Family Nurse Practitioner Skill Flashcards
7 cards from real Family Nurse Practitioner Test practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Family Nurse Practitioner Skill flashcards as text
A 10-year-old child is brought in after a bee sting. She develops urticaria, throat tightness, and hypotension. What is the first-line treatment?
Answer: Epinephrine 0.3 mg IM in the lateral thigh
Intramuscular epinephrine in the anterolateral thigh is the first and most critical treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid onset and life-saving effect.
Which finding on urinalysis is most specific for a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli?
Answer: Positive leukocyte esterase and nitrites with WBC casts
Positive leukocyte esterase (indicating WBCs) combined with positive nitrites (indicating gram-negative bacteria like E. coli) is most specific for bacterial UTI.
A 68-year-old male with a history of BPH presents with acute urinary retention. What is the immediate management?
Answer: Insert a urinary catheter to decompress the bladder
Acute urinary retention requires immediate bladder decompression via urethral catheterization to prevent renal damage and relieve pain.
A 40-year-old woman is newly diagnosed with major depressive disorder and has no prior psychiatric history. Which class of medication is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
SSRIs are first-line for major depressive disorder due to their favorable side effect profile, efficacy, and safety in overdose compared to older antidepressants.
A school-age child presents with an intensely pruritic rash with linear burrows between the fingers and on the wrists, worse at night. What is the treatment?
Answer: Topical permethrin 5% cream applied from neck to toes and washed off after 8–14 hours
Scabies is treated with permethrin 5% cream applied to the entire body surface from neck down and left on for 8–14 hours; all household members should be treated simultaneously.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs)?
Answer: Personal history of DVT or pulmonary embolism
A personal history of venous thromboembolism (DVT/PE) is an absolute contraindication to estrogen-containing contraceptives due to markedly elevated clot risk.
A 55-year-old male with known coronary artery disease presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
Answer: Right coronary artery (RCA)
ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF indicate an inferior STEMI, most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery.