FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: How fast are you flying if you travel 3 miles in 2 minutes?

90 miles per hour. (Correct answer)
12 miles per hour.
60 miles per hour.

Correct answer: 90 miles per hour.

To find the speed in miles per hour, first convert the time from minutes to hours. Two minutes is 2/60, or 1/30, of an hour. Then, divide the distance (3 miles) by the time in hours (1/30 hour). This calculation results in 3 miles / (1/30 hour) = 90 miles per hour.

Question 2: What are the two numbers shown next to an airport's ATIS or AWOS/ASOS frequency on a sectional chart?

The primary ATIS frequency and the backup frequency
The unicom frequency and the CTAF frequency
The AWOS type number and its broadcast frequency (Correct answer)
The airport identifier and the elevation in hundreds of feet

Correct answer: The AWOS type number and its broadcast frequency

Sectional charts show the AWOS/ASOS type designation (e.g., AWOS-3) and the broadcast frequency so pilots can tune in for automated weather observations.

Question 3: Under FAA Part 107, the 55 lb weight limit for sUAS refers to:

The combined weight of all batteries used in a flight day
The empty weight of the airframe only
The total weight of the aircraft including everything onboard at takeoff (Correct answer)
The weight of the payload alone

Correct answer: The total weight of the aircraft including everything onboard at takeoff

Part 107 defines 55 lbs as the maximum takeoff weight including the aircraft, payload, batteries, and all attached equipment.

Question 4: How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

14.50 NM.
15.00 NM.
14.25 NM. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 14.25 NM.

To calculate the distance traveled, use the formula Distance = Speed x Time. First, convert 7.5 minutes to hours by dividing by 60 (7.5 / 60 = 0.125 hours). Then, multiply the ground speed by the time in hours: 114 knots * 0.125 hours = 14.25 nautical miles.

Question 5: A remote pilot conducts a night operation and observes that another aircraft's lights are visible nearby. What right-of-way rule applies?

The sUAS has right-of-way because it is the smaller aircraft
Right-of-way is determined by altitude — higher aircraft yields
The sUAS must yield right-of-way to all manned aircraft at all times (Correct answer)
The manned aircraft must yield if it is operating VFR and the sUAS is IFR

Correct answer: The sUAS must yield right-of-way to all manned aircraft at all times

Under Part 107, sUAS must always yield right-of-way to all manned aircraft, regardless of the situation.

Question 6: Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

Flashing white.
Flashing green. (Correct answer)
Steady green.

Correct answer: Flashing green.

Air traffic control towers use specific light gun signals to communicate with aircraft that are not equipped with radios or have radio failure. A flashing green light signal from the tower specifically clears a pilot to taxi. Other signals, such as a steady green (cleared for takeoff/landing) or flashing white (return to starting point), have different meanings.

Question 7: Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

Make all turns to the left.
Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

At noncontrolled airports, pilots are expected to comply with any FAA-established traffic pattern for that airport, as outlined in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). If no specific pattern is established, pilots should follow the recommended standard traffic pattern, which typically involves left turns. This standardization helps ensure predictable and safe flow of air traffic.

Question 8: What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?

Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area.
Moderate or severe turbulence.
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

A CONVECTIVE SIGMET is issued for significant weather phenomena associated with thunderstorms that are hazardous to all aircraft. One of the criteria for issuing a CONVECTIVE SIGMET is the presence of embedded thunderstorms. These are thunderstorms that are obscured by massive cloud layers, making them particularly dangerous as they are difficult for pilots to visually identify and avoid.

Question 9: A sUAS remote PIC receives a Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM) indicating a 3-nautical-mile TFR around a wildfire. The PIC is 3.5 NM away. What is the correct action?

Obtain LAANC authorization before proceeding
Operations over 400 feet AGL are prohibited but below 400 feet is permitted
Operations are permitted since the PIC is outside the 3 NM boundary
Contact the Incident Commander for a waiver before flying (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact the Incident Commander for a waiver before flying

Disaster/wildfire TFRs under 91.137 may still require coordination with the on-scene Incident Commander even for operations outside the formal boundary, and no LAANC access applies; the PIC at 3.5 NM should confirm with the IC.

Question 10: Which FAA regulation governs small UAS operations?

Part 107 (Correct answer)
Part 135
Part 61
Part 91

Correct answer: Part 107

FAA Part 107 is the specific regulation that governs the operation of small Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS), commonly known as drones, for commercial purposes in the United States. It outlines the rules, requirements, and responsibilities for remote pilots and their aircraft. Other FAA parts, like Part 91, primarily cover manned aircraft operations.

