Mixed Deck — All Family Nurse Practitioner Test Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real Family Nurse Practitioner Test practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All Family Nurse Practitioner Test Topics flashcards as text
A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance, and bradycardia. The BEST initial diagnostic test is:
Answer: TSH level
TSH is the most sensitive test for thyroid dysfunction; an elevated TSH confirms primary hypothyroidism before further testing.
Which patient would you recommend getting the HPV vaccine for?
Answer: Sally, age 17, who had a baby 6 months ago and is breastfeeding.
The HPV vaccine is recommended for individuals up to age 26, and it can be safely administered to breastfeeding women. Pregnancy is a contraindication for receiving the vaccine, and while the vaccine can be started as early as age 9, a 7-year-old is generally too young for the standard recommendation. A yeast allergy is not a contraindication for the HPV vaccine.
According to the US Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF), at what age should average-risk adults begin colorectal cancer screening?
Answer: 45 years
The USPSTF updated its recommendation in 2021 to begin colorectal cancer screening at age 45 for average-risk adults.
A positive Phalen's test reproduces which symptom and in which condition?
Answer: Paresthesias in the first three fingers; carpal tunnel syndrome
Phalen's test reproduces median nerve paresthesias in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, confirming carpal tunnel syndrome.
The FNP notes café-au-lait spots (>6, >15mm) in an adult patient. This finding raises suspicion for:
Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1
Six or more café-au-lait macules larger than 15 mm in adults are a major diagnostic criterion for neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1).
Which breath sound is MOST characteristic of consolidation (pneumonia)?
Answer: Bronchial breath sounds over lung periphery
Bronchial breath sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields indicate consolidation because solid tissue conducts sound differently than aerated lung.
Which of the following best describes tertiary prevention in the context of a patient with heart failure?
Answer: Cardiac rehabilitation and medication adherence to prevent hospitalization
Tertiary prevention aims to minimize complications and improve function in patients with established disease, such as cardiac rehab for heart failure patients.
Taking ACE inhibitors frequently results in a
Answer: Dry cough(10%)
Dry cough is one of the potential ACE inhibitor side effects. Hyperkalemia, or elevated blood potassium levels, fatigue
A patient with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. According to current guidelines, what is the recommended management?
Answer: Oral anticoagulation with a DOAC or warfarin
A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 2 or higher in males (or 3+ in females) warrants oral anticoagulation to reduce stroke risk.
Which cervical cancer screening guideline applies to a 32-year-old woman with no prior abnormal results?
Answer: Co-testing (Pap + HPV) every 5 years
Current USPSTF guidelines recommend co-testing with Pap smear and HPV test every 5 years for women aged 30–65 as a preferred option.
A patient in the third trimester of pregnancy presents with severe headache, visual changes, and BP of 162/110. The FNP's IMMEDIATE action is:
Answer: Emergency transfer to the hospital for evaluation of severe preeclampsia/eclampsia
Severe-range BPs (≥160/110) with CNS symptoms in the third trimester meet criteria for severe preeclampsia, requiring emergency hospitalization and IV antihypertensives.
Which of the following neoplasms is considered to be benign?
Answer: Leiomyoma
A leiomyoma is a benign tumor that originates from smooth muscle tissue, most commonly found in the uterus (often referred to as uterine fibroids). Unlike malignant neoplasms such as seminoma, glioma, or osteosarcoma, leiomyomas are non-cancerous, do not metastasize, and typically grow slowly without invading surrounding tissues. They are generally not life-threatening, though they can cause symptoms depending on their size and location.
An 80-year-old man with moderate dementia is brought in by his daughter who suspects elder abuse. During the visit, the patient has unexplained bruises and appears fearful. What is the FNP's mandatory obligation?
Answer: Report the suspected abuse to Adult Protective Services
FNPs are mandated reporters and must report suspected elder abuse to Adult Protective Services regardless of caregiver relationship.
Which EKG finding is the EARLIEST sign of hyperkalemia?
Answer: Peaked (tall, narrow, symmetric) T waves
Peaked T waves are the earliest EKG manifestation of hyperkalemia, preceding the PR prolongation, wide QRS, and eventually sine wave pattern.
A patient taking warfarin reports adding daily vitamin K supplements. The FNP anticipates which effect on INR?
Answer: Decreased INR due to increased clotting factor synthesis
Vitamin K is a cofactor for clotting factor synthesis; supplementing it antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effect, lowering the INR.
B12 deficiency anemia causes which of these symptoms?
Answer: Tingling and numbness of both feet
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia often manifests with neurological symptoms due to its role in nerve health. Peripheral neuropathy, characterized by tingling, numbness, and paresthesias (often in the feet and hands), is a classic neurological symptom of B12 deficiency. A vegan diet is a *cause*, not a symptom, and spoon-shaped nails/pica are associated with iron deficiency.
Tx: 500 mg of cipro BID for 7–14 days 500 mg of metronidazole every 6 to 8 hours for 7 to 14 days 7-10 days with Bactrim
Answer: Diverticulitis
The large intestine (colon) is affected by diverticular disease, diverticulitis, and associated digestive diseases. Diverticular illness causes the lining of the gut to develop tiny bulges or pockets known as diverticula. When these pockets swell or become infected, it is known as diverticulitis.
Which intervention is most effective for reducing cardiovascular disease risk in a patient with hypertension and hyperlipidemia?
Answer: Therapeutic lifestyle changes including diet and exercise
Therapeutic lifestyle changes including the DASH diet, weight loss, smoking cessation, and regular exercise are the most effective initial interventions for cardiovascular risk reduction.
The FNP is initiating a statin in a patient. Which laboratory test should be checked at baseline and periodically?
Answer: Liver function tests (ALT/AST)
Statins can rarely cause hepatotoxicity, so baseline and periodic liver function monitoring is recommended per guidelines.
A 45-year-old with newly diagnosed hypertension also has chronic kidney disease (eGFR 42). Which antihypertensive is the first-line choice?
Answer: Lisinopril
ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril) are first-line in CKD with hypertension due to their nephroprotective effects and reduction of proteinuria.