea would lack substantiation.
Question 212: When evaluating health information from the internet, which source would be considered most reliable for evidence-based nursing practice?
- A pharmaceutical company's product website
- A patient forum discussing personal experiences
- A peer-reviewed systematic review from the Cochrane Library (Correct answer)
- A popular health blog with thousands of followers
Correct answer: A peer-reviewed systematic review from the Cochrane Library
Peer-reviewed systematic reviews from established databases like Cochrane represent the highest level of evidence in evidence-based practice.
Question 213: The term 'flaccid' refers to muscles that are:
- Twitching
- Limp and weak (Correct answer)
- Strong and firm
- Tense and rigid
Correct answer: Limp and weak
Flaccid means soft, limp, and lacking firmness or tone.
Question 214: What does the medical term 'tachycardia' mean?
- Slow heart rate
- Rapid heart rate (Correct answer)
- Absent heart rate
- Irregular heart rate
Correct answer: Rapid heart rate
Tachycardia means a rapid heart rate, typically defined as a resting heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute.
Question 215: What is the length of a kilometer in meters?
- 100
- 20
- 15
- 1000 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1000
The prefix 'kilo-' in the metric system universally denotes a factor of 1,000. Therefore, one kilometer is equivalent to 1,000 meters. This is a fundamental unit conversion in the metric system for length.
Question 216: Which of the following elements does not appear on the periodic table?
- Phosphorous
- Chlorine
- Magnesium oxide (Correct answer)
- Bromine
Correct answer: Magnesium oxide
The periodic table lists all known chemical elements. Chlorine, Bromine, and Phosphorous are all individual elements found on this table. Magnesium oxide (MgO), however, is a chemical compound formed from the elements Magnesium (Mg) and Oxygen (O), not an element itself, and thus does not appear on the periodic table.
Question 217: Which is the strongest example of evidence-based decision making?
- Choosing an intervention supported by current research and patient values (Correct answer)
- Doing what is fastest
- Choosing what is most familiar
- Following habit
Correct answer: Choosing an intervention supported by current research and patient values
Evidence-based practice combines research with patient values and clinical expertise.
Question 218: What does the suffix '-ology' mean?
- Disease of
- Surgical removal
- Study of (Correct answer)
- Pain in
Correct answer: Study of
'-Ology' means the study of, as in cardiology (study of the heart).
Question 219: What is the closest definition of the word sinuous?
- Supple (Correct answer)
- Thin
- Slender
- Mischievous
Correct answer: Supple
Sinuous means having many curves and turns, or winding. It also implies flexibility and grace, making 'supple' a close synonym. A sinuous movement or shape is often fluid and elegant, like a snake moving.
Question 220: How many types of basic tissues does a human have?
- 8
- 14
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 25
Correct answer: 4
The human body is organized into four fundamental types of tissues, each with specialized structures and functions. These are epithelial tissue (for covering and lining), connective tissue (for support and binding), muscle tissue (for movement), and nervous tissue (for communication and control). These basic tissues combine to form organs and organ systems.
Question 221: Which of the following is not true of synovial joints?
- They have a fluid-filled capsule that surrounds their articulating surface.
- They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column. (Correct answer)
- They are the most moveable joint type in the body.
- They are the most common joint in the body.
Correct answer: They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column.
Synovial joints are characterized by a fluid-filled capsule, articular cartilage, and are highly movable, such as the knee or shoulder. Intervertebral discs, however, are cartilaginous joints (specifically symphyses) that allow for limited movement and provide shock absorption between vertebrae. Therefore, synovial joints are not found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column.
Question 222: If a wound is 'suppurating,' it is:
- Bleeding heavily
- Healing cleanly
- Discharging pus (Correct answer)
- Drying out
Correct answer: Discharging pus
Suppurating means forming or discharging pus.
Question 223: Which transition best completes this sentence correctly? Sarah did not realize until after she arrived in New York that she had left her ball gown at home; ____, she was fortunate enough to find a shop that rented them by the evening.
- after all
- while
- because
- however (Correct answer)
Correct answer: however
The sentence presents a contrast: Sarah initially faced a problem (leaving her gown) but then experienced a fortunate resolution (finding a rental shop). The conjunctive adverb 'however' is used to introduce a statement that contrasts with or qualifies the preceding statement. It perfectly signals this shift from a negative situation to a positive outcome, making it the most appropriate transition word.