Question 11: How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. (Correct answer)
Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.

Correct answer: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

An Airworthiness Certificate, once issued, remains valid indefinitely, provided the aircraft continues to meet its type design and is in a condition for safe operation. This validity is contingent upon the aircraft being properly maintained, inspected, and operated in accordance with all applicable Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs). Failure to comply with these requirements can invalidate the certificate.

Question 12: No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. (Correct answer)
flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

Correct answer: ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

For VFR operations within Class D airspace, the basic weather minimums require a ground visibility of at least 3 statute miles. This ensures that pilots have adequate visual reference for takeoff and landing, as well as for seeing and avoiding other aircraft in the vicinity of the airport. This minimum is crucial for maintaining safety in controlled airspace where ATC provides separation services.

Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a requirement under the FAA's Remote ID rule for Part 107 operations?

Broadcasting the drone's altitude
Broadcasting the remote PIC's location (Correct answer)
Broadcasting the drone's geographic position
Broadcasting the drone's registration number

Correct answer: Broadcasting the remote PIC's location

Remote ID requires broadcast of the drone's position, altitude, velocity, and a session ID, but it does NOT require broadcasting the remote PIC's personal location.

Question 14: During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

500 feet. (Correct answer)
1,500 feet.
1,000 feet.

Correct answer: 500 feet.

For VFR flight at night in Class G airspace, at altitudes above 1,200 feet AGL but below 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum cloud clearance requirements are 3 miles visibility, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. These minimums are specified in FAR 91.155 to ensure adequate visual separation from clouds and other aircraft, especially during reduced visibility conditions at night. Options B and C state incorrect distances for 'below clouds' in this specific airspace and altitude.

Question 15: A Part 107 remote PIC is operating over a controlled area at a temporary flight restriction (TFR). What must the remote PIC do?

Immediately land the drone
Remain below 200 feet AGL to avoid the restriction
Continue operations if the drone is under 0.55 lbs
Obtain ATC authorization before operating within the TFR (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Obtain ATC authorization before operating within the TFR

TFRs restrict all aircraft including UAS, so the remote PIC must obtain ATC authorization before operating within the restricted airspace.

Question 16: (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

30 knots.
23 knots.
19 knots. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 19 knots.

To find the crosswind component for Runway 18 (heading 180°) with a wind from 220° at 30 knots, first determine the angular difference: 220° - 180° = 40°. Using Figure 36, locate the 30-knot arc and follow it to the 40-degree angle line. From this intersection, read horizontally to the 'Crosswind Component' scale, which indicates approximately 19 knots. This calculation helps pilots assess the impact of wind on landing conditions.

Question 17: (Refer to Figure 61.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?

30 pounds.
50 pounds.
300 pounds. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 300 pounds.

For the plank to balance, the sum of clockwise moments must equal the sum of counter-clockwise moments about the fulcrum. Based on Figure 61 (assuming X is 6 units left, Z is 2 units right, and Y is 1/3 unit right of the fulcrum), the left moment is 50 lbs * 6 units = 300 unit-lbs. The right moment from Z is 100 lbs * 2 units = 200 unit-lbs, so 300 lbs at Y (300 lbs * 1/3 unit) creates the additional 100 unit-lbs needed for balance.

Question 18: Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

An abbreviated briefing. (Correct answer)
A supplemental briefing.
An outlook briefing.

Correct answer: An abbreviated briefing.

An abbreviated briefing is the appropriate type of weather briefing to request when a pilot needs to supplement or update mass disseminated weather data. This briefing is concise and focuses on specific elements of weather information, such as current conditions, NOTAMs, or TFRs, without repeating all the information already obtained from sources like ATIS, HIWAS, or self-briefing tools. It's ideal for quick updates or confirming specific details before flight.

Question 19: When a pilot transmits 'short final' on the radio, it typically means the aircraft is:

Performing a short-field landing technique
Within approximately one-half mile of the runway on final approach (Correct answer)
Requesting a shortened approach pattern to save time
Requesting priority over other traffic from ATC

Correct answer: Within approximately one-half mile of the runway on final approach

'Short final' is a standard radio call indicating the aircraft is approximately one-half mile or less from the runway threshold on final approach.

