Family Nurse Practitioner Knowledge Flashcards
7 cards from real Family Nurse Practitioner Test practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Family Nurse Practitioner Knowledge flashcards as text
A 35-year-old woman with migraine with aura is seeking contraception. Which method is contraindicated due to increased stroke risk?
Answer: Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive
Combined hormonal contraceptives containing estrogen are contraindicated (WHO MEC Category 4) in women with migraine with aura due to significantly increased ischemic stroke risk.
A 4-year-old child with a high fever develops a brief generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 90 seconds that self-resolves. This is the first episode. Which statement is most accurate?
Answer: This is a simple febrile seizure and routine anti-epileptic therapy is not indicated
Simple febrile seizures (<15 minutes, generalized, single episode) in children 6 months–5 years do not require anti-epileptic treatment or routine neuroimaging.
Which screening tool is recommended by the USPSTF for depression in adults in the primary care setting?
Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
The PHQ-9 is the validated, widely recommended screening tool for depression in primary care settings and is endorsed by USPSTF guidelines.
A patient presents with a painful, swollen, erythematous first metatarsophalangeal joint. Synovial fluid analysis reveals negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Gout
Negatively birefringent, needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals under polarized light are diagnostic of gout, which classically affects the first MTP joint (podagra).
A 25-year-old male presents with urethral discharge and dysuria. Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the first-line treatment?
Answer: Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose plus doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days
CDC guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500mg IM for uncomplicated gonorrhea plus doxycycline to treat concurrent chlamydia infection.
A 50-year-old woman with a BMI of 32 presents for a wellness visit. She has no symptoms but her fasting glucose is 118 mg/dL on two separate occasions. What is the diagnosis and recommended intervention?
Answer: Impaired fasting glucose (prediabetes); lifestyle modification and consider metformin
Fasting glucose 100–125 mg/dL on two occasions defines prediabetes; intensive lifestyle changes (weight loss, exercise) are first-line, with metformin for high-risk individuals.
Which finding on fetal non-stress test (NST) indicates a reactive (reassuring) result?
Answer: Two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of ≥15 bpm lasting ≥15 seconds within 20 minutes
A reactive NST requires at least two accelerations of ≥15 bpm above baseline for ≥15 seconds within a 20-minute window, indicating fetal well-being.