Question 224: The term 'tachycardia' means:
- Abnormally fast heart rate (Correct answer)
- Abnormally slow heart rate
- Irregular heart rhythm
- Absent heartbeat
Correct answer: Abnormally fast heart rate
'Tachy-' means fast and 'cardia' means heart, so tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate.
Question 225: Which is the most reasonable hypothesis if two closely related species show different traits?
- They evolved from different ancestors
- They adapted to different environments (Correct answer)
- They mutated at the same time
- They are unrelated species
Correct answer: They adapted to different environments
Even closely related species can develop different traits if they adapt to distinct environmental conditions or ecological niches. Natural selection favors characteristics that enhance survival and reproduction in a particular environment, leading to the divergence of traits over time as species specialize.
Question 226: The refractive index of chloroform is 1.44. In this medium, what is the speed of light?
- 2.08 x 10â¸m/s (Correct answer)
- 3.08 x 10â¸m/s
- 4.6 x 10⸠m/s
- 2.27 x 10â¸m/s
Correct answer: 2.08 x 10â¸m/s
The speed of light in a medium (v) can be calculated using the formula v = c / n, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum (approximately 3.00 x 10⸠m/s) and n is the refractive index of the medium. Plugging in the given values, v = (3.00 x 10⸠m/s) / 1.44 â 2.08 x 10⸠m/s.
Question 227: Which nurse action best demonstrates intellectual humility?
- Refusing to ask for help
- Ignoring colleagues
- Acknowledging the limits of one's knowledge and seeking input (Correct answer)
- Assuming expertise in all areas
Correct answer: Acknowledging the limits of one's knowledge and seeking input
Intellectual humility means recognizing knowledge limits and seeking help.
Question 228: In the sentence 'The nurse was meticulous, checking every detail twice,' the word 'meticulous' most nearly means:
- Careful and precise (Correct answer)
- Friendly and warm
- Careless and rushed
- Tired and bored
Correct answer: Careful and precise
Checking every detail twice shows careful, precise attention, defining 'meticulous.'
Question 229: Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production in the cell?
- Ribosome
- Lysosome
- Mitochondrion (Correct answer)
- Golgi apparatus
Correct answer: Mitochondrion
Mitochondria generate most cellular ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
Question 230: Read the following: 'The hypothalamus regulates body temperature through a negative feedback mechanism. When body temperature rises above the set point, vasodilation and sweating are triggered. When it falls below, vasoconstriction and shivering occur.' What is the author's primary purpose?
- To explain the mechanism of temperature regulation (Correct answer)
- To describe symptoms of hypothermia
- To compare the hypothalamus to a thermostat
- To argue that the hypothalamus is the most important brain structure
Correct answer: To explain the mechanism of temperature regulation
The passage objectively explains how the hypothalamus regulates temperature through negative feedback, without making arguments or comparisons.
Question 231: The patient's file reveals that he has been having respiration issues. What activity is the patient having trouble with?
- Interaction with others
- Forming coherent sentences
- Movement of limbs
- Breathing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Breathing
Respiration refers to the physiological process of breathing, which involves the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between an organism and its environment. If a patient is having respiration issues, they are experiencing difficulty with breathing. This can manifest as shortness of breath, wheezing, or other respiratory distress.
Question 232: What would be considered the dependent clause in this sentence? âThe students could finally see the bus, which was running 15 minutes behind schedule.â
- which was running 15 minutes behind schedule (Correct answer)
- could finally see the bus
- The students could finally see the bus
- running 15 minutes behind schedule
Correct answer: which was running 15 minutes behind schedule
A dependent clause contains a subject and a verb but cannot stand alone as a complete thought; it relies on an independent clause for full meaning. In this sentence, 'which was running 15 minutes behind schedule' is a relative clause, a type of dependent clause, introduced by the relative pronoun 'which.' It provides additional, non-essential information about the bus.
Question 233: Using the Lewis-dot structure model, how many dots would carbon have?
- 8
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 6
- 2
Correct answer: 4
The Lewis-dot structure model represents an atom's valence electrons as dots around its symbol. Carbon is in Group 14 of the periodic table, meaning it has 4 valence electrons. Therefore, carbon would have 4 dots in its Lewis-dot structure.