Question 20: (Refer to Figure 20 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. (Correct answer)
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Correct answer: Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

Restricted areas, such as R-5302B (Figure 20, area 4), denote airspace where operations are subject to restrictions due to the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft. These hazards can include artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missile activities. Pilots must obtain authorization from the controlling agency before entering a Restricted Area to avoid potential danger.

Question 21: The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. (Correct answer)
500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

Correct answer: 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

For VFR operations within Class D airspace, the basic weather minimums require a ceiling of at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles of visibility. These minimums ensure that pilots have adequate visual reference for safe flight operations, including takeoff, landing, and maneuvering within the airport traffic pattern. This helps maintain an orderly flow of traffic and reduces the risk of collisions in controlled airspace.

Question 22: Which of the following is an acceptable storage condition for LiPo batteries between flights?

At storage voltage (approximately 3.8V per cell) in a fire-resistant LiPo bag (Correct answer)
Fully charged at 4.2V per cell in a sealed plastic bag
Discharged below 3V per cell to minimize chemical activity
Stored in a hot vehicle to prevent moisture absorption

Correct answer: At storage voltage (approximately 3.8V per cell) in a fire-resistant LiPo bag

LiPo batteries stored at approximately 3.8V per cell (storage voltage) in a LiPo-safe bag experience minimal degradation and present the lowest fire risk.

Question 23: How long will it take you to fly 300 miles at 120 miles per hour

230 minutes.
15 minutes.
150 minutes. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 150 minutes.

To calculate the time required for a flight, divide the total distance by the speed. In this case, divide 300 miles by 120 miles per hour to get 2.5 hours. To convert this to minutes, multiply 2.5 hours by 60 minutes per hour, which equals 150 minutes.

Question 24: A client signs a contract requiring drone footage deliverables, but on the shoot day, the airspace authorization is denied. What is the operator's best course of action?

Fly anyway and seek forgiveness from the FAA afterward
Use a recreational exemption to complete the flight legally
Appeal to the local FSDO for an immediate override
Inform the client, reschedule, and re-apply for authorization for the new date (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inform the client, reschedule, and re-apply for authorization for the new date

If authorization is denied, the operator must not fly in controlled airspace; rescheduling and reapplying is the proper professional and legal response.

Question 25: (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

1,534 feet AGL. (Correct answer)
1,549 feet MSL.
1,549 feet MSL.

Correct answer: 1,534 feet AGL.

Referring to Figure 23, area 3, locate the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International. Obstacles on sectional charts are depicted with two numbers: the top number indicates the obstacle's height in feet Mean Sea Level (MSL), and the number in parentheses below it represents its height in feet Above Ground Level (AGL). The question specifically asks for the height AGL, which is 1,534 feet.

Question 26: The ____________ provide the most comprehensive information about a certain airport:

Terminal Aerial Chart (TAC).
The Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory). (Correct answer)
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).

Correct answer: The Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).

The Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly known as the Airport Facility Directory or AFD) provides the most comprehensive and detailed information about airports, heliports, and associated navigational data. It includes critical operational details such as runway specifications, available services, communication frequencies, and other information essential for thorough flight planning that is not found on sectional charts or NOTAMs alone.

Question 27: What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.3) mandate that a pilot acting as pilot in command must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft an appropriate pilot certificate and, if required for the operation, an appropriate current medical certificate. These documents verify the pilot's qualifications and medical fitness to fly, ensuring compliance with regulations.

Question 28: Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are compiled with?

Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
Repair station.
Owner or operator. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Owner or operator.

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are legally enforceable regulations issued by the FAA to correct unsafe conditions in aircraft. Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) clearly state that the owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for ensuring compliance with all applicable ADs. This ensures the continued airworthiness and safety of the aircraft.

Question 29: When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence. (Correct answer)
rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.

Correct answer: sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

Wingtip vortices are generated by the pressure differential over the wing and descend at a rate of several hundred feet per minute while spreading outwards. This means they sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft that generated the turbulence, posing a significant hazard during takeoff and landing operations.

Question 30: (Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is

light to moderate.
light to moderate rime. (Correct answer)
light to moderate clear.

Correct answer: light to moderate rime.

Pilot Reports (PIREPs) provide actual weather conditions encountered by pilots, including icing. In Figure 14, the icing information is found in the "/IC" group of the PIREP. This group specifically states "LGT-MOD RIME 055-080", indicating light to moderate rime icing was encountered between 5,500 feet and 8,000 feet MSL. This direct observation from a pilot is critical for other aviators to understand current icing hazards.

