Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Flashcards
7 cards from real Family Nurse Practitioner Test practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Family Nurse Practitioner Practice flashcards as text
A 16-year-old female presents for a sports physical. She reports her last menstrual period was 14 months ago. She is at 85% ideal body weight and exercises 2 hours daily. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Female athlete triad with functional hypothalamic amenorrhea
The female athlete triad consists of low energy availability, menstrual dysfunction, and low bone density, commonly seen in young athletes.
A 45-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen right first metatarsophalangeal joint that began suddenly overnight. Serum uric acid is 9.2 mg/dL. Synovial fluid shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. What is the acute treatment?
Answer: Indomethacin or colchicine
NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin) or colchicine are first-line treatments for acute gout attacks to reduce inflammation.
A 30-year-old woman presents with a 2-cm thyroid nodule found incidentally on imaging. TSH is normal. What is the next appropriate step in evaluation?
Answer: Ultrasound-guided evaluation of the nodule
Thyroid ultrasound is the recommended first-line evaluation for thyroid nodules to assess characteristics and guide further management.
A 68-year-old man with BPH and hypertension is started on tamsulosin. What key adverse effect should the FNP counsel him about, especially before any planned eye surgery?
Answer: Intraoperative floppy iris syndrome
Alpha-blockers like tamsulosin cause intraoperative floppy iris syndrome, which ophthalmologists must be notified about prior to cataract surgery.
A 2-year-old presents with fever, irritability, and bulging fontanelle. Lumbar puncture shows CSF with elevated protein, decreased glucose, and WBC 800 cells/μL with 90% neutrophils. What is the most likely causative organism?
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children over 1 month and adults.
A 72-year-old woman taking lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough 3 weeks after starting the medication. Blood pressure is well controlled at 128/78 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Switch to an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
ACE inhibitor-induced cough is a class effect; switching to an ARB provides equivalent blood pressure control without this side effect.
A 14-year-old girl presents with acne consisting of open and closed comedones with a few inflammatory papules on her face. There are no nodules or cysts. What is the first-line topical treatment?
Answer: Topical retinoid (tretinoin or adapalene)
Topical retinoids are first-line for comedonal and mild inflammatory acne as they normalize follicular keratinization.