Question 234: What is the main idea of a passage?
- The conclusion of the passage
- The author's opinion
- The central point or message (Correct answer)
- A summary of every paragraph
Correct answer: The central point or message
The main idea of a passage is its central point or overarching message that the author wants to convey. It's the core concept that all other details, arguments, and examples within the text support and elaborate upon. Identifying the main idea is crucial for understanding the passage's overall purpose and content.
Question 235: A patient is described as 'lethargic.' What does this mean?
- Alert and oriented
- Feverish and flushed
- Agitated and restless
- Drowsy and sluggish (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Drowsy and sluggish
Lethargic means abnormally drowsy, sluggish, or lacking energy.
Question 236: Calculate the quotient of 54, 256 \/ 45 (Round to the nearest tenth)
- 5,122.5
- 1,235
- 1,205.7 (Correct answer)
- 1,200
Correct answer: 1,205.7
To calculate the quotient of 54,256 divided by 45, perform the division: 54,256 á 45 = 1205.6888... To round to the nearest tenth, look at the hundredths digit. Since it is 8 (which is 5 or greater), round up the tenths digit. Therefore, 1205.6888... rounded to the nearest tenth is 1,205.7.
Question 237: Select the correct verb: Neither the doctor nor the nurses ____ available right now.
- be
- is
- are (Correct answer)
- was
Correct answer: are
With "neither/nor," the verb agrees with the nearer subject "nurses," so "are" is correct.
Question 238: Chocolate cysts of the ovaries are attributed to which of the following?
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Endometriosis (Correct answer)
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Menorrhagia
Correct answer: Endometriosis
Chocolate cysts, also known as endometriomas, are a common manifestation of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition where tissue similar to the uterine lining (endometrium) grows outside the uterus, often on the ovaries. These cysts are filled with old, dark, thick blood, which gives them their characteristic 'chocolate' appearance.
Question 239: A passage states: 'Nosocomial infections affect approximately 1.7 million patients annually in the United States, resulting in 99,000 deaths per year.' Based on this information, which conclusion is most accurate?
- Most hospital patients will develop nosocomial infections
- Hospitals are unsafe places for patients
- Nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality (Correct answer)
- All nosocomial infections are preventable
Correct answer: Nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality
The statistics support that nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity (1.7M affected) and mortality (99,000 deaths), without overgeneralizing beyond the data.
Question 240: Which sentence correctly uses a comma?
- After administering the medication, the nurse documented the time and dosage. (Correct answer)
- After administering the medication the nurse documented the time and dosage.
- After administering, the medication the nurse documented, the time and dosage.
- After, administering the medication the nurse documented the time and dosage.
Correct answer: After administering the medication, the nurse documented the time and dosage.
A comma should follow an introductory dependent clause ('After administering the medication') before the main clause begins.
Question 241: A nurse notices that a physician's order reads 'morphine 50 mg IV push.' The standard adult dose is 2-10 mg. What is the most appropriate action?
- Ask another nurse to administer it instead
- Clarify the order with the prescribing physician before administering (Correct answer)
- Administer the dose as ordered since the physician wrote it
- Administer half the dose as a compromise
Correct answer: Clarify the order with the prescribing physician before administering
Nurses have an independent duty to question orders that appear unsafe. A dose 5-25 times the standard requires clarification before administration.
Question 242: To 'palpate' an area means to:
- Tap it sharply
- Examine by touch (Correct answer)
- Look closely at it
- Listen with a stethoscope
Correct answer: Examine by touch
Palpate means to examine by feeling with the hands or fingers.
Question 243: A patient's wound is described as having 'purulent' drainage. This means the drainage is:
- Clear and watery
- Containing pus (Correct answer)
- Bright red and bloody
- Thick and dark brown
Correct answer: Containing pus
'Purulent' comes from the Latin 'pus,' meaning pus. Purulent drainage is thick, opaque, and often yellow or green, indicating infection at the wound site.
Question 244: What is the sodium charge in the compound NaCl?
- â1
- 3
- 0
- +1 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: +1
In the ionic compound NaCl (sodium chloride), sodium (Na) is an alkali metal in Group 1 of the periodic table, meaning it readily loses one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration. When sodium loses an electron, it forms a cation with a charge of +1 (Na+).