Question 31: A remote PIC's pre-flight site survey identifies high-voltage power lines crossing the planned flight path at 200 feet AGL. What is the most appropriate contingency action?

Notify the utility company and proceed with the original plan
Plan to cross the power lines at 300 feet AGL with a 100-foot buffer
Use a spotter to watch for the lines during the crossing
Reroute the flight path entirely to avoid crossing the power lines (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reroute the flight path entirely to avoid crossing the power lines

High-voltage power lines pose extreme hazards (electromagnetic interference, physical obstruction, electrocution risk); rerouting to avoid them entirely is the safest contingency.

Question 32: When communicating with ATC, a remote pilot should:

Use informal language to be friendly
Be concise and use standard aviation phraseology (Correct answer)
Use a cell phone instead of radio
Only speak when spoken to

Correct answer: Be concise and use standard aviation phraseology

Standard aviation phraseology ensures clear, efficient communication and reduces the risk of misunderstandings with ATC.

Question 33: What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

55 to 100 KTS. (Correct answer)
60 to 208 KTS.
65 to 165 KTS.

Correct answer: 55 to 100 KTS.

The white arc on an airspeed indicator denotes the full flap operating range, from the power-off stall speed with flaps extended (Vso) to the maximum flap extended speed (Vfe). For this specific question, the range of 55 to 100 KTS falls within a typical white arc, indicating the safe operating speeds for flap deployment.

Question 34: If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

Wind-shear turbulence. (Correct answer)
Steady rain.
Precipitation static.

Correct answer: Wind-shear turbulence.

Thunderstorms are associated with severe weather phenomena, and one of the most dangerous for aircraft on landing approach is wind-shear turbulence. Strong updrafts and downdrafts, particularly microbursts, can create abrupt and significant changes in wind speed and direction over short distances. Encountering such wind shear during a critical phase of flight like landing can drastically alter an aircraft's airspeed and lift, posing a serious hazard.

Question 35: Which FAA form is used to request a waiver from a Part 107 regulation?

FAA Form 7711-2
FAA Form 8060-56
FAA Form 7711-65 (Correct answer)
FAA Form 8710-1

Correct answer: FAA Form 7711-65

FAA Form 7711-65 (DroneZone online application) is used to apply for Part 107 waivers.

Question 36: Which radio frequency should a remote PIC monitor when operating near an uncontrolled airport to maintain situational awareness of manned aircraft?

CTAF/UNICOM frequency published for that airport (Correct answer)
121.5 MHz (emergency frequency)
122.75 MHz (air-to-air frequency)
123.45 MHz (pilot discretion frequency)

Correct answer: CTAF/UNICOM frequency published for that airport

The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) or UNICOM for the specific airport is where manned aircraft announce their positions and intentions near uncontrolled airports.

Question 37: What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

Roll cloud.
Frequent lightning.
Continuous updraft. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continuous updraft.

The cumulus stage is the initial phase of a thunderstorm, characterized primarily by strong, continuous updrafts. During this stage, warm, moist air rises, condenses, and builds the towering cumulus cloud. There is no precipitation or lightning yet, as the cloud is still growing vertically, sustained by these persistent upward air currents.

Question 38: Which federal agency enforces privacy laws most directly related to government drone surveillance of citizens?

FAA
FCC
Department of Homeland Security
Congress through legislation; enforcement varies by agency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Congress through legislation; enforcement varies by agency

No single federal agency exclusively enforces drone privacy laws; Congress sets law and enforcement is distributed across multiple agencies and state courts.

Question 39: Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any

authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
person in a position of authority.
federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

According to 14 CFR Part 61.3(l), any person holding a pilot certificate or a medical certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator (FAA), the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. This ensures that pilots are properly credentialed and can be verified by authorized personnel.

Question 40: The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

air temperature. (Correct answer)
dewpoint.
stability of the air.

Correct answer: air temperature.

The amount of water vapor that air can hold is directly dependent on its temperature. Warmer air has a greater capacity to hold water vapor because the higher kinetic energy of the air molecules allows more water molecules to remain in a gaseous state. As air cools, its capacity to hold water vapor decreases, leading to condensation and the formation of clouds or precipitation if the dewpoint is reached.

