Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Flashcards
7 cards from real Family Nurse Practitioner Test practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Family Nurse Practitioner Practice flashcards as text
A 58-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a fasting glucose of 310 mg/dL and HbA1c of 10.2%. He is currently on metformin 1000 mg twice daily. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Initiate insulin therapy
With an HbA1c >10% and significantly elevated fasting glucose, insulin therapy is indicated to rapidly achieve glycemic control.
A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation screens positive on the 1-hour glucose challenge test (152 mg/dL). What is the next appropriate step?
Answer: Perform a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test
A positive 1-hour screen (≥140 mg/dL) requires a 3-hour 100g OGTT to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
A 45-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, irregular menses, and vaginal dryness. FSH is 55 mIU/mL. She has no contraindications. What is the first-line treatment for her vasomotor symptoms?
Answer: Combined estrogen-progestogen hormone therapy
Combined estrogen-progestogen therapy is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms in perimenopausal women with an intact uterus.
A 6-year-old boy is brought in for evaluation of inattentiveness and hyperactivity that disrupts class. The FNP wants to diagnose ADHD. According to DSM-5, symptoms must be present in at least how many settings?
Answer: Two settings
DSM-5 requires that ADHD symptoms be present in two or more settings (e.g., home and school) to meet diagnostic criteria.
A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life.' Neurological exam is normal. What is the priority action?
Answer: Order a CT scan of the head without contrast immediately
A thunderclap headache requires immediate non-contrast CT to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage before lumbar puncture.
A 55-year-old man with hypertension and stage 3 CKD (GFR 42) needs antihypertensive therapy. Which medication class is most beneficial for renoprotection in this patient?
Answer: ACE inhibitor
ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria, providing renoprotective benefits in CKD patients.
A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with an INR of 5.8 but no active bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Hold 1-2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR
For a supratherapeutic INR without bleeding, holding 1-2 doses and rechecking the INR is the standard approach.