Question 245: In grams, how would 350 milligrams be expressed?
- 0.35
- 3.50
- 0.350 (Correct answer)
- 0.035
Correct answer: 0.350
To convert milligrams to grams, you divide the number of milligrams by 1000, as there are 1000 milligrams in 1 gram. Therefore, 350 milligrams divided by 1000 equals 0.350 grams.
Question 246: Which gland regulates metabolism by secreting thyroxine?
- Thyroid gland (Correct answer)
- Pancreas
- Adrenal gland
- Pituitary gland
Correct answer: Thyroid gland
The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine (T4), which controls metabolic rate.
Question 247: Which sentence is grammatically correct?
- Kevin prays fervently at St. Maryâs Church for his sisterâs salvation. (Correct answer)
- Kevin prays at St. Maryâs Church fervently for his sisterâs salvation.
- None of these are grammatically correct.
- Kevin prays for his sisterâs salvation at St. Maryâs Church, fervently.
Correct answer: Kevin prays fervently at St. Maryâs Church for his sisterâs salvation.
When multiple adverbial phrases are present, the general order for clarity and natural flow is often manner, place, then time. In this sentence, 'fervently' describes *how* Kevin prays (manner), 'at St. Maryâs Church' describes *where* he prays (place), and 'for his sisterâs salvation' describes *why* he prays (purpose). Placing 'fervently' directly after the verb 'prays' and before the other prepositional phrases creates the most grammatically correct and natural-sounding sentence structure.
Question 248: When prioritizing care for multiple patients, the nurse should use:
- Alphabetical order
- Room number order
- Personal preference
- Urgency and acuity of needs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Urgency and acuity of needs
Prioritization is based on urgency and acuity of patient needs.
Question 249: All of the following factors influence the pace of a chemical reaction except?
- Presence of catalysts
- Surface area
- Temperature
- Amount of mass lost (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Amount of mass lost
The pace or rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by factors such as the presence of catalysts, the surface area of reactants, and the temperature. The 'amount of mass lost' is not a factor influencing the reaction rate; rather, it would be a measurement of the extent of a reaction, and mass is conserved in chemical reactions.
Question 250: Which question best demonstrates the critical thinking skill of analysis when evaluating a patient's worsening condition?
- How does this change relate to the patient's underlying diagnosis and recent interventions? (Correct answer)
- What medications is the patient currently receiving?
- What is the patient's insurance coverage?
- Has the family been notified of the change?
Correct answer: How does this change relate to the patient's underlying diagnosis and recent interventions?
Analysis involves examining relationships between data points â connecting the worsening condition to the diagnosis and interventions demonstrates analytical thinking.
Question 251: A student observes a plant bending toward a light source. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
- Respiration
- Phototropism (Correct answer)
- Gravitropism
- Photosynthesis
Correct answer: Phototropism
Phototropism is the growth response of a plant in response to a light stimulus. When a plant bends toward a light source, it is exhibiting positive phototropism, a mechanism that helps it maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.
Question 252: A patient presents with symptoms that could indicate either condition A or condition B. The treatments for each condition are contradictory. What critical thinking approach is most appropriate?
- Treat for both conditions simultaneously
- Gather additional assessment data to differentiate between the two conditions before initiating treatment (Correct answer)
- Treat for the more common condition since it is statistically more likely
- Wait for the conditions to resolve on their own
Correct answer: Gather additional assessment data to differentiate between the two conditions before initiating treatment
When differential diagnoses require contradictory treatments, gathering additional data to reach a more definitive conclusion is essential before acting.
Question 253: Which of the following is the best definition of the word chide?
- Yell
- Scold (Correct answer)
- Whisper
- Pick
Correct answer: Scold
To 'chide' means to express disapproval of or to scold someone gently. It implies a mild rebuke or reprimand, often to correct behavior or express dissatisfaction. Therefore, 'scold' is the most appropriate definition, conveying the act of reprimanding someone.
Question 254: What does the suffix '-plasty' mean?
- Surgical removal
- Disease process
- Study of a structure
- Surgical repair or reconstruction (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Surgical repair or reconstruction
'-Plasty' means surgical repair or reconstruction, as in rhinoplasty (surgical reshaping of the nose).
Question 255: A graphic in a passage shows infection rates rising over five years. This visual most directly supports a main idea about:
- The cost of treatment
- Hospital architecture
- An increasing trend in infections (Correct answer)
- Staff scheduling
Correct answer: An increasing trend in infections
A chart of rising rates over time supports a point about an increasing trend.
Question 256: A cell with 46 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes does each resulting gamete contain?
- 23 (Correct answer)
- 12
- 92
- 46
Correct answer: 23
Meiosis halves the chromosome number, producing haploid gametes with 23 chromosomes.
Question 257: Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: The physician asked ____ to review the patient's chart before rounds.
- she and me
- her and I
- her and me (Correct answer)
- she and I
Correct answer: her and me
'Her and me' is correct because both pronouns are objects of the verb 'asked.' Use object pronouns (me, her, him) when the pronoun receives the action. You can test this by removing one pronoun: 'asked her' and 'asked me' both sound correct.
Question 258: In photosynthesis, which pigment captures light energy in plants?
- Hemoglobin
- Keratin
- Melanin
- Chlorophyll (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Chlorophyll
Chlorophyll absorbs light energy to drive photosynthesis in the chloroplasts.
Question 259: If Angel ________________ the module like she was supposed to, she would have known what was on the exam.
- will have read
- had read (Correct answer)
- would have read
- shouldnât have read
Correct answer: had read
This sentence uses the third conditional structure, which describes a hypothetical situation in the past and its hypothetical result. The 'if' clause requires the past perfect tense ('had read') to indicate a condition that did not occur in the past. The main clause then uses 'would have known' to express the consequence.
Question 260: Lisa prepares soup by combining spices in a saucepan of boiling water and stirring until the spices are completely dissolved. She then adds a variety of diced veggies. What is the solute in her mixture?
- Water
- Heat
- Vegetables
- Spices (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Spices
In a solution, the solute is the substance that gets dissolved, and the solvent is the substance that does the dissolving. In Lisa's soup, the spices are dissolved in the boiling water. Therefore, the spices are the solute in this mixture.
Question 261: The _____________Â is playing the piano she received on her 8th birthday.
- Girl (Correct answer)
- Children
- Woman
- Boy
Correct answer: Girl
The pronoun 'she' in the sentence indicates that the subject is a singular female. Among the given options, 'Girl' is the only singular, female noun that fits the context of someone receiving a piano on their 8th birthday. The other options are either plural, male, or typically refer to an older person.
Question 262: Divide and simplify: á \/
- 2 1\/4 (Correct answer)
- 2 2\/8
- 16
- 12 2\/3
Correct answer: 2 1\/4
To divide fractions, you multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction. Assuming the fractions are 9/10 and 2/5, the operation becomes 9/10 * 5/2. Multiply the numerators (9*5=45) and the denominators (10*2=20) to get 45/20. Simplifying this improper fraction gives 9/4, which converts to the mixed number 2 1/4.
Question 263: Why is it important to identify bias in a passage?
- To evaluate the trustworthiness of the content (Correct answer)
- To find the authorâs name
- To memorize the content
- To understand emotional words
Correct answer: To evaluate the trustworthiness of the content
Identifying bias in a passage is critical because it reveals the author's potential leanings, prejudices, or one-sided perspectives, which can influence the information presented. Recognizing bias allows readers to critically evaluate the content's objectivity, question its reliability, and determine the trustworthiness of the information. This critical assessment is essential for forming well-informed and balanced opinions.
Question 264: Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP through oxidative phosphorylation?
- Mitochondria (Correct answer)
- Endoplasmic reticulum
- Golgi apparatus
- Ribosome
Correct answer: Mitochondria
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell, producing ATP through oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration.
Question 265: Which of the following correctly orders the levels of biological organization from smallest to largest?
- Organ system, organ, tissue, cell
- Organ, tissue, cell, organ system
- Cell, tissue, organ, organ system (Correct answer)
- Tissue, cell, organ system, organ
Correct answer: Cell, tissue, organ, organ system
Cells form tissues, tissues form organs, and organs form organ systems.
Question 266: What is the topic sentence of a paragraph?