Question 41: A construction company asks you to fly inside a partially built warehouse structure. Under Part 107, indoor flight is:

Not regulated by Part 107 because it applies to national airspace, which does not include indoor spaces (Correct answer)
Allowed only if the structure has no roof
Regulated by Part 107 the same as outdoor flight
Prohibited for commercial operators without a special indoor permit

Correct answer: Not regulated by Part 107 because it applies to national airspace, which does not include indoor spaces

Part 107 governs operations in the National Airspace System; indoor flights are generally not within NAS and therefore not subject to Part 107.

Question 42: In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class B.
Class C.
Class A. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class A.

Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 (60,000 feet MSL) over the contiguous United States and Alaska. All operations within Class A airspace must be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), meaning VFR flights are strictly prohibited. This ensures a high level of control and separation for high-altitude air traffic.

Question 43: Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

1,000 feet and 3 miles. (Correct answer)
2,500 feet and 3 miles.
1,000 feet and 1 mile.

Correct answer: 1,000 feet and 3 miles.

For normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower, the basic weather minimums require a ceiling of at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles of visibility. These minimums are established to ensure pilots have adequate visual reference for safe flight operations within the controlled environment of the airport traffic area, allowing for effective traffic management and collision avoidance.

Question 44: Please see Figure 44. In relation to the impediment 7 SM west of McKinney Airport, choose the appropriate answer (area 5).

The obstruction is unlighted.
The elevation of the top of the obstruction is 729 feet AGL.
The obstruction has high-intensity lights. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The obstruction has high-intensity lights.

Referring to Figure 44, area 5, locate the obstruction 7 SM west of McKinney Airport. The symbol for this obstruction includes a lightning bolt, which is the standard sectional chart symbol for high-intensity lights. This indicates that the obstruction is equipped with powerful lights designed to be visible from a significant distance, especially during day and night.

Question 45: What does TFR stand for?

Transponder Frequency Requirement
Temporary Flight Restriction (Correct answer)
Total Flight Range
Traffic Flow Route

Correct answer: Temporary Flight Restriction

TFRs are Temporary Flight Restrictions that prohibit or limit flight in designated airspace for safety, security, or national interest reasons.

Question 46: A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the

nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action.
FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action. (Correct answer)
FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.

Correct answer: FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required by 14 CFR Part 61.15(e) to provide a written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700). This report must be submitted within 60 days after the date of such action. This regulation ensures the FAA is aware of any incidents that may affect a pilot's fitness to fly.

Question 47: SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

All aircraft. (Correct answer)
Large aircraft only.
Small aircraft only.

Correct answer: All aircraft.

A SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information) is a weather advisory issued for all aircraft concerning weather phenomena that are potentially hazardous to all aircraft. These advisories cover severe icing, severe or extreme turbulence, dust storms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash that obscure visibility to less than three miles, making them critical for all types of aviation.

Question 48: What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

1 mile.
3 miles. (Correct answer)
4 miles.

Correct answer: 3 miles.

For VFR flight operations on an airway (which is Class E airspace) below 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility required is 3 statute miles. Additionally, pilots must maintain cloud clearances of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. These regulations, found in 14 CFR Part 91.155, ensure safe separation from other aircraft and obstacles in controlled airspace.

Question 49: The angle of ___________ is the angle formed by the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind.

lift
incidence
attack (Correct answer)

Correct answer: attack

The angle of attack is a fundamental aerodynamic principle defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the relative wind. This angle is crucial because it directly determines the amount of lift and drag generated by the wing. Understanding and controlling the angle of attack is essential for safe and efficient flight, as exceeding the critical angle of attack leads to a stall.

Question 50: An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

16.2 gallons.
18.4 gallons. (Correct answer)
15.7 gallons.

Correct answer: 18.4 gallons.

To reduce the aircraft's weight by 110 pounds, fuel must be drained. Aviation gasoline (AVGAS) has a standard weight of 6 pounds per gallon. Therefore, to remove 110 pounds, you divide the excess weight by the fuel's density: 110 lbs / 6 lbs/gallon = 18.33 gallons, which rounds to 18.4 gallons.

Question 51: What effect does increasing payload weight have on a multirotor's agility and response to control inputs?

Agility decreases because greater inertia requires more torque to change attitude (Correct answer)
Payload has no effect on control response in GPS mode
Agility increases because heavier drones have more momentum
Control response improves due to increased gyroscopic stability

Correct answer: Agility decreases because greater inertia requires more torque to change attitude

Higher payload increases the system's rotational inertia, requiring more motor torque to execute the same maneuvers, which slows control response.

Question 52: What is the safest weather condition for drone operations?

Heavy rain and wind.
Clear skies with calm winds (Correct answer)
Snow and low visibility.
Thunderstorms.

Correct answer: Clear skies with calm winds

Clear skies with calm winds represent the safest weather conditions for drone operations. Clear visibility ensures the pilot maintains visual line of sight, while calm winds minimize the energy required for the drone to maintain stability, reducing the risk of environmental interference and ensuring a stable, predictable flight.

Question 53: What is the purpose of the isogonic lines (lines of equal magnetic variation) printed on a sectional chart?

To indicate areas where compass deviation is extreme
To show terrain elevation contours
To allow pilots to convert between true and magnetic headings (Correct answer)
To mark the boundaries of magnetic anomaly areas

Correct answer: To allow pilots to convert between true and magnetic headings

Isogonic lines on sectional charts connect points of equal magnetic variation, enabling pilots (and drone operators) to convert true headings from the chart to magnetic headings for navigation.

Question 54: The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is

165 KTS.
100 KTS.
208 KTS. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 208 KTS.

The maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated in smooth air without risking structural damage is known as the Never-Exceed Speed (VNE). This speed is typically marked by a red line on the airspeed indicator. Operating above VNE, even in smooth air, can lead to structural failure due to excessive aerodynamic stress on the airframe.

Question 55: With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

14,500 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL. (Correct answer)
10,000 feet MSL.

Correct answer: 18,000 feet MSL.

Class E airspace, which is controlled airspace not designated as Class A, B, C, or D, generally extends upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL. This airspace extends up to, but does not include, 18,000 feet MSL. At 18,000 feet MSL, Class A airspace begins, which is exclusively for IFR operations, thus defining the upper boundary for most VFR and lower-altitude IFR operations within Class E.

Question 56: A commercial sUAS operation requires lifting a 2.2 lb sensor to 300 ft AGL in calm winds. Which specification is most critical to verify before flight?

That the payload is within the drone's rated payload capacity and the total MTOW is under 55 lbs (Correct answer)
That the drone's FPV camera is operational
That the drone has a minimum of 8 motors
That the operation takes place before noon local time

Correct answer: That the payload is within the drone's rated payload capacity and the total MTOW is under 55 lbs

Confirming payload is within rated capacity and total weight is under 55 lbs ensures both manufacturer safety and FAA Part 107 compliance.

Question 57: Which V-speed represents best-angle-of-climb speed?

VY.
VA.
VX. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: VX.

Vx represents the best-angle-of-climb speed, which allows the aircraft to gain the most altitude over a given horizontal distance. This speed is crucial for clearing obstacles immediately after takeoff, as it maximizes the climb gradient. It is typically a lower airspeed than Vy (best rate of climb).

Question 58: (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits. Front seat occupants.......................350 lb Rear seat occupants........................325 lb Baggage.....................................27 lb Fuel........................................35 gal

CG 84.1, within limits.
CG 81.7, out of limits forward.
CG 83.4, within limits. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CG 83.4, within limits.

The correct answer is B because a precise calculation of the total weight and moment, using the provided loading information and aircraft data from Figures 32 and 33, yields a CG of 83.4 inches and a total weight of 2862 lbs. Plotting this point on the CG moment envelope (Figure 33) confirms it falls within the allowable operating range for both weight and CG. Options A and C represent incorrect calculations or misinterpretations of the CG envelope limits.

Question 59: ATC can issue a STAR

When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "NO STAR" (Correct answer)
to all pilots wherever STARs are avilable
Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the "Remarks" section of the flight plan

Correct answer: When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "NO STAR"

A Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR) is a pre-planned instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival procedure designed to streamline traffic flow into busy airports. ATC can issue a STAR when they deem it appropriate for efficiency and safety. However, pilots have the option to decline a STAR by requesting 'NO STAR' in their flight plan or upon initial contact, if they prefer a different arrival procedure.

Question 60: (Refer to Figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.
KINK, KBOI, and KLAX. (Correct answer)
All.

Correct answer: KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.

VFR (Visual Flight Rules) weather conditions require a ceiling greater than 3,000 feet AGL and visibility greater than 5 statute miles. By interpreting the METARs: KINK, KBOI, and KLAX all report 10 statute miles visibility and ceilings well above 3,000 feet (BKN250 or higher). In contrast, KJFK reports 1 1/2 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 700 feet, which are IFR conditions.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam

The FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) exam certifies individuals to operate small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially, ensuring safe and legal flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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