- The shortest sentence
- The sentence that states the paragraph's main idea (Correct answer)
- The last sentence only
- Any sentence with a date
Correct answer: The sentence that states the paragraph's main idea
A topic sentence introduces the central idea that the rest of the paragraph supports.
Question 267: \tHow many milliliters are contained in 3 table spoons of fluid? (Enter numerical value only).
- 45 milliliters (Correct answer)
- 450 milliliters
- 405 milliliters
- 4.5 milliliters
Correct answer: 45 milliliters
To convert tablespoons to milliliters, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 tablespoon (tbsp) is equal to 15 milliliters (ml). Therefore, to find the milliliters in 3 tablespoons, you multiply 3 by 15. This calculation yields 45 milliliters.
Question 268: A nurse asks 'What else could explain this?' before acting. This reflects:
- Rushing to judgment
- Considering alternatives (Correct answer)
- Confirmation bias
- Avoiding decisions
Correct answer: Considering alternatives
Asking what else could explain findings shows consideration of alternatives.
Question 269: Evaluating the outcome of an intervention is important because it:
- Ends the nursing process
- Determines whether goals were met and if changes are needed (Correct answer)
- Is optional
- Replaces assessment
Correct answer: Determines whether goals were met and if changes are needed
Evaluation checks goal achievement and guides adjustments.
Question 270: When two interventions seem equally valid, critical thinking requires the nurse to:
- Weigh risks and benefits for the specific patient (Correct answer)
- Choose the faster one
- Ask another patient
- Pick randomly
Correct answer: Weigh risks and benefits for the specific patient
Comparing risks and benefits for the individual guides sound decisions.
Question 271: Which transition word signals that an example is coming?
- Meanwhile
- Although
- For instance (Correct answer)
- Nevertheless
Correct answer: For instance
'For instance' introduces an example that illustrates a point.
Question 272: What is the closest definition of biopsy?
- Enter a conversation
- Remove for observation or study (Correct answer)
- Conduct an interview
- Administer a written test
Correct answer: Remove for observation or study
A biopsy is a medical procedure involving the removal of tissue or cells from a living body. This sample is then sent to a laboratory for microscopic examination and study. The purpose is to diagnose diseases, especially cancer, or to determine the extent of a condition.
Question 273: If a passage's main idea is implied rather than stated, what should the reader do?
- Skip to the conclusion
- Assume there is no main idea
- Count the paragraphs
- Infer it from supporting details (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Infer it from supporting details
An implied main idea must be inferred by synthesizing the supporting details.
Question 274: The medical term 'hepatitis' refers to inflammation of the:
- Kidney
- Lung
- Heart
- Liver (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Liver
'Hepat-' is the root for liver, so hepatitis means inflammation of the liver.
Question 275: Which biomolecule serves as the primary long-term energy storage in animals?
- Fats (lipids) (Correct answer)
- Glycogen
- Cellulose
- Glucose
Correct answer: Fats (lipids)
Lipids store the most energy per gram for long-term reserves in animals.
Question 276: calculated by taking the object's initial and final speeds and averaging them
- Average velocity (Correct answer)
- average speed
- Force
- acceleration
Correct answer: Average velocity
Average velocity is calculated by taking the displacement (change in position) over time. While the question's phrasing mentions 'initial and final speeds and averaging them,' which is a simplified way to think about average velocity in certain contexts (like constant acceleration), it most closely aligns with the concept of average velocity, which considers the overall change in position over time, encompassing both speed and direction. Average speed, in contrast, is typically total distance divided by total time.
Question 277: In 'The benign tumor required monitoring but posed no immediate danger,' the word 'benign' most nearly means:
- Aggressive
- Contagious
- Painful
- Harmless (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Harmless
Posing 'no immediate danger' clarifies that 'benign' means harmless.
Question 278: What gas is released as a byproduct of photosynthesis?
- Carbon dioxide
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen (Correct answer)
- Methane
Correct answer: Oxygen
Photosynthesis splits water and releases oxygen as a byproduct.
Question 279: Convert 0.65 to a fraction in lowest term
- 20\/13
- 65\/100
- 13\/20 (Correct answer)
- 1\/65
Correct answer: 13\/20
To convert the decimal 0.65 to a fraction in lowest terms, first write it as a fraction over 100: 65/100. Then, simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 5. This reduces the fraction to 13/20.
Question 280: What is the meaning of incision?
- Injection
- Closure
- Cut (Correct answer)
- Fracture
Correct answer: Cut
An 'incision' is a surgical cut made in skin or flesh, typically during an operation or medical procedure. It is a precise opening created by a surgeon's instrument. Therefore, 'cut' is the most direct and accurate definition of an incision.
Question 281: When summarizing a passage, the reader should include which of the following?
- Every minor detail
- The main idea and key supporting points (Correct answer)
- Only the first sentence
- Personal opinions about the topic
Correct answer: The main idea and key supporting points
A good summary captures the central idea and the most important supporting points concisely.
Question 282: A passage discusses hand hygiene compliance: 'Despite strong evidence that proper hand washing reduces infection rates by up to 50%, compliance rates among healthcare workers remain between 40-60%.' The word 'despite' in this context indicates:
- A cause-and-effect relationship
- A chronological sequence
- Agreement between the two ideas
- A contrast between evidence and behavior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A contrast between evidence and behavior
The word 'despite' signals a contrast â the evidence strongly supports hand washing, yet compliance remains low, creating a contradiction.
Question 283: What is the closest definition of diagnosis?
- Explanation (Correct answer)
- Complication
- Alias
- Comment
Correct answer: Explanation
In a medical context, a diagnosis is the identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms. It involves interpreting signs and symptoms to provide an explanation for a patient's condition. This explanation guides treatment and prognosis.
Question 284: Which of the following is the best definition of the word consternation?
- Anger
- Laughable
- Anxiety (Correct answer)
- Strict
Correct answer: Anxiety
The word 'consternation' refers to a feeling of anxiety or dismay, typically at something unexpected. It describes a sense of alarm or dread that can arise from a sudden, unsettling event or situation. Therefore, 'anxiety' is the best definition, reflecting a state of unease or worry.
Question 285: Subtract: 3 1 \/ 2 - 2 2\/3
- 1 1\/5
- 5\/6 (Correct answer)
- 6\/5
- 5\/16
Correct answer: 5\/6
To subtract mixed numbers, first convert them into improper fractions. 3 1/2 becomes 7/2 and 2 2/3 becomes 8/3. Find a common denominator, which is 6, so 7/2 becomes 21/6 and 8/3 becomes 16/6. Subtracting these gives 21/6 - 16/6 = 5/6.
Question 286: What is the usage of scientific notation?
- The plan is to make it easier to deal with both tiny and large quantities. (Correct answer)
- The plan is to make it easier to deal with fewer numbers.
- There is no point.
- The plan is to make it easier to deal with larger numbers.
Correct answer: The plan is to make it easier to deal with both tiny and large quantities.
Scientific notation is a mathematical tool used to express very large or very small numbers in a more concise and manageable form. By representing numbers as a product of a coefficient and a power of 10, it simplifies calculations and comparisons involving extreme magnitudes, making them easier to read and understand.
Question 287: If a writer wants to appear objective, the writing should be free of:
- Biased or emotional language (Correct answer)
- Supporting evidence
- Clear organization
- Accurate facts
Correct answer: Biased or emotional language
Objective writing avoids bias and emotional appeals, relying on facts.
Question 288: The team with the _____________Â penalties usually wins a basketball game.
- the least
- less
- the fewest
- fewer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: fewer
'Fewer' is used when referring to countable nouns, such as 'penalties,' which can be individually counted. 'Less' is used for uncountable nouns (e.g., 'less water' or 'less time'). Since penalties are discrete units, 'fewer' is the correct comparative adjective to indicate a smaller quantity.
Question 289: Joy learned a new song to play on the guitar, and it sounds ____________.
- Beautifully
- Lovely (Correct answer)
- More beautiful
- Loveliest
Correct answer: Lovely
The verb 'sounds' in this sentence is a linking verb, which connects the subject ('it,' referring to the song) to a word that describes or renames the subject. Linking verbs should be followed by an adjective, not an adverb. 'Lovely' is an adjective that correctly describes the quality of the song.
HESI Admission Assessment (A2) Exam
The HESI A2 exam is a pre-admission test for nursing and allied health programs, evaluating academic readiness in various subjects.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong â answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds